SET LAW 2011


Instructions (Questions 1 to 2): In the following questions, jumbled letters of a meaningful word are given. Rearrange these letters and select from the given alternatives the word which is almost opposite in the meaning to the rearranged word.

(a) avoid
(b) abstain
(c) forego
(d) neglect

(a) tiresome
(b) painful
(c) troublesome
(d) lengthy

Instructions (Questions 3 to 4): Choose the correct alternative.

3. The only true education comes through the stimulation of the child’s powers by the demands of the social situations in which he finds himself. Through these demands he is stimulated to act as a member of a unity, to emerge from his original narrowness of action and feeling, and to conceive him from the standpoint of the welfare of the group to which he belongs.
The passage best supports the statement that real education
(a) will take place if the children imbibe action and feeling.
(b) will take place if the children are physically strong.
(c) is not provided in our schools today.
(d) comes through the interaction with social situations.

4. The prevention of accidents makes it necessary not only that safety devices are used to guard exposed machinery but also that mechanics be instructed in safety rules which they must follow for their own protection, and that lighting in the plant be adequate.
The passage best supports the statement that industrial accidents
(a) are always avoidable.
(b) may be due to ignorance.
(c) can be eliminated with the help of safety rules.
(d) cannot be entirely overcome.

Instructions (Question 5): In the following question, some words are given which are related in some way. The same relationship exists among the words in one of the four alternatives given under it. Find the correct alternative.

5. France: Spain: Germany
(a) Japan: China: Turkey
(b) Sri Lanka: Japan: India
(c) Iraq: Kuwait: Iran
(d) Canada: California: Mexico

Instructions (Questions 6 to 8): In each of the following questions (Questions 6 to 8) the first 2 words (given in italics) have a definite relationship.
Choose one word out of given 4 alternatives which will fill in the blank space and show the same relationship with the third word as between the first two.

6. Constitution is to Amendment as Book is to____
(a) errata
(b) contents
(c) preface
(d) acknowledgement

7. Flower is to Bouquet as Minister is to______
(a) department
(b) constituency
(c) voter
(d) cabinet

8. In the word ORGANIZATIONAL, if the first and second, third and fourth, fifth and sixth words are likewise interchanged up to the last letter, what would be the outcome?

Directions (Questions 9 to 11): Complete the following series.

9. 40,42,39,44,38,46,?
(a) 33
(b) 35
(c) 37
(d) 36

10. 15, 18,21,24,27,?
(a) 27
(b) 32
(c) 30
(d) 29

11. Look at this series: 7,10,8,11,9,12,______
What number should come next?
(a) 7
(b) 10
(c) 12
(d) 13

Instructions (Questions 12 to 15): For each of the following questions, there are two words and four alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are two words. Find out the alternative whose two words have the same relation as in the two words given in the beginning.

12. Crime: Punishment
(a) Breach of Contract: Damages
(b) Compensation: Torts
(c) Imprisonment: Execution
(d) Civil: Criminal

13. Mistake: Void
(a) Misrepresentation: Voidable
(b) Contract: Enforceable
(c) Counter-offer: Void
(d) Agreement: Voidable

14. Freedom: Slavery
(a) Trouble: Safety
(b) Trouble: Torture
(c) Independence: Safety
(d) Anarchy: Democracy

15. Appellant: Respondent
(a) Criminal: Police
(b) Plaintiff: Defendant
(c) Respondent: Complainant
(d) Respondent: Petitioner

16. Read the following statements carefully and state which of the following options is true.
Statement: It is desirable to put the child in school at the age of 5 or so.
I. At that age the child reaches appropriate level of development and is ready to learn.
II. The schools do not admit children after six years of age.
(a) Only assumption I is implicit
(b) Only assumption II is implicit
(c) Neither I nor II is implicit
(d) Both I and II are implicit

17. Read the following statements carefully and state which of the following options is true.
Statements: Some kings are queens.
All queens are beautiful.
I. All kings are beautiful.
II. All queens are kings.
(a) Only conclusion I follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Neither I nor II follows
(d) Both I and II follow

18. Read the following statements carefully and state which of the following options is true.
I. The government has recently fixed the fees for professional courses offered by unaided institutions which are much lower than the fees charged last year.
II. The parents of the aspiring students launched a severe agitation last year protesting against the high fees charged by the unaided institutions.
(a) Statement I is the cause and statement II is its effect
(b) Statement II is the cause and statement I is its effect
(c) Both the statements I and II are independent causes
(d) Both the statements I and II are effects of independent causes

19. Marathon is to race as hibernation is to
(a) winter.
(b) bear.
(c) dream.
(d) sleep.

20. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
(a) Parsley
(b) Basil
(c) Dill
(d) Mayonnaise

21. Tree is to leaf as book is to
(a) fiction.
(b) pages.
(c) pictures.
(d) learning.

22. Which number replaces the question mark?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 11
(d) 8

23. Which number completes the puzzle?
(a) 19
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 27

24. Choose the odd pair of words
(a) Blacksmith: Anvil
(b) Carpenter: Saw
(c) Barber: Scissor
(d) Goldsmith: Ornaments

25. 1 : 1 :: 25 : ?
(a) 26
(b) 125
(c) 240
(d) 625

26. Many people argue that death penalty deters murder. However, the notorious killer Ned Grandy deliberately moved to a state that imposes death penalty just before, embarking on a series of ferocious murders. Thus, it seems clear that the existence of death penalty does not serve as a deterrent to murder.
The argument above may best be characterized as
(a) an appeal to emotion.
(b) a flawed analogy.
(c) a general conclusion based on a specific example.
(d) circular reasoning.

Instructions (Questions 27 to 28):

27. There are 8 candidates vying to become the Mayor of Cedarville. The following condi¬tions apply to the voting:
If Matthews gets more votes than Lawrence, the winner will be Olson.
If King gets more votes than Johnson, or Olson gets more votes than Patterson, the winner will be Quinn.
If Johnson gets more votes than King, and Lawrence gets more votes than Matthews, the winner will be Nelson.
If Quinn wins the election, which of the following statements must be true?
(a) Johnson got more votes than King.
(b) Matthews did not receive more votes than Lawrence.
(c) Olson got more votes than Patterson.
(d) Lawrence got more votes than Matthews.

