Punjab Judicial 2010 Question Paper

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Punjab Judicial 2010 Question Paper

1. Contract of sale of goods can be
(a) conditional.
(b) absolute.
(c) temporary.
(d) either (a) or (b).

2. Goods are said to be in ‘deliverable state’ where
(a) they are in good condition.
(b) they are in reasonable condition.
(c) they have been delivered on time.
(d) the buyer is bound to take their delivery under contract.

3. Application for execution of a decree is to be made
(a) to the court which passed the decree.
(b) to the district court.
(c) to the high court.
(d) none of the above.

4. Order 2, Rule 2 of the C.P.C. does not apply to
(a) application for execution.
(b) writ petitions.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) none of the above.

5. On account of mis-joinder or non-joinder of parties, under Orderl, Rule 9 of the C.P.C. the suit
(a) is liable to be dismissed.
(b) cannot be dismissed.
(c) may be dismissed or may not be dismissed as per the discretion of the court.
(d) none of the above.

6. Clerical or arithmetical mistakes in judgments, orders, etc., can be corrected under
(a) Section 152 of C.P.C.
(b) Section 154 of C.P.C.
(c) Section 155 of C.P.C.
(d) Section 153 of C.P.C.

7. An ex parte degree can be set aside on the ground of
(a) summons not duly served.
(b) being prevented by any sufficient cause from appearance.
(c) only (a) is correct.
(d) both (a) and (b).

8. A person is an indigent person within the meaning of Order 33, Rule 1 of C.P.C., if he is not possessed of
(a) sufficient means to pay the fee payable on the plaint.
(b) any means to pay the fee payable on the plaint.
(c) sufficient means for his livelihood.
(d) none of the above.

9. A judgment can be reviewed on the ground of
(a) discovery of new and important evidence, not within the knowledge of the party concerned.
(b) mistake of error of fact or law on the face of the record.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) none of the above.

10. A fresh suit on the same cause of action is not barred when
(a) rejected under Order 7, Rule 11 of C.P.C.
(b) dismissed under Order 9, Rule 2 of C.P.C.
(c) dismissed under Order 9, Rule 3 of the C.P.C.
(d) either (a) or (b) or (c).

11. A decision in a suit may operate as res judicata against person not expressly named as
parties to the suit by virtue of Explanation
(a) III to Section 11 of C.P.C.
(b) V to Section 11 of C.P.C.
(c) VI to Section 11 of C.P.C.
(d) IV to Section 11 of C.P.C.

12. A caveat shall not remain in force after the expiry of
(a) 45 days.
(b) 15 days.
(c) 90 days.
(d) 60 days.

13. If the investigation is not completed within 90 days or 60 days as the case may be, and the accused is in custody, on the expiry of the said period the accused is entitled to be
(a) discharged.
(b) released on bail on making an application for release on bail.
(c) released on bail without making an application for release on bail.
(d) acquitted.

14. Period of limitation for an offence punishable with a term of two years, as per Section 468 of Cr.P.C. is
(a) six months.
(b) one year.
(c) two years.
(d) three years.

15. In a summons case, instituted on a complaint, the accused having been summoned is liable to be acquitted under Section 256 of Cr.P.C.
(a) on account of death of the complainant.
(b) on account of non-appearance of the complainant.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) neither (a) nor (b).

16. In a bailable offence, the bail is granted as a matter of right
(a) by the police officer.
(b) by the Court.
(c) both by the police officer and the court.
(d) neither (a) nor (b).

17. Error or omission in framing of charges
(a) is material in all circumstances shall vitiate the trial.
(b) is material only if it has occasioned a failure of justice to the accused.
(c) is material and the accused is liable to be acquitted.
(d) both (a) or (c).

18. During investigation a search can be conducted without warrant by
(a) any Police Officer.
(b) the Investigating Officer.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) either (a) or (b).

19. Cognizance of offence under Section 498A of I.PC. can be taken by a court
(a) on a police report.
(b) on the complaint of the person aggrieved.
(c) on the complaint of father/mother of the person aggrieved.
(d) all of the above.

