Nagaland Judicial Service Grade – I 2015 – Prelims

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Nagaland Judicial Service Grade – I 2015 – Prelims Question Paper

Total marks – 100                                       Duration – 2 hours

1. Which amongst the following countries is not a Permanent Member of the United Nations Security Council?
(a) Russia
(b) France
(c) UK
(d) Germany

2. Which of the following expressions correctly describes the “Treaty” called GATT ?
(a) Global Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
(b) General Agreement on Tariffs and Trade
(c) General Agreement on Taxes and Trade
(d) Global Agreement on Transport and Trade

3. The Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 directly owes its origin to
(a) International Council of Arbitrators
(b) UNCITRAL Model Law
(c) Judgment of the Supreme Court of India
(d) A resolution of the International Chamber of Commerce

4. Who amongst the following persons is the present Prime Minister of Nepal?
(a) Girija Prasad Koirala
(b) Krishna Prasad Bhattarai
(c) Khadga Prasad Sharma Oli
(d) Shushil Koirala

5. Who is the author of the book “The Idea of Justice ” ?
(a) Nani Palkivala
(b) Ram Jethmalani
(c) Amartya Sen
(d) M.C.Shetalvad.

6. Who was the first women Supreme Court Judge in India ?
(a) Justice Leila Seth
(b) Justice Ruma Pal
(c) Justice Sujata V Manohar
(d) Justice Fathima Beevi

7. Which of the Indian States shares a border with Bangladesh?
(a) West Bengal, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura and Assam
(b) West Bengal, Mizoram, Meghalaya, Tripura and Assam
(c) Nagaland, Meghalaya, West Bengal and Manipur
(d) Mizoram, Arunachal Pradesh, Tripura and Assam

8. An Interpleader Suit is a
(a) suit involving a counter-claim filed by the defendant
(b) suit for appointment of Gurdian ad-litem
(c) suit to permit interested parties to litigate ownership between themselves.
(d) None of the above

9. “Public Servant” is defined under section______ of the IPC.
(a) 20
(b) 21
(c) 22
(d) 23
10. Which section of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with the expression “Burden of Proof’ ?
(a) Section 56
(b) Section 115
(c) Section 5
(d) Section 101

11. Who amongst the following players is the men’s single Badminton Champion in India ?
(a) Srikant Kidambi
(b) Uday Power
(c) Dipu Ghosh
(d) Atul Raja

12. Grievous hurt is defined under section______ of the Indian Penal Code.
(a) 319
(b) 320
(c) 321
(d) 322

13. The Supreme Court of India has recently launched a web portal for tracking pending cases in the District Courts named as :
(a) Indian Courts network
(b) Supreme Court Online
(c) National Judicial Data Grid
(d) None of the above

14. Which of the following is a LINUX based free and open source software :
(a) JAVA

15. For the purpose of summoning a person as an accused during trial u/s 319 of Cr.PC what must the court consider on an analysis of evidence ?
(a) Reliability of evidence
(b) Grave suspicion
(c) Possibility of conviction
(d) None of the above.

16. GSAT-15 is the name of
(a) The Rocket which was used for mission “Mangalayan ”
(b) Is a communication Satellite recently launched by ISRO
(c) Is the new Tax reform code proposed by the Government of India
(d) Is an experimental Remote Sensing Satellite

17. Which newspaper won the prestigious Pulitzer Prize for African Ebola coverage?
(a) Times
(b) New York Times
(c) The Guardian
(d) The Wall Street Journal

18. Which Indian personality was awarded Officier de la Legion d’Honneur by the French Government in April 2015?
(a) Yashwant Sinha
(b) Narendra Modi
(c) Manmohan Singh
(d) Pranab Mukherjee

19. Jnanpith Award is a literary honor given to-
(a) Indian citizens who write in any of the 22 Indian languages listed in the Eight Schedule of the Constitution of India
(b) Indian citizens who writes in Hindi
(c) Persons of any nationality who write in Hindi
(d) Indian who writes in foreign language