28. If Nelson did not win the election but Lawrence got more votes than Matthews, which of the following statements must be true?
(a) Johnson did not get more votes than King.
(b) Olson won the prize.
(c) King did not get more votes than Olson.
(d) Quinn won the prize.

29. Every single member of the Junior Classical League applied for the scholarship. Dave must be a member of the Junior Classical League, since he applied for the scholarship. Which of the following statements best indicates the central flaw in the above reasoning?
(a) Some of the members of the Junior Classical League do not understand the scholarship requirements.
(b) Dave is also a member of the Spanish Club.
(c) Sophomores were not allowed to apply for the scholarship.
(d) Some people who applied for the scholarship are not members of the Junior Classical League.

30. 9, 16,23,30,37,44,51,_______ ?,?
(a) 59,66
(b) 56,62
(c) 58,66
(d) 58,65


31. Which one of the following is not a feature of Indian Constitution?
(a) Presidential type of government.
(b) Independence of judiciary.
(c) Federal government.
(d) Republican form of government.

32. Which of the following is not a Fundamental Right in India?
(a) Right to vote.
(b) Protection against self-incrimination.
(c) Right to free and compulsory education up to age of 14 years.
(d) Protection against ex post facto laws.

33. Which one of the following rights cannot be suspended during national emergency?
(a) Right to equality.
(b) Right to life and personal liberty.
(c) Freedom or religion.
(d) Freedom of speech and expression.

Directions (Questions 34 to 35): Given below are two statements. One is Assertion (A) and the other is of Reason (R). Choose the correct alternative.

34. Assertion (A): All contracts are agreements.
Reason (R): An agreement enforceable by law is a contract.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

35. Assertion (A): Every contract must be supported with a consideration.
Reason (R): Every contract without a consideration is void.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

36. Legal Principle: A contract obtained by misrepresentation is voidable at the option of the buyer.
Factual Situation: Anand wants to sell his house. Anupama approaches him with an offer to buy the house and Anand shows her the house. The house is not in a very good condition and visibly requires repairs, with-out which it is uninhabitable. Anand does not tell anything regarding the required repairs to be livable. Anupama purchases the house for a huge consideration. Later on when she wants to move in her things into the house to start living she realizes the heavy repairs that the house requires urgently.
(a) Anupama will not succeed because she has to be careful about what he is purchasing in all circumstances, unless the defects are concealed and cannot be seen or has been hidden.
(b) Anupama will succeed because Anand knowingly sold the house and she should have informed Anupama about the condition of the house.
(c) Anupama will succeed because she would never have purchased the house in case if she was held about the status of the house.
(d) A buyer always has the option to refuse performance of his part of the contract.

37. Legal Principle: Performance of a legal duty cannot be a consideration for a promise.
Factual Situation: A’s wallet is stolen by a thief. A lodges a complaint in the police station. A promises to pay a sum of ? 500 to the person who is able to apprehend the thief and get back his wallet. The policeman’s servant X apprehends the thief and gets back the wallet. A refuses to pay X the promised ? 500.
Choose the correct option:
I. The servant is entitled to the reward.
II. The policeman would have been entitled to the reward had he been the person to apprehend the thief.
III. The policeman would be entitled to the reward even if he had not apprehend the thief.
IV The servant would not be entitled to the reward.
(a) I and III
(b) I only
(c) I, II and IV
(d) III only

38. Legal Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in, is said to commit theft. Whoever commits theft shall be punished with imprisonment which may extend to three years or with fine or with both.
Factual Situation: Raju sees a cell phone belonging to Ram lying on the table in Ram’s house. Raju hides the cell phone in Ram’s house in such a place where Ram could not find it ever, due to the fear of immediate search and detection. Raju did this with the intention of taking away the cell phone from the hidden place when Ram forgets about and then sells it off.
Question: Is Raju guilty of theft?
(a) No.
(b) No, because he merely played a prank with the friend.
(c) Yes, because Raju did not inform Ram about the place where he had hidden the cell phone.
(d) Yes, because Raju intended to take the immovable property from Rams possession and with this intention he moved the property.

39. Legal Principle: Wilful rash driving is an offence.
Factual Situation: A was driving his car after consuming liquor. The police booked him for willful negligent driving.
Question: Whether the act of the police is lawful?
(a) No, because A was not driving rashly and willfully, but he was driving in drunkness.
(b) No, because this is not negligent act.
(c) Yes, because A was driving rashly.
(d) Yes, because the police has power to arrest while driving rashly.

40. Legal Principle: A master will be liable for the wrongful acts of his servants in the course of employment.
Factual Situation: Mrs Nitu, an old woman had an account in a bank. Mr Robert, her tenant used to collect ? 100 from Mrs Nitu and deposited it every week in the account of Mrs Nitu. Mr Robert got a commission from the bank for depositing that amount every week. After few months of this transaction it was found that Mr Robert had not deposited the amount for five months in the account and that he had run away with that amount Mrs Nitu filed a suit against the bank.
Question: Is the bank liable?
(a) The bank is not liable as Mr Robert was not an employee of the bank.
(b) The bank is not liable for the failure on part of Mrs Nitu to check the balance in her account in time.
(c) The bank is liable as the bank paid commission to Mr Robert for the work he did.
(d) None of the above.

41. Legal Principle: A violation of a legal right, with or without damage, gives rise to a tort.
Factual Situation: A establishes a coaching class and charges Rs.5,000 per year as fees. A’s neighbor B establishes another coaching class thereby creating a competition; this forces A to reduce his fees to Rs. 3,000 per year. Question Can A claim damages from B for the loss caused to him?
(a) Yes, he can as B has violated his legal right.
(b) No, A has reduced the fees on his own.
(c) No, because though there was damage there was no legal injury.
(d) None of the above.

42. Legal Principle: A parent is not liable for a tort committed by his/her child except when the parent affords the child an opportunity to commit the tort.
Factual Situation: A mother takes her 7-year- old son with her to market. On reaching the market she shuts the car ignition, pulls the handbrake and puts the car in gear. She leaves her son in the car. The child starts playing with the car; he releases the brakes and pushes the gear lever to neutral. As a result, the car starts moving down the road and runs down a pedestrian. Question: What is the liability of the mother?
(a) The mother is not liable because she took great care to ensure that the car would remain stationary.
(b) The mother is liable because she was negligent.
(c) The son is liable because his action caused accident.
(d) The pedestrian is liable as he should have been careful while walking on the road.