20. An act which would otherwise be crime may in some case be excused if the person accused of it shows that all except
(a) it was done only in order to avoid consequences.
(b) nothing was done that was reasonably necessary.
(c) the evil inflicted was not disproportionate to the evil avoided.
(d) none of the above.

21. Addition or alteration of charge has been provided
(a) under Section 214 of Cr.P.C.
(b) under Section 215 of Cr.P.C.
(c) under Section 216 of Cr.P.C.
(d) under Section 218 of Cr.P.C.

22. After completion of investigation, the police is to submit a final report to the magistrate. The magistrate
(a) is bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and accept the same if the police recommended that there is no sufficient ground for proceeding further.
(b) is not bound by the conclusions drawn by the police and may order further investigation.
(c) may issue a process against the accused person(s).
(d) both (b) and (c).

23. In the recent proposed amendment in the Cr.P.C., the police can arrest a person
(a) after obtaining written orders from a magistrate.
(b) without orders of the magistrate.
(c) after obtaining orders from the deputy commissioner.
(d) after giving reasons in writing.

24. This used to be a fundamental right but is now a legal right only:
(a) Cultural and Educational Right.
(b) Rights to Property.
(c) Rights against Exploitation.
(d) Right to Religious Freedom.

25. The first draft of the Constitution was published in
(a) November 1947.
(b) January 1948.
(c) February 1948.
(d) November 1948.

26. Which Article of the Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution
(a) 370.
(b) 368.
(c) 390.
(d) 376.

27. The Prime Minister is responsible to the
(a) Council of Ministers.
(b) President.
(c) Rajya Sabha.
(d) Lok Sabha.

28. The President of India can declare emergency if there is
(a) war or threat of war.
(b) failure of the constitutional machinery.
(c) financial instability.
(d) all of the above.

29. Economic justice as one of the objectives of the Indian Constitution has been provided in the
(a) Preamble and Fundamental Rights.
(b) Preamble and Directive Principles.
(c) Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.
(d) Preamble, Fundamental Rights and Directive Principles.

30. Dyarchy as a form of government at the provincial level was introduced by the
(a) Government of India Act, 1919.
(b) Minto-Morley Reforms.
(c) Montasgue-Chelmsford Reforms.
(d) Government of India Act, 1935.

31. Dissolution of the Flouse means that the life of the House has ended and a fresh House has to be constituted:
(a) Lok Sabha.
(b) Rajya Sabha.
(c) Both (a) and (b).
(d) None of the above.

32. A bill presented in the Parliament becomes an Act after
(a) it is passed by both Houses.
(b) the President has given his assent.
(c) the Prime Minister has signed it.
(d) it is so declared by the Supreme Court.

33. Name the Prime Minister of the United Kingdom, who recently visited India
(a) Gordon Brown.
(b) Tony Blair.
(c) David Cameroon.
(d) Edward Heath.

34. Which of the following teams clashed in the Semi-finals in the Soccer World Cup, 2010
(a) Germany and Holland.
(b) Spain and Holland.
(c) Spain and Germany.
(d) Uruguay and Holland.

35. Where in world was the world’s tallest sky- scraper, towering 818 meters, opened in January 2010?
(a) Oman.
(b) Bahrain.
(c) Dubai.
(d) Seoul.

36. Recently India’s celebrating artist M. F. Hussain has got the nationality of
(a) Saudi Arabia.
(b) Qatar.
(c) Yemen.
(d) Oman.

37. What is the expanded form of AWACS?
(a) Airport Works and Customer Service.
(b) Airbone Warning and Central System.
(c) Agricultural Wealth and Consumer Statistics.
(d) Ammunition Warehousing and Costing Symantics.

38. Indira Gandhi Prize for peace Disarmament and Development for 2007 has been conferred to on 25 July 2009 to
(a) Bill Gates
(b) Jacob Zuma
(c) Asma Jahangir
(d) None of the above

39. Who has recently been re-elected as the new President of Germany?
(a) Angela Markel.
(b) Horst Koehler.
(c) Helmut Kohi.
(d) None of the above.