20. Right of minorities to establish and administer educational institutions is granted under
(a) Article 21
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 30
(d) Article 32

21. “Nothing is an offence which is done by a child under seven years of age” has been provided under section_______ of the Indian Penal Code.
(a) 79
(b) 80
(c) 81
(d) 82

22. A person with AB blood group is called Universal recipient because of
(a) Lack of antigens
(b) Lack of antibodies
(c) Presence of antibodies
(d) None of the above

23. Who is known as the father of local self government in India?
(a) Canning
(b) Ripon
(c) Lytton
(d) Mayo

24. The home rule movement started by Anne Besant was aimed at
(a) Boycotting foreign goods
(b) Imparting education to the rural population
(c) Attaining self rule for India
(d) Protest against British monopoly in administration

25. The Theory of “Basic structure” of the constitution was propounded by the Supreme Court in the case of
(a) Minerva mills limited v/s Union of India
(b) Keshavananda Bharati v/s State of Kerala
(c) Tulsiram Patel v/s Union of India
(d) S.P Gupta v/s Union of India

26. Doctrine of “Double Jeopardy” means
(a) No person shall be convicted without a trial
(b) No person shall be denied fair opportunity to defend his case during trial
(c) No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once
(d) No person shall be detained in prison during the pendency of an appeal against an order of conviction.
Direction (Q. No. 27 to 31).Who gave the following slogans.

27. “JaiJawan, Jaikisan”
(a) Mahatma Gandhi
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Lai Bahadur Shastri
(d) Indira Gandhi

28. ” Jana Gana Mana Adhinayak Jaya He”
(a) Satyajit Ray
(b) Rabindranath Tagore
(c) Mahatma Gandhi
(d) Lala Lajpat Rai

29. “Swaraj is my birth right
(a) Subhash Chandra Bose
(b) Lala Lajpat Rai
(c) Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

30. ” Do or Die”
(a) Bhagat Singh
(b) Sarat Chandra Chatterjee
(c) Chandrashekhar Azad
(d) Mahatma Gandhi

31. “Inquilab Zindabad”
(a) Mohammad Iqbal
(b) Muhammad Ali Jinna
(c) Kazi Nazrul Islam
(d) Sarojini Naidu.

32. The expression “Mesne Profit of property means
(a) profit earned by person in wrongful possession of a property
(b) profit earned due to improvement of property made by person in wrongful possession.
(c) compensation payable due to the damage caused to a property locked in a litigation.
(d) is the interest component payable in a suit for recovery of money.

33. In a suit for partition of property or separate possession of a share therein , when the civil court passes a decree it should
(a) not enter into the question of title and possession of the interested parties in the property
(b) confine the proceeding to the right and interest of the plaintiff alone.
(c) declare the rights of all the persons interested in the property.
(d) None of the above

34. Which of the following Schedules of the Constitution of India deals with “Provisions as to the administration and control of Schedule Areas and Schedule Tribes ”
(a) Sixth Schedule
(b) Ninth Schedule
(c) Tenth Schedule
(d) Fifth Schedule

35. Section 90 of the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 deals with
(a) Proof of fact by oral evidence
(b) tendering secondary evidence as to documents
(c) presumption as to electronic record five years old
(d) presumption as to documents thirty years old.

36. For the purpose of making a valid gift of immovable property as per section 123 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882, which of the following conditions is not mandatory:-
(a) transaction must be effected by a registered instrument
(b) there must be delivery of possession of the immovable property to the done
(c) registered instrument must be signed by or on behalf of the donor
(d) the registered instrument must be attested by at least two witnesses.

