1. The major chunk of Indian law is
(a) written but vague.
(b) customary and based on usage.
(c) codified but static.
(d) codified but open to contemporary challenges.
2. The passing of Right to Information Act, 2005 is culmination of a movement initiated by
(a) Mazdoor Kisan Shakti Sangathan.
(b) Labour Liberation Party.
(c) Banaliua Mukti Morcha.
(d) Bhartiya Kisan Sabha.
3. The Indian Constitution presently has
(a) 14 Schedules.
(b) 13 Schedules.
(c) 12 Schedules.
(d) 11 Schedules.
4. The term ‘ex post facto laws’ stand for
(a) laws with prospective effect only.
(b) laws with retrospective effects only.
(c) laws both with retrospective and prospective effects.
(d) contract laws only.
5. The President of India may resign his office
(a) by writing an official letter to Prime Minister.
(b) by writing under his hand addressed to the Speaker of Lok Sabha.
(c) by writing under his hand addressed to the Vice President.
(d) by writing an official letter to Chief Justice of India.
6. Recently Gujarat High Court was asked to issue a Writ of Mandamus to the Centre as well as the state government to make it mandatory for manufacturers of goods to print the product details like price, ingredients and the date of manufacture in Hindi. However the Hon’ble court refused to oblige on the plea that
(a) Hindi is not our national language.
(b) Hindi is not our official language.
(c) Hindi is not a state language.
(d) this direction would not be acceptable to non Hindi states.
7. The United Nations Conference on Sustainable Development, 2012 shall be held from
(a) 10-12 June, 2012.
(b) 20-22 July, 2012.
(c) 20-22 June, 2012.
(d) 10-12 July, 2012.
8. The term ‘classical’ is derived from word ‘classicus’, which belongs to
9. Name the winner of General non-fiction category of Pulitzer Prize for the year 2012.
(a) Stephen Greenblatt
(b) Siddhartha Mukherjee
(c) Diane Ackerman
(d) Mara Hvistendahl
10. Name the Indian poet called as ‘Shakespeare of India’.
(a) Harivansh Rai Bachchan
11. The first women’s university in India was established by
(a) Maharishi Charak.
(b) Maharishi Govindacharya.
(c) Mahatama Nirlepdas.
(d) Maharishi Dhondo Keshav Karve.
12. The song Jana-gana-mana was first published under the title
(a) Gana jagrati
(b) Bharat Vidhata
(c) Jana Bodhini
(d) Lok Shakti
13. Who popularized the famous slogan ‘SatyamevaJayate’ (Truth alone will triumph)?
(a) Sardar Vallabhbhai Patel
(b) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(c) Madan Mohan Malaviya
(d) Sarojini Naidu
14. The Government of India may sue in the name of
(a) Prime Minister of India.
(b) President of India.
(c) Union of India.
(d) India the Union of States.
15. Who has the right to vote in the election of the members of both the lower and upper houses of the parliament?
(a) Elected members of Lok Sabha.
(b) Members of Rajya Sabha.
(c) Elected members of State Legislative Council.
(d) Elected members of State Legislative Assembly.
16. When a chief minister is disqualified from voting in the election of President of India?
(a) If he himself contests the election.
(b) If he has been asked to prove his majority on the floor of the State Legislative Assembly.
(c) If he is a member of the State Legislative Council.
(d) If he belongs to the same political party to which the presidential candidate belongs.
17. The Supreme Court has the power to grant Special Leave to Appeal against the orders of the lower courts and tribunals under
(a) Article 226 of the Constitution.
(b) Article 336 of the Constitution.
(c) Article 236 of the Constitution.
(d) Article 136 of the Constitution.
18. Which Article of the Constitution gives to the High Court control over the subordinate courts of the concerned state?
(a) Article 226 of the Constitution.
(b) Article 227 of the Constitution.
(c) Article 236 of the Constitution.
(d) Article 235 of the Constitution.
19. A political party could be registered as a national party after inter alia it has secured at least
(a) 8% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of six states.
(b) 9% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of seven states.
(c) 14% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of three states.
(d) 6% of the total votes, polled in a minimum of four states.
20. A product advertisement is designed to appeal mainly
(a) the manufacturers.
(b) the competitors.
(c) the target audience.
(d) the media.
Instructions: In the following 5 questions, two statements have been marked as assertion (A) and reason (R). In the context of the given statements select the correct options.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) is the correct explanation for (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) is not the correct explanation for (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.
21. Assertion: (A) The Chapter III of our constitution is based on American model of constitutional rights.
Reason: (R) The fundamental rights are enforceable.
22. Assertion: (A) To contest the election of Vice President of India the candidate must be qualified for election as member of Rajya Sabha.
Reason: (R) The Vice President of India acts as the ex officio chairman of Rajya Sabha.
23. Assertion: (A’ Articles 35 to 51 laid down the Directive Principles of the State Policy.
Reason: (R) The Directive Principles of the State Policy enshrine the fundamental principles to be followed by the governments while framing laws and policies.
24. Assertion: (A) By rule of law we ordinarily mean supremacy of law.
Reason: (R) This means that parliament is free to enact any type of law.
25. Assertion: (A) X marries another woman while his lawfully wedded wife is still alive.
Reason: (R) This indicated that he has divorced his first wife.
Instructions: Select the appropriate answer for each of the following 5 questions on the basis of the given principle and the facts:
26. Principle: Attempt is not an offence until it is an attempt to commit an offence punishable with imprisonment.
Facts: Z makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box, and finds after so opening the box, that there is no jewel in it.
