MP Judicial Prelims 1996 Question Paper

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MP Judicial Prelims 1996 Question Paper

1. Whether an issue heard and finally decided by a competent court of limited jurisdiction shall operate as res judi-cata in a subsequent suit, that the aforesaid court was not competent of try :-
(a) No
(b) Yes
(c) Answer would depend upon the nature of the issue
(d) None of the above

2. An immovable property held by Y is situated at Bhopal and the wrongdoer personally works for gain at Indore A suit to obtain compensation for wrong to the property may be instituted:-
(a) At bhopal
(b) At Indore
(c) Either at Bhopal or at Indore
(d) None of these

3. Where the liability in relation to sum adjudged has not arisen out of a commercial transaction, the maximum yearly rate of interest award-able under section 34(1) of the C.P.C. from the date of decree for payment of money to date of payment is :-
(a) 12%
(b) 18%
(c) 10%
(d) 6%

4. Where the decree is for the partition of an undivided estate assessed to the payment of revenue to the government the partition of the estate in accordance with the law for the time being in force, shall be made by:-
(a) TheNaib Tahsildar
(b) TheNazir
(c) The collector
(d) The commisioner appointed by the court

5. In execution of a decree other than a decree for maintenance passed against A what shall be the attachable portion, if his salary is Rs. 700 per month:-
(a) Rs.300
(b) Rs. 100
(c) Rs.600
(d) Rs.350

6. In a suit, which relates to a railway, the authority to be named as plaintiff or defendant shall be:-
(a) The general manager of the railway
(b) A secretary to the central government
(c) The collector of the district
(d) The union of India

7. In the case of a Public nuisance a suit for declaration and injunction may be instituted by :-
(a) Two persons with the leave of the court
(b) Two persons having obtained oral consent of the Advocate General
(c) Two persons having obtained the written consent of the Advocate general
(d) Two person to whom no special damage has been caused by person of such public nuisance

8. An order passed under section 151 C.P.C. is :-
(a) Appealable
(b) Revisable
(c) Not liable to be interfered with
(d) Not reviewable

9. Where in a suit the defendant is absent from his residence and there is no likelihood of his being found at the residence within a reasonable within a reasonable time, service of the summons may be made on :-
(a) Servant
(b) Minor son
(c) Adult daughter
(d) Munim

10. In which of the following cases can C set off the claim:-
(a) A sues C on a bill of exchange C alleges that A has wrongfully neglected to insure C’s goods and is liable to pay in compensation
(b) A sues B and C for Rs. 1000 the debt is due to C by A alone by A
(c) A and B sues C for Rs. 1000 The debt is due of C by A alone
(d) A sues C on bill of exchange for Rs. 500 C holds a judgment against A for recovery of debt or Rs. 1000

11. Where the appellant has withdrawn the appeal preferred against a decree passed exparte the application under order 9 Rule 13 shall be:-
(a) Rejected
(b) Returned
(c) Maintainable
(d) Referred for opinion to the Appellate Court

12. The Court shall reject an application to sue as an indigent person:-
(a) Where is contains the particulars required in regard to plaint
(b) Where it is presented to be court by the applicant in person
(c) Where applicant allegation show a cause of action
(d) Where any other person has entered into an agreement with the applicant to finance the litigation

13. The court may by order appoint a receiver of any property before decree:-
(a) Where it appears to the court to be just and convenient
(b) Where the suit property is in danger of being wrongfully sold in execution of a decree
(c) Where the defendant is about to dispose of the whole or any part of his property
(d) Where the defendant has absconded the local limits of the jurisdiction of the court

14. A an Indian citizen commits adultery in England, which is not an offence in the country The alleged offence can be tried by :-
(a) The court within whose local jurisdiction the adultery was committed
(b) The court of Judicial Magistrate first class situated at any place in India at which he may be found
(c) International court of Justice
(d) The supreme court of India

15. ‘X’ armed with a loaded pistol and Y empty handed go to Z’ shop in furtherance of their common intention to commit robbery, X enters the shop and on being resisted in carrying away property shoots Z with pistol Z dies at once. For what acts of X, Y is liable
(a) Dacoity with murder
(b) Extortion and culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(c) Attempt to commit robbery when armed with deadly weapon
(d) Robbery and murder