43. Legal Principle: Whoever uses force without any lawful justification is deemed to commit battery.
Factual Situation: Mary and Maya have an argument over an issue in the classroom. In order to take revenge over this, Mary tries to humiliate Maya in front of the other classmates by pulling the chair the moment she is about to sit on the chair. Though Maya falls, she is not hurt. However, she files a case against Mary for battery.
Question: Is Mary liable?
(a) Mary is not liable because Maya was not hurt.
(b) Mary is not liable because their argument justified her action.
(c) Mary is not liable because it did not require any force to pull the chair out before Maya sat.
(d) Mary is liable because her action is not justified.

44. A sings obscene songs near the gate of a women’s college. What offence has he committed?
(a) Assault
(b) Outraging the modesty of a woman
(c) Criminal intimidation
(d) Obscenity

45. A instigates B to murder C. B refuses to do so. In this case A is
(a) liable for no offence.
(b) liable for abetting B to commit murder.
(c) liable for murder.
(d) liable for attempt to murder.

46. Which of the following is not a private right?
(a) Right to reputation.
(b) Right of bodily safety.
(c) Right of bodily freedom.
(d) Right to walk in a public park.

47. In which of the following cases, P did not owe duty of care to Q.
(a) A bus owned by P, was being driven on the road. While the driver of bus tried to overtake a stationary truck, it skidded on the rough side of the road and overturned, I
injuring some passengers in the bus including Q. Q sued P for damages.
(b) The conductor of an overloaded bus owned by P invited passengers including Q to travel on the roof. As the bus overtook a cart, it swerved on the right side and Q was injured by an overhanging branch of a tree. Q sued P.
(c) Q, after buying the ticket, was trying to board the bus belonging to P. Just when Q had placed his foot on the footboard, the conductor rang the bell signaling the driver to move, with the result that Q fell down and suffered injuries. Q sued P.
(d) Q, who was travelling on his cycle, stopped by the side of the road to have a cup of tea. When he had put his foot on the pedal of the cycle, he was hit by a speeding motorcycle and was injured. Q sued the driver of motorcycle, P for damages.

48. Under Article, 19(1) – All citizens shall have the right, (a) to freedom of speech and expression which comprises of
(a) right to propagate one’s views through movies.
(b) right to be heard.
(c) telephone tapping by the government on the order of the court.
(d) All the above.

49. The State shall secure that the operation of the legal system promotes justice, on a basis of equal opportunity, and shall, in particular, provide free legal aid, by suitable legislation or schemes or in any other way, to ensure that opportunities for securing justice are not denied to any citizen by reason of economic or other disabilities. This principle aims at
(a) operation of the legal system.
(b) equal justice and free legal aid.
(c) schemes for securing justice.
(d) securing justice to citizens.

50. Statement: Promotion of international peace and security.
Situation: ‘The American Court gave a decree for custody of child to the mother. The father, while disobeying the decree took the child to India, refused to hand over the child to the mother’. Mention under which of the
following, the court in India can issue ‘habeas corpus’.
(a) Promote international peace and security.
(b) Maintain just and honorable relations between nations.
(c) Foster respect for international law and treaty obligations in the dealings of organized peoples with one another.
(d) Encourage settlement of international disputes by arbitration.

51. Which of the following qualification is required to be elected as the President of India?
(a) Should be a citizen of India.
(b) Should have completed the age of 35 years.
(c) Should be qualified for election as a member of the House of the People.
(d) All of the above.

52. Statement I: Parliament has exclusive power to make any law with respect to any mat¬ter not enumerated in the concurrent list or state list.
Statement II: Such power shall include the power of making any law imposing a tax not mentioned in either of those lists.
The above concludes that
(a) Parliament has exclusive power to make laws.
(b) Parliament has residuary power to make laws.
(c) Parliament has conclusive power to make laws.
(d) Parliament is the only law-making authority in India.

Instructions (Questions 53 to 55): Given below are a legal principle and a factual situation. Apply the given legal principle to the factual situation and select the most appropriate answer given below.

53. Legal Principle: The rule of Volenti non fit injuria, means voluntarily suffered injury is not fit for action.
Factual Situation: X, a pedestrian finds C losing her control over her Scooty while driving down the flyover, while rescuing C from any harm successfully, X is injured, so
is asking for compensation. C may take the defence of the above principle on the basis of
(a) plaintiff’s free consent.
(b) act of God.
(c) act of state.
(d) inevitable accident.

54. Legal Principle: Qui facit per alium facit per se, which means, ‘he who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself’.
Factual Situation: A gave some amount and cheques to his friend B, who was an employee of the State Bank of India, to deposit the same in the account of his wife C. The employee misappropriated the amount. C files suit against the State Bank of India. Choose the correct option.
(a) The State Bank of India would be vicariously liable to C.
(b) The State Bank of India would be vicariously liable to B.
(c) B would be liable to A.
(d) Neither State Bank of India nor B would be liable.

55. Legal Principle: When, at the desire of the promisor, the promisee or, any other person has done or abstained from doing, or does or abstains from doing, or promises to do or to abstain from doing, something, such act or abstinence or promise is called a consideration for the promise.
Factual Situation: There was a promise to pay to the vakil an additional sum if the suit was successful. Which of the following option answers the situation appropriately?
(a) There is no consideration for the promise.
(b) Suit is maintainable on further promise.
(c) An advocate under vakalatnama could sue his client also.
(d) An advocate under vakalatnama could not sue his client.

56. Select the option which does not constitute trespass to person.
(a) Assault
(b) Battery
(c) Mayhem
(d) Conversion

57. Which of the following is not an essential element of a valid contract under the Indian Contract Act, 1872?
(a) Free consent
(b) Nationality of the parties
(c) Lawful consideration
(d) Lawful object

58. The basic human rights in India are contained in
(a) the Human Rights Code of India.
(b) the National Human Rights Commission of India.
(c) the Human Rights Courts of India.
(d) the Constitution of India.

59. PIL, in Indian legal system, stands for
(a) Public Interest Litigation.
(b) Private Interest Litigation.
(c) Peoples Interest Litigation.
(d) Purpose Interest Litigation.