(a) Z has done an act towards the commission of theft and therefore is guilty.
(b) In the absence of the definition of offence in the stated Principle it cannot be said that Z is guilty.
(c) The stated Principle neither defines the offence nor specifies that the said offence is punishable with imprisonment. So the position is unclear.
(d) Police should arrest Z and produce him before the magistrate as only the court has the authority to decide his guilt or innocence.
27. Principle: When anyone uses his property in such a manner as to cause damage to others, he commits the wrongful act of private nuisance.
Facts: X and Y are the owners of adjoining flats. X leased his flat to R an AIDS patient and activist. Fearing the spread of the disease, Y’s tenant vacated his flat and since then no tenant is ready to move in Y’s flat. Y repeatedly requested X to change his tenant, but to no use. Now Y has filed a suit against X for causing private nuisance.
(a) Y will win in the court as X has knowingly caused him financial loss.
(b) Y will fail in his case as X has a right to put his flat to any use as per his choice.
(c) Y’s claim will fall as X could not be held responsible for wrong beliefs and notions of the people.
(d) Y will win the case as X has not listened to his repeated requests.
28. Principle: Confession made in the court should be free and voluntary.
Facts: Sumeet wanted to give an expensive gift to his girl friend on her birthday. But he did not have the enough money. So he snatched a gold chain from an old lady. Police arrested Sumeet on suspicion and in the lock up the investigating officer told him that if he would admit his guilt he shall be set free. Sumeet confesses his guilt in the court.
(a) Sumeet shall be released as he admitted his guilt.
(b) Court will set him free because of his truthfulness.
(c) Sumeet shall not be punished as the police officer has promised him release.
(d) Sumeet shall not be punished merely on the basis of this suggested confession.
29. Principle: Every agreement in restraint of marriage of any person other than a minor is void.
Facts: Rohit and Prachi were deeply in love and wanted to marry each other. But their parents were strongly opposed to the idea as they belonged to different castes. Ultimately they were compelled to execute an agreement in the presence of a lawyer stating that they shall not marry each other and the same was signed by their parents as witnesses. Thereafter both of them fled away from home and solemnized their marriage.
(a) Their marriage is void as they have broken their agreement.
(b) Their marriage is voidable and could be declared invalid by any one of them.
(c) Their marriage is valid despite the violation of the agreement executed by them.
(d) Their marriage is voidable till it is accepted by their parents.
30. Principle: Anticipatory bail could be granted to any person who apprehends arrest for a non bailable offence.
Facts: Z publishes a defamatory statement against a state minister in a local daily. Police registers a case of defamation, a bailable offence against Z. He files an application in Supreme Court asking for anticipatory bail.
(a) His application shall be rejected by Supreme Court for want of jurisdiction.
(b) His application shall be rejected due to limited circulation of the newspaper.
(c) His application shall be entertained by the court as it involves the denial of personal liberty of Z.
(d) His application shall be returned as non maintainable.
31. The statement by a victim as to the cause of his death is called
(a) Res Judicata.
(d) Dying Declaration.
32. Which of the following is not a fundamental right?
(a) Right to property.
(b) Right to education.
(c) Freedom of speech and expression.
(d) Protection against double jeopardy.
33. The term unliquidated damages stands for
(a) damages caused by a thing which is not a liquid.
(b) the damages to be assessed by court.
(c) the damages caused to a partner of liquidated firm.
(d) the damages caused to a liquidated firm.
34. A written statement under oath and signed by the maker as a true statement is called
(d) legal declaration.
35. Who is considered as the ‘Father of Induced Breeding’ in India?
(a) Satish Dhawan
(b) M.S. Swaminathan
(c) Verghese Kurien
(d) Hiralal Chaudhuri
36. The distribution of finances between centre and states is done on the recommendations of
(a) Finance Ministry.
(b) Public Accounts Committee.
(c) Public Estimates Committee.
(d) Finance Commission.
37. Between which countries ‘hundred years war’ was fought?
(a) Italy and Japan
(b) Japan and Russia
(c) Vietnam and USA
(d) France and England
38. The famous Nero Decree was issued by Adolf Hitler on
(a) 19th March, 1945
(b) 29th March, 1945
(c) 9th March, 1945
(d) 21st March, 1945
39. Tripitakas were the sacred books of the
40. Offence : Punishment:: Contract: ?
(a) Specific Performance/and damages
(c) Forfeiture of Property
(d) Departmental Inquiry
Instructions: Choose the alternative which expresses best, the meaning of the given phrase.
41. Talking through one’s hat
(a) To talk straight
(b) To talk irresponsibly
(c) To brag or exaggerate
(d) To talk sense
42. A person who is indifferent to pleasure or pain
43. To rest upon one’s oars
(a) To stop working
(b) To be deadly tired
(c) To indulge in day dreaming
(d) To avoid legitimate work
45. One who hates mankind
46. Which of the following countries is not a member of SAARC?
(b) Sri Lanka
47. The judge of Supreme Court holds office till the age of
(a) 60 years.
(b) 63 years.
(c) 65 years.
(d) 62 years.
48. The words ‘bull and bear’ are used in
(a) income tax department.
(b) stock market.
(c) custom department.
(d) excise department.
49. Name the member of Rajya Sabha who was recently in news for demanding change of his/her seat number.
(b) Hema Malini
(d) Jaya Bhaduri Bachchan
50. The Right of Education Act came into force on
(a) 1st April, 2010.
(b) 15th April, 2012.
(c) 2nd October, 2011.
(d) 1 st April, 2009.