16. 4A’ a blacksmith, is seized by a gang of dacoits and forced by threat of instant death to take his tools and to force the door of B’s house. The dacoits ten in number ,loot B’s money and jewels and kill B’s son 4A’:-
(a) Is guilty of dacoity with murder
(b) Is guilty of house breaking and abetment of dacoity
(c) Is not guilty of any offence
(d) Is guilty of making preparation to commit dacoity

17. Right to private defence of the body extends to voluntarily causing death if the offence which occasions the exercise of right;-
(a) Reasonably causes apprehension that death will be caused
(b) Reasonably causes apprehension that simple injury will be caused
(c) Is of escaping with stolen property immediately after the theft
(d) Is of arresting a person who is running a way after having committed an offence of voluntarily causing hurt

18. ‘A’ instigates ‘B’ to instigate ‘C’ to murder ‘Z’, 4B’ accordingly instigates ‘C’ to murder ‘Z’ and ‘C’ Commits that offence in consequence of B’s instigation A is:-
(a) Not guilty of any offence
(b) Not guilty of abetting murder
(c) Guilty of abetment by conspiracy
(d) Guilty of abetting murder

19. In Rex Vs. Govinda the points of distincion between the provisions of the following sections of the I.P.C. were explained :-
(a) 34 and 149
(b) 302 and 304
(c) 299 and 300
(d) 403 and 405

20. ‘Z’ strikes ‘B’, ‘B’ is by this provocation excited to violent rage. ‘A’ a bystander intending to take advantage of B’s rage and to cause him to kill ‘Z’ puts a knife into B’s hand for that purpose ‘B’ kills ‘Z’ with knife what offence ‘A’ is guilty of:-
(a) Culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(b) Abetting culpable homicide
(c) Attempt to murder
(d) Murder

21. ‘A’ without Z’s consent and with intent to cause injury fear or annoyance to ‘Z’ incites a dog to spring upon ‘Z’ what offence has been committed by ‘A* :-
(a) Assault
(b) Mischief
(c) Negligent conduct with respect to animal
(d) Use of criminal force

22. ‘A’ and ‘B’ who are cadets in the Indian Air force take out from the jodhpur aerodrome an aircraft, without the authority of the commandant and fly it away to Pakistan what offence has been committed by them :-
(a) Theft
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Criminal misappropriation
(d) Sedition

23. ‘A’ by putting ‘Z’ in fear of grievous hurt dishonestly induces ‘Z’ to sign or affix his seal to a blank paper and deliver it to ‘A’. ‘Z’ sign and delivers the paper to ‘A’. ‘A’ is guilty:-
(a) Of forgery
(b) Of robbery
(c) Of extortion
(d) Of cheating

24. X finds a Government promissory note belonging to C bearing a blank endorsement X knowing that the note belongs to C pledged it with a banker as a security for loan intending to restore it? C within a week. X :-
(a) Is not guilty of any offence
(b) Is guilty of criminal breach of trust
(c) Is guilty of cheating
(d) Is guilty of criminal misappropriation

25. ‘A’ in good faith says of a book published by ‘Z’. Z’s books is indecent, ‘Z’ must be a man of impure mind, Is this defamation punishable under section 500 of the I.P.C.
(a) Yes, because the opinion respects Z’s character
(b) No, because it falls within one of the exceptions of section 499
(c) No, Because it is slander
(d) No, because it has not been repeated

26. ‘A’ finds the key to Y’s house door, which *Y’ had lost and commits house trespass by entering Y’s house having opened the door with that key. What offence has A committed :-
(a) Lurking house trespass
(b) Criminal misappropriation
(c) Attempt to commit theft
(d) House breaking

27. Warrant case means a case:-
(a) In which a police officer arrest without warrant
(b) In which the court in the first instance, shall issue a warrant of arrest against the accused
(c) Relating to an offence punishable with imprisonment for a term not exceeding two years
(d) Relating to an offence punishable with death, imprisonment for life or imprisonment for a term exceeding two years

28. A Chief Judicial Magistrate may pass a sentence of :-
(a) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years or of fine not exceeding five thousand rupees or of both
(b) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding three years or of fine not exceeding ten thousand rupees or of both
(c) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years or of fine not exceeding to any amount or both
(d) Imprisonment for a term not exceeding seven years or of fine not exceeding one lakh rupees or of both