60. The general law of crime in India is contained in
(a) The Indian Penal Code, 1860.
(b) The Indian Penal Code, 1861.
(c) Law of Crime, 1947.
(d) Law of Crime, 1950.


61. Paint: Artist: : Wood : ?
(a) Furniture
(b) Forest
(c) Fire
(d) Carpenter

62. Acme : Mace : : Alga : ?
(a) Glaa
(b) Gaal
(c) Laga
(d) Gala

63. ‘Medicine’ is related to ‘Patient’ in the same way as ‘Education’ is related to
(a) Teacher
(b) School
(c) Student
(d) Tuition

64. Fill in the missing letter in the following series S, Y Y, B, ?
(a) C
(b) D
(c) E
(d) G

Directions (Questions 65 to 66): Select the one which is different from the other three.

65. (a) January
(b) February
(c) July
(d) December

66. (a) Bible
(b) Panchsheel
(c) Geeta
(d) Quran

67. Garima is taller than Sarita but not taller than Reena. Reena and Tanya are of the same height. Garima is shorter than Anu. Among all the girls, who is the shortest?
(a) Anu
(b) Reena and Tanya
(c) Garima
(d) Sarita

68. In the Olympic Games, the flags of six nations were flown on the masts in the following way:
The flag of America was to the left of Indian tricolor and to the right of the flag of France. The flag of Australia was on the right of the Indian flag but was to the left of the flag of Japan, which was to the left of the flag of China. Find the two flags which are in the center.
(a) India and Australia
(b) America and India
(c) Japan and Australia
(d) America and Australia

69. Find the odd one out.
Mercury : Saturn : Pluto
(a) Mars
(b) Earth
(c) Planets
(d) Jupiter

70. 21:3:: 574 : ?
(a) 23
(b) 82
(c) 97
(d) 113

71. RATIONAL is to RATNIOLA as TRIBAL is to_____

Instructions (Questions 72 to 73): For each of the following questions, there are three words and four alternative answers. In each of the alternative answers there are three words. Find out the alternative whose three words have the same relation as in the three words given in the beginning.

72. Hunt: Pleasure : Panic :
(a) Death : Disease : Germs
(b) Game: Match : Win
(c) Theft : Gain : Loss
(d) Rain : Cloud : Flood

73. Pink : Red : White
(a) Orange : Yellow : Black
(b) Green : Blue : Yellow
(c) Yellow : Red : Green
(d) Brown : Black : Blue

Instructions (Questions 74): Choose a similar number:

74. Given set: 538, 725, 813 ……………
(a) 814
(b) 712
(c) 328
(d) 219

Use the following information to answer questions 75 to 77:
Three men (Tej, Partha, and Jeeva) and three women (Eleena, Anita, and Kavita) are spending a few months at a hillside. They are to stay in a row of nine cottages, each one living in his or her own cottage. There is nobody else staying in the same row of houses.
1. Anita, Tej and Jeeva do not want to stay in any cottage, which is at the end of the row.
2. Anita is unwilling to stay beside any occupied cottage.
3. Kavita is next to Partha and Jeeva.
4. Between Anita and Jeeva’s cottage there is just one vacant house.
5. None of the girls occupy adjacent cottages.
6. The house occupied by Tej is next to an end cottage.

75. Which of the above statements can be said to have been derived from two other statements?
(a) Statement 1
(b) Statement 2
(c) Statement 3
(d) Statement 5

76. How many of them occupy cottages next to a vacant cottage?
(a) 2
(b) 3
(c) 4
(d) 5

77. Which among these statement(s) is true?
I. Anita is between Eleena and Jeeva.
II. At the most four persons can have occupied cottages on either side of them.
III. Tej stays besides Partha.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and III only
(d) II and III only

Use the following information to answer questions 78 to 81: An employee has been assigned the task of allotting offices to six of the staff members. The offices are numbered 1 to 6. The offices are arranged in a row and they are separated from each other by six-foot high dividers. Hence voices, sounds, and cigarette smoke flow easily from one office to another. Miss Reena needs to use the telephone quite often throughout the day. Mr Mohan and Mr Bhavar need adjacent offices as they need to consult each other often while working. Miss Harpreet, is a senior employee and has to be allotted the office number 5, having the biggest window.
Mr Das requires silence in the offices next to his. Mr Tom, Mr Mohan, and Mr Das are all smokers. Miss Harpreet finds tobacco smoke allergic and demands the offices next to hers to be occupied by non-smokers. Unless specifically stated all the employees maintain an atmosphere of silence dur¬ing office hours.

78. The ideal candidate to occupy the office farthest from Mr Bhavar would be
(a) Miss Harpreet.
(b) Mr Mohan.
(c) Mr Tom.
(d) Mr Das.

79. The three employees who are smokers should be seated in the offices
(a) 1, 2, and 4.
(b) 2, 3, and 6.
(c) 1,2, and 5.
(d) 1,2, and 3.

80. The ideal office for Mr Mohan would be
(a) 3.
(b) 6.
(c) 1.
(d) 2.

81. In the event of what occurrence, within a period of one month since the assignment of the offices, would a request for a change in office be put forth by one or more employees?
(a) Mr Das quitting smoking.
(b) Mr Tom taking over the duties formerly taken care of by Miss Reena.
(c) The installation of a noisy teletype machine by Miss Harpreet in her office.
(d) Miss Reena needing silence in the office(s) next to her own.

82. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.
(a) 18
(b) 20
(c) 24
(d) 27

83. If 15 pens and 20 pencils cost as much as 20 pens and 15 pencils, how do you compare the costs of two?
(a) Pens are as costly as the pencils
(b) Pencils are costlier than pens
(c) Pens are costlier than pencils
(d) Nothing can be found from the given data

Instructions (Question 84): Complete the following series.

84. 3, 6, 6, 12, 9, …………. , 12
(a) 15
(b) 18
(c) 11
(d) 13

85. Two objects, events, or concepts are related in some way, you have to establish the same relationship with the other two objects, events, or concepts on the basis of the alternatives given below.
Light: Sun :: Heat: ?
(a) Electricity
(b) Moon
(c) Fire
(d) Star

Instructions (Questions 86 to 87): Read the statements after the passage and choose the correct alternative.
Successfully adjusting to one’s environment leads to happiness. War at a universal level destroys the weaker people, who are the most unable to adjust to their environment. Thus, war at the universal level puts weaklings out of their misery and allows more space for their predators to enjoy life in a better manner. As those actions have to be performed, which maximize the level of happiness of the greatest number, war at a universal level should take place.