40. Which athlete holding an Olympic record, belonging to a Commonwealth country, refused participation in CWGames 2010 (Delhi) and apologized for same?
(a) Sebastian Goe
(b) P.T.Usha
(c) Bolt
(d) Jeev Milkha Singh

41. Which of the following countries does not have the power of veto in the Security council?
(a) The United Kingdom
(b) Canada
(c) The United States
(d) France

42. The H.Q. of the International Court of Justice is at
(a) The Hague.
(b) Geneva.
(c) Rome.
(d) Vienna.

43. GIR National Park is in
(a) Rajasthan.
(b) Maharashtra.
(c) Gujarat.
(d) Assam.

44. Shakuntla was written by
(a) Maithili Sharan Gupt.
(b) Swami Dayanand.
(c) Kalidas.
(d) Tulsidas.

45. What is ‘Watergate’?
(a) A gate of dam across Mississippi.
(b) A dam across Hudson river.
(c) Scandal in which President Nixon got entangled.
(d) A five star hotel in Los Angeles.

46. Which is the national flower of India?
(a) Sunflower
(b) Rose
(c) Lotus
(d) Marigold

47. The Indian Military Academy is located at
(a) Dehradun.
(b) Mt. Abu.
(c) Hyderabad.
(d) Udhampur.

48. Which one is not a port on the east cost?
(a) Kolkata.
(b) Paradip.
(c) Kochi.
(d) Visakhapatnam.

49. The term ‘epicentre’ is concerned with
(a) nuclear explosion.
(b) earthquake.
(c) cyclonic storms.
(d) none of the above.

50. A dual economy means
1. the existence of black money and white money.
2. the existence of agriculture and industry.
3. the existence of commercial agriculture with substance farming.
4. modem industry and commercial agriculture co-existing with subsistence farming and traditional handicraft.
(a) one only
(b) two only
(c) three only
(d) four only

51. Which of the following Union Territories has a high court of its own?
(a) Andaman and Nicobar Islands.
(b) Dadra and Nagar Haveli.
(c) Pondicherry.
(d) Chandigarh.

52. Which of the following writs literally means ‘you may have the body’?
(a) Habeas Corpus
(b) Mandamus
(c) Quo Warranto
(d) Certiorari

53. What can be the maximum gap between the two sessions of the Parliament?
(a) Three months.
(b) Four months.
(c) Six months.
(d) Nine months.

54. A confession to be inadmissible under Section 25 of the Evidence Act
(a) must relate to the same crime for which he is charged.
(b) must relate to another crime.
(c) may relate to the same crime or any other crime.
(d) none of the above.

55. In which of the following, the right of private defence does not extend to cause death of the offender?
(a) Rape.
(b) Gratifying unnatural lust.
(c) Causing miscarriage.
(d) Kidnapping.

56. A retracted confession
(a) can solely be made on the basis of a conviction.
(b) cannot be made solely on the basis of a conviction under any circumstances.
(c) cannot be made solely on the basis of a conviction unless the same is corroborated.
(d) is not admissible in evidence.

57. For the application of Section 34 I.P.C. there must be at least
(a) two persons.
(b) more than two persons.
(c) five persons.
(d) more than five persons.

58. For a defence of intoxication, to escape criminal liability, the intoxication
(a) can be self-administered.
(b) administered against his will or knowledge.
(c) should not be self-administered.
(d) none of the above.

59. Under the Muslim Women (Protection Rights on Divorce) Act, the option to be governed by the provisions of Section 125 Cr.P.C., may be given by the parties
(a) jointly.
(b) separately.
(c) either jointly or separately.
(d) none of the above.

60. A muslim woman is entitled to obtain a decree for the dissolution of her marriage on the ground that
(a) the husband was impotent at the time of the marriage.
(b) the husband has become impotent after marriage.
(c) the husband was impotent at the time of the marriage and continues to be so.
(d) none of the above.