29. No wife shall be entitled to receive maintenance from her husband under S 125 Cr.P.C. if:-
(a) She has obtained a divorce from her husband and has not remarried
(b) She is unable to maintain herself
(c) She refused to live with her husband on the ground that he keeps a mistress
(d) She is living in adultery

30. A district magistrate or a sub-divisional magistrate may prevent environmental pollution under this provision of Cr.P.C.
(a) S. 151
(b) S. 133
(c) S. 107
(d) S. 145

31. Under sub-section (1) of S. 146 Cr.P.C. the Magistrate may attach the subject of dispute if :-
(a) It is movable
(b) He decides that one of the parties was in possession of the said subject
(c) He is unable to satisfy himself as to which of them was in possession of the subject of dispute
(d) In relation to that a receiver is appointed by any civil court

32. In relation to first information report which of the following statements is not correct:-
(a) It is not substantive evidence
(b) It merely marks the beginning of the investigation
(c) It cannot be used as a previous statement for any purpose
(d) The informant need not be an eye witness

33. If it appears to the Magistrate that the offence complained of is triable exclusively by the Court of Session he under section 202 Cr.P.C. postponing the issue of process against the accused:-
(a) Shall commit the case to the court of Session
(b) May direct an investigation to be made by a police officer
(c) Shall call upon the complainant to produce all his witness and examine them on oath
(d) Shall return the complaint for presentation to produce before the Court of Session

34. The Maximum term of imprisonment awardable in a summary trial is :-
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) Two year

35. The appeal against an order of acquittal passed by the court of Judicial Magistrate first class shall lie to :-
(a) The Court of Chief Judicial Magistrate
(b) The Court of Session
(c) The High Court
(d) The Supreme Court

36. On an application made by a person apprehending arrest on an accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence the High Court on the court of session may under S. 438 CrP.C. give the direction that:-
(a) He shall not be arrested till further order
(b) He shall be released on bail without taking him into custody
(c) In the event of such arrest he shall be released on bail
(d) In the event of such arrest he shall be released on bail three days after the arrest

37. If the offence is punishable with fine only the period of limitation for taking cognizance of it shall be:-
(a) Three months
(b) Six months
(c) One year
(d) Three years

38. Inherent powers under section 482 Cr.P.C. can be exercised by :-
(a) Any criminal court
(b) The Supreme Court only
(c) The Court of Session and the High Court
(d) The High Court

39. A is accused of an act which may amount to theft or receiving stolen property of criminal breach of trust or cheating He is only charged with theft but it appears that he committed the offence of criminal breach of trust. He may be :-
(a) Acquitted
(b) Convicted of theft
(c) Convicted of criminal breach of trust
(d) Discharged

40. In relation to the expressions defined in S. 3 of the Indian Evidence Act, Which of the following statement is not correct :-
(a) Fact includes not only physical facts but also psychological facts
(b) Court includes arbitrators
(c) An inscription on a stone is a document
(d) A fact is said to be not proved when it is neither proved nor disproved

41. The question is whether A was ravished? As conduct the fact that without making a complaint she said that she was ravished is :-
(a) Not relevant
(b) Relevant
(c) Partly relevant
(d) Neither relevant nor irrelevant

42. Confession of an accused is irrelevant and inadmissible when made:-
(a) In the custody of a police officer but in the immediate presence of a magistrate
(b) Before a magistrate who told him that if he made a full confession he would be released.
(c) At the time when he was drunk
(d) In police custody if it leads to the discovery of any fact

43. A voluntarily confession is admissible in evidence:-
(a) When made to a police officer
(b) To a magistrate having competent jurisdiction
(c) To a Village Sarapanch with a request to save him from police
(d) Where it leads to no discovery of facts and made to the police officer

44. Telling his wife that P’s wife had called him to receive payments due to him K leaves his house, After two days his dismembered body is found in a trunk, In P’s trial for murder of K the statement made by K to his wife is :-
(a) Inadmissible
(b) Partly admissible
(c) Inadmissible as it does not directly relates to K’s death
(d) Admissible as it relates to the circumstance of the transaction which resulted in K’s death