37. “Oral evidence must, in all cases whatever, be direct “has been provided under section______ of the Indian Evidence Act ?
(a) 59
(b) 60
(c) 61
(d) 62

38. “A Sessions Judge or Additional Sessions Judge may pass any sentence authorised by law; but any sentence of death passed by any such Judge shall be subject to confirmation by the High Court”. The statement is:
(a) True
(b) False
(c) Partly true
(d) None of these

39. Which Article in the Constitution of India vests control over the Subordinate Courts upon the High Court?
(a) Art 235
(b) Art 236
(c) Art 227
(d) Art 226

40. Which of the following provisions in the IPC prescribes punishment for defamation?
(a) Section 499
(b) Section 500
(c) Section 503
(d) Section 506

41. The provision for setting off against the term of imprisonment of the period of detention undergone by an accused during investigation, inquiry or trial of the same case in which he/she is convicted, has been provided under section_____ of the Code of Criminal Procedure, 1973.
(a) 428
(b) 429
(c) 430
(d) 431

42. Which of the following propositions is not valid for acquisition of title over land by “adverse possession”?
(a) Even as a permissive possessor, the defendant must show his or her possession over the suit land for a period exceeding 12 years.
(b) The defendant must show that the possession of the disputed land has been open and hostile to the title of the true owner.
(c) The defendant must plead and establish his continuous possession over the land for the prescribed period.
(d) The onus to establish the claim of adverse possession is solely upon the defendant making the claim.

43. Under section 111 of the IPC, when an act is abetted and a different act is done, the abettor is liable for the act done in the same manner and to the same extents if he had directly abetted it-
(a) Only if the act done was a probable consequence of the abetment
(b) Regardless of whether the consequence has any nexus with the act done.
(c) Only if the abettor takes part in the commission of the offence.
(d) If the abettor is found to have acted under the influence of alcohol.

44. Acting under section 245 of the Cr.PC, the magistrate may discharge an accused
(a) If there is delay in completion of the investigation
(b) The evidence produced by the prosecution are all secondary evidence
(c) No case against the accused has been made out which, if unrequited, will warrant his conviction
(d) There are serious flaws in the manner of investigation leading to the filing of the charge- sheet

Direction (Q. No. 45 to 491: Identify the correct meaning of the following legal maxims/doctrines.

45. “Audi alteram partem”
(a) No one should be condemned unheard
(b) Justice should be done in accordance with law
(c) Judgment should be delivered without delay
(d) An award is a judgment

46. “beneficium invito non datur”
(a) The application is the life of a rule.
(b) Remuneration is not given unless on account of duty performed.
(c) A benefit is not granted against the persons will.
(d) All benefits must be earned.

47. “Ubijus, ibiremedium”
(a) Where the right is uncertain, there is no remedy.
(b) Where there is a wrong, there is a remedy.
(c) Where there is a right, there is a remedy.
(d) Where there is damage, there is compensation.

48. “Res ipsa loquitur”
(a) The thing speaks for itself
(b) Law follow evidence.
(c) Truth is based on evidence
(d) Law is blind.

49. “Ex debito justitiae”
(a) Justice should be delivered promptly
(b) Matter of discretion of the court.
(c) Ex party judgment
(d) By reason of obligation of justice

50. What does Ashoka’s wheel in the national flag represent?
(a) Wheel of law
(b) Wheel of Prosperity
(c) Wheel of authority
(d) wheel of democracy

51. the provision regarding emergency was adopted in the Indian constitution from
(a) Constitution of France
(b) Constitution of Japan
(c) U.K
(d) Germany Constitution

52. The concept of fundamental duties enshrined in the constitution of India has been
(a) USSR constitution
(b) U.K constitution
(c) U.S.A constitution
(d) Iris constitution

53. The Indian Independence Act, 1947 came into effect on
(a) 14th August,1947
(b) 18th July,1947
(c) 26th January, 1947
(d) 14th November, 1947

54. The Comptroller and Auditor General (CAG) is appointed by
(a) The prime Minister
(b) The council of ministers
(c) The President
(d) The Chief Justice of India

55. Which is the largest committee of the parliament of India
(a) Public Accounts Committee
(b) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(c) Business Advisory Committee
(d) Estimates Committee

56. The Constitution (ninety ninth Amendment), 2014 relates to
(a) General Sales Tax (GST)
(b) National Judicial Appointments Commission (NJAC)
(c) Enhancement of quota for SC’s and ST’s
(d) One Rank One Pension (OROP)

Direction (Q. No. 57 to 59): Each question has an underlined word followed by our answer choices. You will choose the word that is a necessary part of the underlined word.