86. What response would the author of the above discussion come up with, in the case of the objection that the weaklings far exceed strong people?
I. He would respond with the statement that the person making the objection is a weakling.
II. He would respond by saying that weaklings will be miserable no matter what happens.
III. He would respond with the statement that the strong would be frustrated if the weaklings are destroyed.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) II and III only

87. The author’s discussion would be great if he agreed to which of the following?
I. Technology could change the environment.
II. War at the universal level would be an integral part of the environment.
III. It is possible for the strong to survive without suppressing the weak.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) III only
(d) I, II, and III only

Instructions (Questions 88 to 89): Read the passage and choose the correct alternative:
In a small inn, one or more of the chefs have to perform his or their duties during dinner every day. The chefs are Nicholas, Antonio, and Jeremy. None of them can be assigned to dinner duties two or more days in a row.

88. In case Antonio and Jeremy share the dinner duty thrice over a five-day period, which among the following will be true?
(a) Nicholas is on dinner duty alone on the first of the five days.
(b) Nicholas is on dinner duty alone on the second of the five days.
(c) Nicholas is on dinner duty alone on the third of the five days.
(d) Antonio and Jeremy share dinner duty on the second of the five days.

89. In case Nicholas and Antonio share dinner duty on Monday of certain weeks, and if Antonio and Jeremy share dinner duty on Thursday of the same week, which of the following will be true for that week?
(a) Antonio is on dinner duty alone on Tuesday.
(b) Jeremy is on dinner duty alone on Wednesday.
(c) Nicholas is on duty alone on Tuesday, and Antonio is on breakfast duty alone on Wednesday.
(d) Jeremy is on breakfast duty alone on Tuesday, and Nicholas is on breakfast duty alone on Wednesday.

90. Distribution of leaflets and delivering speeches on government property should be outlawed.
Radicals and fanatics have no right to use public property when peddling their unsavory views. The argument above is based on the postulate that
(a) the general public has a special concern in the free exchange of different political views.
(b) radicals and fanatics prefer the use of public property while propagating their viewpoint.
(c) every person who hands out leaflets and delivers speeches is a radical or fanatic.
(d) legal constraints which are applicable to one group need not be equally applicable to all.


Instructions: Read the following passages carefully and answer the questions given below by selecting the most appropriate alternative.
Literature and the Law by M.M. Gangades (1984) 4 SCC
Lord Denning, by far one of the greatest living law persons, in his book The Discipline of Law (1979), says ‘But when I called to the Bar, I had to become proficient with words. I did it by drawing on my reserves of English Literature … The titles in succession are the Great Authors, Macaulay, Carlyle, and Milton. Reading these and others provided the essentials: a wide vocabulary of words, and an understanding of the meaning attached to them by the masters of the language’. The words of this great judge should not be lost to the members of the legal profession today. For striving toward excellence will bring justice closer to the common man.
Moreover, as early as in 1612 Sir Francis Bacon, himself a lawyer and for some time Attorney- General of England, wrote an essay titled ‘Of Judicature’. In a word of advice to the Bench, he says Judges ought to be more learned than witty, more reverend than plausible, and more advised than confident. Above all things integrity is their potion and proper delight’. But this advice will have to be taken with a pinch of salt because Bacon himself was not above board even for Elizabethai times. As for the lawyers Dr Samuel Johnson suggests ‘Say all you can for your client and then hear the Judge’s opinion’. One only hopes more lawyers take this advice.
Unfortunately society’s experience with lawyers has been much below par and literature brings this out wonderfully. For even Lord Brougham, one of the greatest law reforms of the Common Law, describes a lawyer thus: ‘A lawyer is a learned gentlemen who rescues your estate from your enemies and keeps it himself’. And possibly he is not entirely wrong. John Keats in a moment of exasperation once said ‘I think we may class the lawyer in the natural history of monsters’. The great Shakespeare, not to be left behind, has suggested dire consequences in Henry VI, Part II, when one of his characters blurts out ‘The first thing we do, let’s kill all lawyers’.
But not all lawyers have been known for their guile. Some have done yeoman service to their nations.

91. What do you think Lord Denning did to improve his proficiency with words?
(a) Wrote a lot of books on law such as The Discipline of Law.
(b) Read a lot of good books by authors such as Macaulay and Carlyle.
(c) Used vocabulary which he thought was appropriate.
(d) Learn good vocabulary from people.

92. According to Francis Bacon, what is the advice given to judges?
(a) Judges should give good judgment in good language.
(b) Judges should use literary language to express their reasoning.
(c) The judges should deliver judgments which are probable and which can be respected, instead of using amusing and impressive languages.
(d) Judges should use witty language to pass judgments.

93. Great literary figures like Keats and Shakespeare share the following views about lawyers.
(a) Lawyers are clever people who are like ugly creatures, who can win your case, but pocket your money, so they need to be done away with.
(b) Lawyers can rescue your property; they can earn name and fame.
(c) Lawyers need to be respected and held high in opinion for their wonderful work.
(d) Unfortunately lawyers are not given much respect though they deserve.

Excerpt from The Power and the Glory by Graham Greene.
Suddenly, he realized that he could see a face, and then another; he had begun to forget that it would ever be another day, just as one forgets that one will ever die. It comes suddenly on one in a screeching brake or a whistle in the air, the knowledge that time moves and comes to an end. All the voices slowly became faces—there were no surprises. The confessional teaches you to recognize the shape of a voice—the loose lip of the weak chin and the false candor of the too straightforward eyes. He saw the pious woman a few feet away, uneasily dreaming with her prim mouth open, showing strong teeth like tombs: the old man: the boaster in the comer, and his woman asleep untidily across his knees. Now that the day was at last here, he was the only one awake, except for a small Indian boy who sat cross-legged near the door with an expression of interested happiness, as if he had never known such friendly company. Over the courtyard the whitewash became visible upon the opposite wall. He began formally to pay his farewell to the world: he could not put any heart in it. His corruption was less evident to his senses than his death. One bullet, he thought, is almost certain to go directly through the heart—a squad must contain one accurate marksman. Life would go out in a ‘fraction of a second’ (that was the phrase), but all night he had been realizing that time depends on clocks and the passage of light. There were no clocks and the light would not change. Nobody really knew how long a second of pain could be. It might last a whole puigatory—or forever. For some reason he thought of a man he had once shrived who was on the point of death with cancer—his relatives had to bandage their faces, the smell of the rotting interior was so appalling. He was not a saint. Nothing in life was as ugly as death.