61. Where was the Anglo Sikh Treaty signed between Maharaja Ranjit Singh and the Britishers?
(a) Lahore
(b) Amritsar
(c) Ropar
(d) Kapurthala

62. City of Amritsar was founded by
(a) Guru Ram Das Ji.
(b) Guru Tegh Bahadur Ji.
(c) Guru Har Rai Ji.
(d) Guru Arjun Dev Ji.

63. Pingalwara Trust was founded by
(a) Sant Fateh Singh.
(b) Sant lasher Singh.
(c) Bhagar Puran Singh.
(d) Master Tara Singh.

64. A valid lease can be determined by
(a) efflux of time.
(b) forfeiture.
(c) on expiration of notice period for determination of such lease.
(d) all of the above.

65. A lease of an immovable property can be
(a) for a limited period.
(b) in perpetuality.
(c) can be express or implied.
(d) all of the above.

66. In an agreement for transfer of property
(a) the transfer is recognized when the agreement is partly performed.
(b) is recognized only when instrument of transfer is executed.
(c) such transfer is not recognized in law at all.
(d) none of the above.

67. In a simple mortgage, possession of the mortgaged property
(a) is given to the mortgagee.
(b) is given to a third party as security.
(c) remains with the mortgagor.
(d) none of the above.

68. On which of the following grounds, a tenant cannot be evicted?
(a) Nuisance.
(b) Personal need of the landlord.
(c) Building is unfit and unsafe for human habitation.
(d) Inadequate rent.

69. Statutory tenant is a person who
(a) pays rent as per the rent agreement.
(b) abides by all the provisions of the Rent Act.
(c) is the legal representative who occupies the premises after death of the original tenant.
(d) none of the above.

70. Under Section 13B of the East Punjab Urban Rent Restriction Act, 1949, the tenant is required to seek leave to defend within 15 days of service of notice upon him. Fie applies for leave to defend after 20 days.
(a) Time can be extended by the rent controller automatically.
(b) Time can be extended by showing sufficient cause.
(c) Time cannot be extended at all.
(d) None of the above.

71. An adoption of a boy, whose mother, the adopting father could not have legally married, is not recognized by law, but is still considered valid
(a) because of judicial pronouncements.
(b) because of promulgation of Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act.
(c) because of custom.
(d) none of the above.

72. Give the correct response:
(a) All murders are culpable homicide but not vice versa.
(b) All culpable homicides are murders.
(c) A murder can never be a culpable homicide.
(d) None of the above.

73. Oral evidence under Section 60 of the Evidence Act may be
(a) direct only.
(b) hearsay.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) either (a) or (b).

74. Section 511 of I.P.C. is not related to the offence for which the punishment is
(a) death sentence.
(b) life-imprisonment.
(c) imprisonment.
(d) both (b) and (c).

75. The period of limitation for preferring an appeal to the high court from an order of sentence, other than the sentence of death, is
(a) 30 days.
(b) 90 days.
(c) 60 days.
(d) 45 days.

76. Limitation for filing an appeal commences from
(a) the date of judgment.
(b) the date of signing of the decree.
(c) the date of application for copy of the judgment.
(d) none of the above.

77. Acknowledgement made by a person other than a person under liability is good if
(a) the person making it is known to the person under liability.
(b) the person making it is an agent of the person under liability.
(c) the person making it is a servant of the person under liability.
(d) none of the above.

78. A document relating to land, registered at a place where no part of the property is situated, the registration is
(a) void ab initio.
(b) void only if parties in collusion with each other, committed fraud on the registering authority.
(c) voidable and may be set aside within the period of limitations.
(d) either (b) or (c).

79. A deed of adoption requires
(a) compulsory registration.
(b) optional registration.
(c) no registration.
(d) none of the above.

80. The inadequacy of consideration will be taken into account by a court of law
(a) when the promisor expresses his desire to get maximum return for his promise.
(b) when the promisor performs his promise.
(c) when fraud, coercion or undue influence in the formation of the contract is pleaded.
(d) always at the discretion.