57. Harvest
(a) autumn
(b) stockpile
(c) tractor
(d) crop

58. Desert
(a) cactus
(b) arid
(c) oasis
(d) flat

59. Language
(a) tongue
(b) slang
(c) writing
(d) words

60. A sum of money at simple interest amounts to Rs. 815 in 3 years and to Rs 854 in 4 years. The sum is:
(a) Rs. 650
(b) Rs. 690
(c) Rs.698
(d) Rs. 700

61. How much time will it take for an amount of Rs. 450 to yield Rs. 81 as interest at 4.5% per annum of simple interest?
(a) 3.5 years
(b) 4.5 years
(c) 4 years
(d) 5 years

Direction (Q. No. 62 to 64): Find the odd one out.

62. 3, 5, 11, 14, 17, 21 A]21
(a) 21
(b) 17
(c) 14
(d) 3

63. 10, 25, 45, 54, 60, 75, 80 A] 10
(a) 10
(b) 45
(c) 54
(d) 75

64. 1, 4, 9, 16, 23, 25, 36 A]9
(a) 9
(b) 23
(c) 25
(d) 36

65. Pointing to a photograph, a man said, “I have no brother or sister but that man’s father is my father’s son.” Whose photograph was it ?
(a) His own
(b) His Son
(c) His Father
(d) His Grandfather

66. Looking at the portrait of a man, Harsh said, “His mother is the wife of my father’s son. I have no brothers or sisters.” At whose portrait was Harsh was looking?
(a) His child
(b) His father
(c) His grandson
(d) His nephew
67. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(a) 28
(b) 32
(c) 36
(d) 40

68. What is the number of triangles that can be formed whose vertices are the vertices of an octagon but have only one side common with that of octagon?
(a) 64
(b) 32
(c) 24
(d) 16

69. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(a) 27
(b) 25
(c) 23
(d) 21

70. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7

71. Find the number of triangles in the given figure.

(a) 16
(b) 18
(c) 19
(d) 21

72. Microsoft has selected which city for its pilot projects in Digital India initiative?
(a) Bangalore
(b) Ahmadabad
(c) Mumbai
(d) Varanasi

73. Which state has recently launched APJ Abdul Kalam Amrut Yojna?
(a) Gujarat
(b) Maharashtra
(c) West Bengal
(d) Uttar Pradesh

74. What is the name of the committee that has recently recommended major changes in IIT entrance examination?
(a) Ashok Misra committee
(b) Rameshwar Committee
(c) Rajesh Arora Committee
(d) Alok Naik Committee

75. What is the period of limitation prescribed by The Limitation Act, 1963 for filing suit for declaration of forgery of a registered instrument?
(a) 3 years from the date of registration or when it becomes known to the plaintiff.
(b) 1 year from the date of registration or when it becomes known to the plaintive.
(c) 12 years from the date of registration or when it becomes known to the plaintive.
(d) 30 years from the date of registration or when it becomes known to the plaintive.

76. In which of the following courts can a proceeding be filed for execution of an arbitral award:
(a) Court of Munsiff
(b) Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(c) Principal Civil Court of original jurisdiction in a district
(d) Judicial magistrate first class

77. Which of the following provisions of the Cr.PC deals with Prosecution Sanction in case of a public servant?
(a) Section 197
(b) Section 200
(c) Section 231
(d) Section 251

78. Which of the following is not a fundamental right guaranteed under the constitution of India?
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to education
(c) Freedom of speech and expression
(d) Right to property

79. As per the Code of Civil Procedure, what is the time period in which a defendant is ordinarily permitted to file written statement reckoned from the date of receipt of summons?
(a) 120 days
(b) 90 days
(c) 30 days
(d) None of the above