94. The mood of the narrator in this passage is
(a) happy and upbeat.
(b) pensive and thoughtful.
(c) insouciant and without a care in the world.
(d) looking forward to the future.

95. The narrator is most likely a
(a) Hindu pandit.
(b) Jewish rabbi.
(c) Catholic priest.
(d) Animist.

96. What is the narrator awaiting?
(a) A piece of chocolate cake in the morning.
(b) The arrival of the love of his life.
(c) A firing squad.
(d) Mundane office chores.

97. What time is it?
(a) Mid morning
(b) Dusk
(c) Dawn
(d) Mid afternoon

98. The passage is a reflection on
(a) the inevitability of life.
(b) the movement of time and the nature of life.
(c) the movement of time.
(d) the movement of time and the nature of death.

This contract is so one-sided, I am astonished to find it written on both sides of the paper.
Lord Evershed M.R.
This article looks at the various existing systems of interpretation of standard form contracts (such as tickets to a cricket match), and after reviewing each system’s plus points and minus points, it attempts to evolve an alternative system.
The Indian cricket team was due to play a cricket match against South African cricket team in Chennai on 22nd November 2005. Cricket lovers bought the tickets by the thousands. They paid varying sums of money for their tickets, and handed over the cash to the gentlemen behind the counter. The gentleman checked the tender and put it in his pocket and waited in anticipation for the day to arrive. Of course, instead of folding the ticket, if he had opened up the ticket and looked at the reverse side, he would have noted about six printed conditions, one of which was, ‘No refund will be given under any circumstances’.
The 22nd day of November turned out to be a very rainy day, and the match was called off without a single ball being bowled. It was then that the cricket fans discovered that as per the conditions in the printed ticket, they would get no refund at all. As on the date of this writing, the cricket authorities had not accepted to any request for refund. The problem remains unresolved.
Some interesting legal issues arise in these circumstances:
(1) Generally speaking, what is the legitimacy/validity of a clause in a printed form of contract?
(2) What are the limits on its enforceability?
A leading authority on the law of contracts states that a problem may arise in proving the terms of the agreement where it is sought to be shown that they are contained in a contract in a printed form, that is, in some ticket, receipt, or other standard form document. Chitty states:
‘The other party may have signed the document, in which case he is bound by its terms. More often, however, it is simply handed to him at the time of making that contract and the question will then arise whether printed conditions which it contains have become terms of the contract. The party receiving the document will probably not take the trouble to read it, and may even be ignorant that it contains any conditions at all. Yet standard form of contracts very frequently embodies clauses which purport to impose obligations on him or to exclude or restrict the liability of the person supplying the document. Thus, it becomes important to determine whether these clauses should be given contractual effect’.
A valid contract requires offer and acceptance, that is to say, an acceptance made, fully conscious of and alive to the terms and conditions of the proposal. Of course, that is not to say that a man who signs an agreement blindfolded will be relieved from his obligations—under that agreement, simply because he later chooses to discard the blindfold. However, what Section 2(b) requires is that the acceptor must have a real opportunity to review the proposal and decide on whether to accept or not.
A standard form of contract, purports to represent the terms of the bargain between the parties thereto. It purports to embody the consensus between the parties. In short, it purports to be ‘an agreement enforceable by law’.
To follow the principles laid down in the Indian Contract Act to the letter, one would require each and every clause in an agreement to be discussed, negotiated, and then finalized, and a consensus arrived at.

99. What can be an apt title for the above passage?
(a) Contract and Cricket
(b) Essentials of Indian Contracts
(c) Valid contracts
(d) Offer and acceptance in contracts

100. A valid contract requires
(a) standard form of contracts.
(b) offer and acceptance.
(c) only an offer.
(d) only acceptance.

101. A standard form of contract embodies
(a) consensus.
(b) terms laid by either of the parties.
(c) written agreement.
(d) an offer.

102. The cricket was called off without any reason.
(a) the statement is correct.
(b) the statement is false.
(c) the statement is half correct.
(d) cannot say.

103. There was no refund because
(a) no games were played.
(b) the people did not read the terms of the contract.
(c) it was not valid as there was no consensus.
(d) there was no valid offer and acceptance.

104. What is the purpose for writing this article?
(a) To tell that no game of cricket was played on 22nd November 2005.
(b) To tell that refund of ticket money was made by many people.
(c) To relate the discontent of fans.
(d) To suggest a system of an alternate nature to deal with standard form contracts.

105. The legal issues arising are
(a) whether printed form of contract is valid and enforceable.
(b) whether a ticket can be an agreement of contract.
(c) whether the clauses are rightly drawn.
(d) whether the purchaser needs to sign on the ticket to make it binding on the seller.

106. The Contracts Act demands that
(a) The contract agreement be written by both parties.
(b) The contract agreement be read by both parties.
(c) The contract agreement clauses be discussed, negotiated, and finalized before drawing it.
(d) The contract agreement must be agreed by both parties.