81. An offer is
(a) only a declaration of intention.
(b) only a proposal.
(c) an invitation.
(d) a willingness to do or abstain from doing something with a view to obtaining assent of the addressee.

82. Which one of the following contracts is void?
(a) ‘A’ and ‘B’ contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage.
(b) ‘A’ and ‘B’ contract to marry each other at an early date. ‘A’ insists on marriage immediately after expiry of one month from the date of the contract.
(c) ‘A’ and ‘B’ contract to marry each other. But, ‘A’ can fix the date of marriage, only after his return from England where he had gone for business.
(d) ‘A’ and ‘B’ contract to marry each other. Before the time fixed for the marriage, ‘A’ falls ill and his physician advises ‘A’ to take rest in bed for one month.

83. Which one of the following is a contingent contract?
(a) ‘A’ insures his factory against damage or destruction by fire.
(b) ‘A’ sells his property subject to the condition that the property will be reconveyed to him on repayment of a price with interest.
(c) A guard is appointed at a swimming pool for the sole purpose of rescuing drowning persons.
(d) A borrower solemnly promises to pay off the lender when the borrower will be in funds.

84. The correct sequence in the formation of a contract is
(a) offer, acceptance, agreement, consideration.
(b) agreement, consideration, offer, acceptance.
(c) offer, consideration, acceptance, agreements.
(d) offer, acceptance, consideration, agreements.

85. An agreement which is enforceable by law at the option of one more of the parties thereto, but not at the option of the other, is a
(a) valid contract.
(b) unenforceable contract.
(c) voidable contract.
(d) void agreement.

86. The defendant promises to marry the plaintiff on the death of his father. During the lifetime of the father, the defendant marries another woman. The plaintiff in this case
(a) has the option of bringing an action for damages immediately or she may wait till the death of the father.
(b) can bring an action against the defendant because the contract is discharged by frustration.
(c) cannot bring any action against the defendant because the contract is discharged by frustration.
(d) can bring an action against the defendant for breach of contract only if the defendant tells her that he will not marry her.

87. ‘A’ with intention to kill her husband, purchased some poisonous powder from a chemist who by mistake, dispensed plain sugar instead. She put the powder in a cup of tea and served it to her husband who drank it but did not die. Which one of the following statement is correct as far the charge to attempt a murder is concerned?
(a) She is liable because she had committed the penultimate act.
(b) She is liable because her intention to kill her husband is clear from the totality of act.
(c) She is not liable because administration of sugar is not a step towards the commission of murder.
(d) She is not liable because her husband did not die.

88. Which one of the following statements is correct?
(a) In conspiracy, there is no distinction between a principal and an accessory.
(b) In conspiracy, a principal and accessory are distinct.
(c) There has to be a distinction between a principal and accessory in all offences.
(d) None of the above is correct.

89. Inducing a person with dishonest intention to part with his property by putting him, in fear of physical injury amounts to an offence of
(a) criminal intimidation.
(b) extortion.
(c) criminal misappropriation.
(d) theft.

90. Which one of the following correctly defines the term ‘unlawful assembly’?
(a) An assembly of five or more persons.
(b) An assembly of five or more persons armed with lethal weapons.
(c) An assembly of five or more persons with common object of doing a crime.
(d) An assembly of two or more persons having some common object of doing a criminal act.

91. When a criminal act is done by several persons, in furtherance of a common intention of all, each of such persons is liable
(a) for the part of the act done by him.
(b) as if whole act is done by him alone.
(c) for abetting such an offence.
(d) for conspiracy of such an offence.

92. ‘A’, revenue officer, is entrusted with public money and is directed by law to pay into treasury all the public money which he holds. He instead of paying the same into the treasury dishonestly misappropriate the same by buying a sofa set for his personal use, what offence has ‘A’ committed?
(a) Criminal breach of trust.
(b) Dishonest misappropriation of property.
(c) Cheating the government.
(d) None of the above.

