DU LLM Entrance Exam 2018 Question Paper

DU LLM Entrance Exam  2018 Question Paper

Q 1. Which of the following statement is true regarding the social contract theory on origin of State?
1. State is a creation of agreement between people
2. Thomas Hobbes’ social contract theory supported limited constitutional monarchy
3. According to Rousseau, the ruler was bound by the general will of the people
4. According to Locke, the sovereign was absolute and his word was the law.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) All are correct.
(b) 1 and 2 are correct.
(c) 1 and 3 are correct.
(d) 1 and 4 are correct.

Q 2. Which of the following statement is incorrect?
(a) A stipulation in a contract of sale may be a condition or warranty.
(b) A breach of warranty sometimes results into repudiation of contract.
(c) A breach of condition results into repudiation of contract.
(d) All these

Q 3. Which of the following exceptions to strict liability were recognised by Justice Blackburn in Rylands v. Fletcher?
1. Vis major
2. Statutory authority
3. Plaintiff’s own default
4. Act of third party
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 3 and 4
(b) 1, 2 and 3
(c) All of these
(d) 1 and 3

Q 4. Which of the following Acts was amended by the Criminal Law Amendment Act, 2013?
(a) None of these
(b) The Protection of Children from Sexual Offences Act, 2012
(c) The Information Technology Act, 2000
(d) The Immoral Trafficking (Prevention) Act, 1956

Q 5. Which of the following observations on fundamental rights was made by the Supreme Court in K.S. Puttaswamy v. Union of India?
1. There is no overlap between rights enumerated under Article 19 and Article 21 of the Constitution of India.
2. The constitutional values embodied under every Article of Part III of the Constitution of India animates the interpretation of the other.
3. Only Article 21 contains residue of fundamental rights that are not expressly stipulated under Article 19 of the Constitution of India.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 2 and 3 are correct.
(b) Only 3 is correct.
(c) Only 2 is correct.
(d) 1 and 2 are correct.

Q 6. Which of the following is sensitive personal information according to rule 3 of the Information Technology (Reasonable Security Practices and Procedures and Sensitive Data or Information) Rules, 2011?
1. Credit card details
2. Medical records
3. Mobile number
4. Sexual orientation
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) 1, 3 and 4 are correct.
(b) 1, 2 and 4 are correct.
(c) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(d) All of these are correct.

Q 7. Which of the following is/are mechanism/mechanisms of pacific settlement of disputes under the UN Charter?
(a) Enquiry
(b) Judicial Settlement
(c) Arbitration
(d) All these

Q 8. Which of the following actions of host is allowed under the Vienna Convention on Diplomatic Relations of 1961:
(a) The host nation at any time and for any reason can declare a particular member of the diplomatic staff of the mission to be persona non grata.
(b) The host state can any time search the premises of the diplomatic staff.
(c) The host state can at any time withdraw the immunities granted to diplomats.
(d) The host state can at any time confiscate the diplomatic bag.

Q 9. Which of the following provisions of the UN Charter is correctly matched:
(a) Article 2 (5) Principle of Settlement of Disputes by Peaceful Means
(b) Article 2 (6) Principle of Non-Intervention
(c) Article 2 (4) Prohibition on Use of Force
(d) Article 2 (2) Principle of Sovereign Equality of the UN Members

Q 10. Which of the following are “Inventions Not Patentable” under the Patent Act, 1970?
(a) Invention relating to atomic Energy
(b) A method of agriculture or horticulture
(c) All of these
(d) Topography of integrated circuits

Q 11. Which of the following are conditions of a valid Hindu marriage in accordance with section 5 of the Hindu Marriage Act, 1955?
1. Prior consent of the parties.
2. Neither Party must have a spouse living at the time of the marriage.
3. The bridegroom must have completed the age of 21 years and the bride, the age of 18 years at the time of the marriage.
4. The parties are not sagotras of each other.
5. The parties are not sapindas of each other.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) Only 1, 2, 3 and 4 are correct.
(b) Only 1, 2, 3 and 5 are correct.
(c) Only 1, 2 and 3 are correct.
(d) Only 2, 3 and 5 are correct.

Q 12. Which of the following is an example of obligatio erga omnes of states under International Law?
(a) Protection from Wars
(b) Protection from slavery
(c) Protection from Political Crimes
(d) None of these

Q 13. Which of the following is an implied condition in case of a contract for sale by sample?
(a) Goods shall not be free from any defect, rendering them un merchantable, which would not be apparent on reasonable examination of the sample.
(b) Bulk not corresponding with the sample in quality.
(c) Buyer shall not have a reasonable opportunity of comparing the bulk with the sample.
(d) None of these

Q 14. Read the following statements about the offence of dacoity under the Indian Penal Code, 1860:
1. Attempt to commit dacoity is punishable.
2. Assembling for the purpose of dacoity is punishable.
3. Preparation for dacoity is punishable.
Choose the correct option from below:
(a) Only 1 and 3 are correct.
(b) Only 1 and 2 are correct.
(c) Only 2 and 3 are correct.
(d) 1, 2 and 3 are correct.

Q 15. Which among the following is generally referred to as the subtle species of fraud?
(a) Undue Influence
(b) Deliberate Mistake
(c) Misrepresentation
(d) Coercion

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