Though the term ‘liberty’ comes from the Latin word ‘liber’ meaning ‘free’, it has not meant the same thing for all thinkers in the realm of western Political Philosophy. ‘The word ‘free’ is one which is often used, especially by politicians, but it is not always clear what is meant. Thus, we may find a wide margin of difference between the views of eminent political scientists ranging from that of Mill who treats liberty as something absolutely immune from restraints at least in the ‘self-regarding sphere’ of human activity to that of Laski who takes it as ‘the eager maintenance of that atmosphere in which men have the opportunity to be their best selves’. It is owing to this diversity that the negative and positive dimensions of liberty have been differently treated, particularly by the thinkers of the English liberal school. At the same time, on account of the burden of serious limitations like happiness and goodness, nature and reality, the meaning of this term has become ‘so porous that there is little interpretation that it seems able to resist’.
It follows that, like other important themes of normative political theory, the idea of liberty also cannot be defined in quite precise terms. What really besets is how to reconcile the idea of liberty with the provision of restraints. In others words, if liberty is to be differentiated from license or man’s right to do what he wills, the issue of restraints is bound to figure in. At the same time, what engages our attention is that if restraints can preserve liberty, these can destroy it also. Hence, the question arises: what should be done to reconcile the two in a harmonious manner and thereby offer a plausible definition of the term ‘liberty’? Two important points, however, have come to our knowledge so far: (i) the real meaning of liberty changes from age to age and (ii) liberty lives within restraints and that a proper definition of the term should be made in a way it incorporates both in view of the fact that liberty of each individual is necessarily relative to that of others.
Liberty means the absence of constraints and not the absence of restraints and limitations. It does embrace the area of man’s choice and at the same time, calls for the proper justification of the limits or restrictions on such an area. The case of ‘un freedom’ smacks of a situation in which the conditions of choice have been so manipulated by external factors that the choice becomes limited solely to those to be determined by the coercer. The important problem about freedom as the absence of restraints is that it accommodates a potentiality for the satisfaction of man’s desires or options as permitted by the reasonable law of the state. As Berlin says: ‘Liberty is increased when sovereignty is out into right hands’.
Read the above passage carefully and answer the following

107. Which of the following depicts the true meaning of liberty?
(a) Liberty is absence of restraints.
(b) Liberty is absence of constraints.
(c) Liberty is presence of both restraints and constraints.
(d) Liberty is absence of both constraints and restraints.

108. What does Laski have to say about liberty?
(a) The state has to maintain such an atmosphere so that there is no interference in the self regarding sphere of an individual.
(b) The state is solely responsible for the development of individuals.
(c) The state should provide such a system of rights which would create a congenial and enabling atmosphere for development.
(d) The state should simply enumerate the rights and it is the responsibility of the individual to avail of the opportunities for development.

109. What is the central theme of the passage?
(a) The passage tries to trace the origin of the concept and analyzes the whole range of it which has both the negative as well as positive dimensions.
(b) The passage analyses the notion of liberty and breaks the notion that liberty does not simply mean ‘freedom from chains’. It is a value which embraces the entire gamut of aspects ranging from feeling free to being free to make choices and being actually able to reap the fruits of it.
(c) The passage analyzes the notion of liberty and upholds the notion that liberty simply means ‘freedom from chains’. It is a value which embraces the entire gamut of aspects ranging from ‘feeling free’ to ‘being free’.
(d) The passage analyzes the notion of liberty and breaks the notion that liberty simply means ‘freedom from chains’. It denotes freedom of choice.

110. The term ‘liberty’ originates from a
(a) Latin word.
(b) Greek word.
(c) English word.
(d) French word.

Neo-Nazis and other extremists have been held responsible for a wave of ethnic cleansing in the Bratiloyan Republic. The United Nations estimates that over 20,000 people have been murdered there in the last six months. Dissidents who have escaped from the country have asked the British government to grant them asylum.
The government is to deport 500 illegal aliens whose visas have expired. Angry members of the opposition have accused the government of institutional racism, as most of the deportees are of African origin. Meanwhile, the police have been accused of harassment, after Asian families in Bradford complained that they have been pestered and worried by officers following a series of robberies in the city. Civil rights leaders in the USA have held a demonstration in Washington against death penalty. They have called for a total abolition of capital punishment, claiming that it is contrary to basic civil rights principles outlined in the United Nations Declarations of Human Rights.
Rebels fighting the government of President Stanislow have taken control of the television station in the center of the capital. This follows a longstanding power struggle between Mr Stani slow and the principal opposition party which has seriously weakened his power.
A spokesman for the homeless community in London has presented a petition to the government asking them to provide housing for everyone. He argues that the government’s refusal to raise the minimum wage rate has resulted in thousands living in poverty with not enough money to pay for somewhere to live. Meanwhile, the Metropolitan Police evicted several squatters who took over a house in the city center last week and refused to leave until the government took positive action.
A recent survey reveals that at least 30% of public companies have been accused of discrimination and exploitation in the past year. The main offender is Anglo-Amalgamated Telecommunications, a Bristol-based company. Their employees, many of them Asian women, claim they have received bad treatment or been taken advantage of by the company.
And finally, the Cardiff police are preparing for angry scenes at the Welsh International Computer factory tomorrow when blacklegs, anxious to return to work after six months on strike, will attempt to break through the picket line. A senior officer has expressed his concern that there will be riots and people will get hurt as a result.

111. The term ‘ethnic cleansing’ denotes
(a) the elimination of an unwanted group from a society, as by genocide or forced migration.
(b) a form of religious persecution in which members of a religious population are subjected to imprisonment, expulsion, or death by a majority to achieve religious homogeneity.
(c) confiscation of personal identification, passports, and other such documents in order to make it difficult or impossible for those driven out to return.
(d) the killing or assassination of tyrants for the common good.

112. The term ‘asylum’ refers to
(a) an institution to house insane people.
(b) a shelter from danger or hardship.
(c) an inviolable place of refuge giving shelter to criminals and debtors.
(d) the refuge granted by a country to citizens and residents of other countries.

113. The word ‘squatter’ refers to
(a) impostors.
(b) charlatan.
(c) unlawful tenant,
(d) paying guest.

114. Blacklegs are
(a) persons who cheat in a game.
(b) persons suffering fatal cattle disease caused by soil-borne bacteria.
(c) persons who act against the interests of a trade union.
(d) dark-skinned people.

115. Dissidents refer to
(a) conformists.
(b) unorthodox people,
(c) picketers.
(d) militants.

It was very hot in the small court-room and everybody was feeling sleepy. After a tiring morning, the clerks were anxious to get off to lunch and even the judge must have felt relieved when the last case came up before the court. A short middle- aged man with grey hair, and small blue eyes was now standing before him. The man had a foolish expression on his face and he kept looking around as if he was trying hard to understand what was going on. The man was accused of breaking into a house and stealing a watch. The witness who was called did not give a very clear account of what had happened. He claimed to have seen a man outside the house one night, but on being questioned further, he confessed that he was not sure whether this was the man. The judge considered the matter for short time and then declared that as there was no real proof, the man could not be found guilty of any crime. He said that the case was dismissed and then rose to go. Meanwhile, the accused looked very puzzled. It was clear that he had not understood a thing. Noticing this, the judge paused for a moment and then the man said suddenly, ‘Excuse me, sir, but do I have to give the watch back or not?’