93. Which one of the following is sufficient to prove the offence of sedition?
(a) Comments expressing disapproval of the policies of the government with a view to obtain a change in policies by lawful means.
(b) Proof of disloyalty or ill feelings.
(c) Comments expressing disapproval of administrative action even though they do not incite hatred or disloyalty.
(d) Provoking hatred towards the government.

94. ‘X’ on receiving grave and sudden provocation from ‘Z’ intentionally causes the death of ‘Y’, who is Z’s brother: ‘X’ has committed the offence of
(a) murder.
(b) grievous hurt.
(c) culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(d) attempt of murder.

95. In a partnership at will
(a) a partner of a firm can retire from the firm at any time by giving a notice of his intention to retire to his co-partners.
(b) a partner of a firm can dissolve the firm at any time by giving a notice of his intention to dissolve the firm to his co-partners.
(c) either (a) or (b).
(d) neither (a) nor (b).

96. An agreement in restraint of trade in a partnership under Section 11 of the Indian Partnership Act is
(a) valid.
(b) voidable.
(c) void.
(d) illegal.

97. A partnership firm is required to be registered under
(a) the Indian Registration Act, 1908.
(b) the Companies Act, 1956.
(c) the Indian Partnership Act, 1932.
(d) Indian Contract Act, 1872.

98. A partner has no implied authority.
(a) to enter into a partnership with other persons in another business.
(b) to borrow money in case of a commercial firm.
(c) either (a) or (b).
(d) neither (a) nor (b).

99. A partner can retire by notice of his intention to retire, where
(a) to enter into a partnership with other persons in another business.
(b) to borrow money in case of a commercial firm.
(c) either (a) or (b).
(d) neither (a) nor (b).

100. A firm can be held liable for the wrongful act of a partner where the act has been ratified by the partners, provided
(a) the act could be legally done with the authority of all the partners.
(b) the partners ratify the act with full knowledge of the facts.
(c) where a contract has been made between the partners for its determination.
(d) none of the above.

101. To an answer to a court’s question, the adverse party
(a) has a right to cross-examination as a matter of right.
(b) has a right to cross-examine only with the permission of the court.
(c) has no right to cross-examine the witness.
(d) either (a) or (c).

102. The doctrine of estoppel is a
(a) substantive law.
(b) rule of equity.
(c) rule of evidence.
(d) law of pleadings.

103. Standard of proof in
(a) civil and criminal cases is the same.
(b) criminal cases is much more higher than in civil cases.
(c) criminal case is lower than in civil cases.
(d) none of the above.

104. Sarkaria Commission was set up to
(a) inquire into Babri Masjid Demolition case.
(b) review the Constitution.
(c) review the Centre-State relation.
(d) to investigate 1984 anti-Sikh riots.

105. What is the minimum age required for voting in India?
(a) 16 years.
(b) 18 years.
(c) 21 years.
(d) 25 years.

106. The judges of the Supreme Court take an oath conducted by the
(a) Chief Justice of India.
(b) President or Vice-President.
(c) President or some persons appointed by him.
(d) None.

107. Which of the following soccer players is associated with the term ‘Hand of God’?
(a) Pele.
(b) Maradona.
(c) Rooney.
(d) Ronaldo.

108. The Supreme Court in a significant judgment held that the Guru Granth Sahib is
(a) a juristic person
(b) the holiest of the holy books.
(c) to be equated with the model.
(d) not a juristic person.

109. Who is the Union Law Minister of India?
(a) H. R. Bharadwaj.
(b) Kapil Sibal.
(c) Veerappa Moily.
(d) P. Chidambaram.

110. Under Hindu Law the ground for divorce is
(a) insanity.
(b) cruelty.
(c) adultery.
(d) all of these.

111. The Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 extends to
(a) the whole of India except the State of Jammu and Kashmir.
(b) buddhist and Jains.
(c) those who are not Muslims, Christians, Parsis and Jews by religion.
(d) all the above.

112. Muslim marriage is a
(a) contract.
(b) sacrament.
(c) living together at will.
(d) both a contract and a sacrament.

113. Secondary evidence of a document means
(a) copies of that document.
(b) oral account of the contents of the documents.
(c) both (a) and (b).
(d) neither (a) nor (b).