80. In which year was the Gauhati High Court established?
(a) 1950
(b) 1948
(c) 1952
(d) 1963

81. Constitution of India was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on:-
(a) 25 October, 1948
(b) 25 October, 1949
(c) 26 November, 1948
(d) 26 November, 1949

82. Who was the first Chief Justice of the Republic of India ?
(a) Mohammad Hidayatulla
(b) H.J.Kania
(c) Sabyasachi Mukherji
(d) Y.V.Chandrachud

Direction (O. No. 83 to 87):In the following questions out of the four words, only one spelling is correct. Identify the correct spelling.

(a) Tranquilizer
(b) Tranquilizer
(c) Tranquilisar
(d) Trenkuilijar

(a) Catastrephe
(b) Cetastrophy
(c) Catastrophe
(d) Cetastrophe

(a) Conscience
(b) Consance
(c) Coinscince
(d) Coinsance

(a) Leftenant
(b) Leitenant
(c) Luitanant
(d) Lieutenant

(a) Consanguineity
(b) Consanguinity
(c) Conseingunity
(d) Connsanguinity

Direction(Q. No. 88to 92): Choose the correct meaning of the idioms and phrases from the four options given

88. To kick up a row.
(a) To sink into oblivion.
(b) To pick up a quarrel.
(c) To stand in a row.
(d) To extinguish fire.

89. An apple of discord
(a) Cause of dispute
(b) lack of unity
(c) Unity in diversity
(d) None of the above

90. A white elephant
(a) A fat person
(b) Fair treatment
(c) Useless person
(d) A costly but useless thing

91. Once bitten twice shy
(a) To act with a sense of vengeance
(b) To act with disrespect toward other
(c) To be hostile towards an enemy
(d) Once hurt, far more careful in future

92. To have an axe to grind
(a) To be cruel to others
(b) Nurturing animosity
(c) To be a hardworking person
(d) To have one’s own end to serve

93. “Before Memory fades” is an autobiography by
(a) M C Chagla
(b) Fali S Nariman
(c) D Dave
(d) Shanti Bhushan

94. Court’s discretionary power to grant anticipatory bail flows from
(a) Article 21 of the Constitution of India
(b) Section 482 of the Cr P C
(c) Section 438 of the Cr P C
(d) Section 438 of the Indian Penal Code

95. An Arbitral Award can be set aside under which of the following provisions of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996
(a) Section 34
(b) Section 32
(c) Section 43
(d) None of the above

96. Jurisdiction under which of the following provisions of law cannot be exercised by a High Court ?
(a) Article 227 of the Constitution of India
(b) Article 136 of the Constitution of India
(c) Section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure
(d) Section 37 of the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996.

97. The provision for review of an order passed by the court is laid down in which of the following provisions of the Code of Civil Procedure ?
(a) Section 141
(b) Order XXXIX Rules 1 and 2
(c) Order XLI Rule 5
(d) Order XLVII Rule 1

98. Under section 202 of the Cr.PC the Magistrate can postpone the issue of process on receipt of a complaint for the purpose of
(a) Making further investigation into the matter to ascertain if there was sufficient ground to proceed in the matter.
(b) Permit the complainant to amend/ alter the complaint
(c) Both the above
(d) None of the above

99. The International Court of Justice is head quartered at
(a) Washington, USA
(b) Paris, France
(c) Berlin, Germany
(d) Hague, Netherlands

100. Who is the Secretary General of the United Nations (UN) ?
(a) Ban Ki-moon
(b) Aung San Suu Kyi
(c) Angela Merkel
(d) Justine Trudeau

Looking for Judicial Services Coaching?

You have come to the right place! We offer comprehensive CLASSROOM coaching for Judicial Service exams of various States. Our next batch starts on 26 November 2017. We also offer comprehensive study material for these exams which you can access online or get at your doorstep through speed post.