116. What was the man accused of?
(a) Trespass
(b) Lurking into the house and robbery.
(c) Trespass and robbery
(d) Theft

117. Statement I: The man was facing the charge ‘guilty’.
Statement II: The man was facing the charge ‘innocent’.
(a) Only Statement I is correct.
(b) Only Statement II is correct.
(c) Both statements are correct.
(d) Both statements are incorrect.

Directions (Questions 118 to 119): Select the most appropriate synonym for the phrases mentioned.

118. To admit that one is wrong
(a) Declaration
(b) Professed
(c) Affirm
(d) Testimony

119. The person charged of a criminal offence
(a) Indicted
(b) Commended
(c) Exonerated
(d) Haul-up

120. Select the most appropriate antonym for ‘dismissal’.
(a) Acquittal
(b) Connection
(c) Guilt
(d) Admission


121. Recently, Mr Hosni Mubarak’s government was toppled by People’s Movement in Egypt. It is popularly known as ________ .
(a) Blue Revolution
(b) Pink Revolution
(c) Desert Storm Revolution
(d) Jasmine Revolution

122. Which one of the following laws is applicable in the State of Jammu and Kashmir?
(a) Indian Penal Code
(b) Ranbir Penal Code
(d) Kashmir Penal Code

123. Which of the following States has become the first state in India to offer government job to an HIV positive candidate?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Chattisgarh
(d) Kerala

124. In which State of India are the maximum number of airports situated?
(a) Maharashtra
(b) Madhya Pradesh
(c) Himachal Pradesh
(d) Gujarat

125. Which country of the following is known as Gaul?
(a) Britain
(b) Ireland
(c) Iceland
(d) France

126. The author of the book My Country My Life is
(a) Sonia Gandhi.
(b) L.K. Advani.
(c) Jaswant Singh.
(d) Pervez Musharraf.

127. In which place will India’s first ‘Indira Gandhi National Tribal University’ be set up?
(a) Amarkantak (Madhya Pradesh)
(b) Nagpur
(c) Dhule
(d) Noida

128. For respiration, deep sea divers use a mixture of
(a) oxygen and carbon dioxide.
(b) hydrogen and oxygen.
(c) oxygen and nitrogen.
(d) oxygen and helium.

129. Who among the following Pakistani nationals was awarded the ‘Bharat Ratna’ by the Indian Government?
(a) Liaqat Ali Khan
(b) M.A Jinnah
(c) Khan Abdul Ghaffar Khan
(d) Muhammad Iqbal

130. Recently the Security Council imposed sanctions on
(a) liberia.
(b) tunisia.
(c) libya.
(d) egypt.

131. Which of the following natural resources is often called the ‘black gold’?
(a) Coal
(b) Petroleum
(c) Diamond
(d) Mica

132. A writ issued by the Supreme Court compelling a quasi-judicial/public authority to perform its mandatory duty is
(a) quo warranto
(b) mandamus.
(c) certiorari.
(d) prohibition.

133. The science of ornithology deals with
(a) birds.
(b) fossils.
(c) insects.
(d) reptiles.

134. Which of the following is not a Constitutional body?
(a) Union Public Service Commission
(b) Finance Commission
(c) Planning Commission
(d) Election Commission

135. India’s youngest Grand Master (Chess) is
(a) Saurav Ghosal.
(b) S.P. Sethuraman.
(c) Parirnarjan Negi.
(d) K. Hampi.

136. The host of the 2018 World Cup Football match will be
(a) Japan.
(b) India.
(c) Brazil.
(d) Russia.

137. Which film got the Golden Peacock Award in the 41st International Film Festival of India? (a) Moner Manush
(b) The Boy
(c) Shwas
(d) Paa

138. Which one of the following plan duration is related to XI five-year Plan in India?
(a) 2005-10
(b) 2006-11
(c) 2007-12
(d) 2008-13

139. ‘Smart Money’is a term used for
(a) Internet banking.
(b) Credit Card.
(c) Saving Account in the Bank.
(d) Current Account in the Bank.

140. Which one of the following organizations recently celebrated the Silver Jubilee Year of its establishment?
(c) G-20
(d) G-8

141. Who among the following did not receive the Nobel Prize, 2010 for Economics?
(a) Christopher Pissarides
(b) Peter Diamond
(c) Dale Mortensen
(d) Akira Suzuki

142. Enemy Property Law which has been recently amended by the Union Government relates to
(a) properties of those who migrated to Pakistan after Partition.
(b) properties captured by India during war with Pakistan and China.
(c) properties owned by those Indians indulging in terrorist and disruptive activities.
(d) properties captured by India during war with Pakistan and Bangladesh.

143. India has recently signed Social Security Agreement with
(a) Japan.
(b) South Korea.
(c) Germany.
(d) Italy.

144. As per the draft of Lok Pal Bill recently finalized by the Union Government, the Lok Pal would be a
(a) four-member body.
(b) three-member body.
(c) five-member body.
(d) six-member body.

145. Which of the following provisions is not incorporated in the Judicial Accountability Bill recently approved by the Cabinet?
(a) The Bill will mandate judges to declare assets and liabilities.
(b) Oversight Committee to be headed by a retired Chief Justice of India.
(c) Public can lodge complaints against judges with a national Oversight Committee.
(d) The Bill also requires the judges to have close association with any member of the bar.

146. Who of the following is the fourth woman Judge appointed in the Supreme Court of India in April 2010?
(a) Justice Fatima Beevi
(b) Justice Sujata Manohar
(c) Justice Gyan Sudha Misra
(d) Justice Ruma Pal

147. The speed of light will be minimum while passing through
(a) glass.
(b) vacuum.
(c) water.
(d) air.

148. On which of the following achievements does the UNDP Human Development Report base its rating of Human Development Index (HDI) in respect of different countries?
I. Life expectancy
II. Educational attainment
III. Adjusted real income
Select the correct answer using the codes given below:
(a) I and II
(b) II and III
(c) I and III
(d) I, II, and III

149. The Abhors are
(a) an Adivasi tribe in Bastar.
(b) a clan of dacoits.
(c) a tribe of Mongoloid blood.
(d) extinct now.

150. The Preamble of the Indian Constitution was largely influenced by the Constitution of
(a) the USA.
(b) the Irish Republic,
(c) Canada.
(d) Australia.