114. Presumption under Section 112 of the Evidence Act is raised
(a) when a child is born during the con- tinuance of valid marriage.
(b) when a child is born within 280 days of dissolution of marriage, the mother remaining unmarried.
(c) in both (a) and (b).
(d) neither (a) nor (b).

115. What is the number of judges (including the Chief Justice) in the Supreme Court of India as provided in the Constitution of India?
(a) 20.
(b) 24.
(c) 31.
(d) 28.

116. Oral evidence is not admissible to clarify the language used in a document when the language is
(a) ambiguous or defective on its face.
(b) plain but not applying to two sets of facts.
(c) plain but applying to two sets of facts.
(d) related with terms of regional nature.

117. The name of the Union given in the Constitution is
(a) Hindustan or Bharatavarsha.
(b) India or Hindustan.
(c) India or Bharat.
(d) Bharatadesh or India.

118. Leading questions can be asked during
(a) examination-in-chief.
(b) cross-examination.
(c) re-examination.
(d) none of the above.

119. Indian Evidence Act was drafted by
(a) Lord Macaulay.
(b) Sr. James F. Stephen.
(c) Husley.
(d) Sir Henry Summer Maine.

120. In criminal trials, the onus is on the accused to prove that his case falls in
(a) any of the general exceptions.
(b) any of the special exceptions.
(c) any of the proviso to any provision.
(d) all of the above.

121. After re-examination of a witness, the adverse party has a
(a) right to further cross-examine the witness afresh in general.
(b) right to further cross-examine the witness.
(c) right to further cross-examine the witness only when a new fact has arisen is in the re-examination.
(d) either (a) or (b).

122. A will is required to be proved by calling at least one attesting witness
(a) when it is registered.
(b) when it is unregistered.
(c) when it is admitted.
(d) all the above.

123. A dying declaration to be admissible
(a) must be made before a magistrate.
(b) must be made before the police officer.
(c) must be made before a doctor or a private person.
(d) must be made before a magistrate or a police officer or a doctor or a private person.

124. Who was the first Indian woman to be crowned Miss Universe
(a) Rita Faria.
(b) ZeenatAman.
(c) Sushmita Sen.
(d) Aishwarya Rai.

125. A disputed handwriting can be proved
(a) by calling an expert.
(b) by examining a person acquainted with the handwriting of the questioned document.
(c) by comparison of the two: admitted and disputed documents.
(d) all of the above.

1. (d)
2. (d)
3. (a)
4. (c)
5. (b)
6. (a)
7. (d)
8. (a)
9. (c)
10. (d)
11. (c)
12. (c)
13. (b)
14. (d)
15. (c)
16. (c)
17. (b)
18. (b)
19. (d)
20. (d)
21. (c)
22. (d)
23. (d)
24. (b)
25. (c)
26. (b)
27. (d)
28. (d)
29. (b)
30. (d)
31. (a)
32. (b)
33. (c)
34. (c)
35. (c)
36. (b)
37. (b)
38. (a)
39. (a)
40. (c)
41. (b)
42. (a)
43. (c)
44. (c)
45. (c)
46. (c)
47. (a)
48. (c)
49. (b)
50. (d)
51. (c)
52. (a)
53. (c)
54. (c)
55. (c)
56. (c)
57. (a)
58. (b)
59. (c)
60. (c)
61. (c)
62. (a)
63. (c)
64. (d)
65. (d)
66. (a)
67. (c)
68. (d)
69. (c)
70. (c)
71. (c)
72. (a)
73. (a)
74. (a)
75. (c)
76. (a)
77. (b)
78. (d)
79. (e)
80. (c)
81. (d)
82. (a)
83. (a)
84. (d)
85. (c)
86. (a)
87. (b)
88. (a)
89. (b)
90. (c)
91. (b)
92. (a)
93. (d)
94. (a)
95. (c)
96. (a)
97. (c)
98. (a)
99. (a)

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