45. ‘A’ prosecutes ‘B’ for stealing a cow from him. ‘B’ is convicted. ‘A’ afterwards sues ‘C’ for the cow which B had sold to him before his conviction The judgment against B is:-
(a) Relevant as between A & C
(b) Irrelevant as between A & C
(c) Is without jurisdiction
(d) Is conclusive proof against C

46. In which of the following cases, can secondary evidence of the contents of a document not be given:-
(a) When the original is a public document
(b) When the original has been destroyed
(c) When the original has been found to the inadmissible
(d) When the original is not easily movable

47. For proving execution of a registered will it shall:-
(a) Be necessary to call at least two attesting witness
(b) Be necessary to call at least one attesting witness
(c) Not necessary to call any attesting witness
(d) Be necessary to call the Registrar

48. ‘A’ hires lodgings of B and gives a card on which is written “Rooms Rs. 200 a month” A tenders oral evidence to prove a verbal agreement that these terms were to include partial board. The evidence is:-
(a) Inadmissible under S. 91 of the Indian Evidence Act
(b) Inadmissible under S. 92 of the Indian Evidence Act
(c) Admissible
(d) Irrelevant

49. X sues Y for money due on a bond. The execution of the bond is admitted but Y says that it was obtained by fraud which X denies. The burden of proof is :-
(a) On Y
(b) On X
(c) On the State
(d) On X and Y both

50. Unless non-access is proved the presumption as to legitimacy of any child born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man is :-
(a) Rebuttable presumption of law
(b) Presumption of fact
(c) Mixed presumption of law and fact
(d) irrebuttabte presumption of law

51. Which of the following statements is correct :-
(a) Estoppel is not a rule of evidence
(b) Estoppel form record constitutes bar of res judicata
(c) There can be estoppel on a point of law
(d) There cannot be estoppel when the truth of the matter’s is known to both parties

52. Which of the following statements is not correct :-
(a) Leading questions may be asked in cross examination
(b) Witnesses to character may be cross examined
(c) A Person summoned to produce document does not become a witness
(d) A party may with the permission of the court cross examine his own witness

53. Which of the following is not an accommodation as defined in S.2of the M.P. Accommodation control Act:-
(a) House
(b) Agricultural land
(c) Shop
(d) Gumti

54. If wife is the owner of the accommodation and the husband recovers rent from the tenant Landlord according to the definition given in S.2(b) of the aforesaid Act, would be:-
(a) wife
(b) husband
(c) both of them
(d) none of the two

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55. Pending final decision on the application for fixing the standard rent an interim rent may be fixed by :-
(a) Deputy Collector
(b) Collector
(c) Civil court
(d) Rent controlling Authority

56. After the service of notice of demand to suit for eviction of a tenant on the ground of default in payment of arrears of rent shall be instituted until the expiration of :-
(a) One month
(b) Two months
(c) Three months
(d) Fifteen days

57. Which of the following acts cannot form ground of eviction of the tenant :-
(a) Nuisance
(b) Disclaimer of the title of his landlord
(c) Material structural alteration
(d) Use of a portion of his accommodation as his office

58. Which of the following is correct:-
(a) Past Consideration is no Consideration
(b) Consideration can be past, present of future
(c) Consideration can only be present
(d) Consideration can only be future

59. For whose business can a landlord not obtain decree for eviction against his tenant in respect of a non residential accommodation
(a) of his own
(b) of his unmarried daughter
(c) of his adult son
(d) of his wife

60. The ground for eviction that the tenant has built accommodation suitable for his purpose is available only where the purpose of letting is :-
(a) Only residential
(b) Only non residential
(c) Composite
(d) Immoral

61. A Revision against a final order passed by the Rent Controlling Authority on an application submitted by a retired government servant for eviction of his tenant on the ground of bona fide requirement shall be to :-
(a) The High court
(b) The court of District Judge
(c) The civil Court
(d) The commissioner

62. A Tenant’s defence against eviction under the M.P. Accommodation control act may be struck out if he:-
(a) Fails to present written statement within the time fixed by the court
(b) Fails to deposit or pay any amount as required by S.13
(c) Makes untrue statements in the application u/s 25
(d) Fails to pay such costs as ordered by the court.

63. On the complaint of the tenant if is satisfied that the landlord without any reasonable cause refused to accept rent he may levy on the landlord a fine, who is he :-
(a) Judicial Magistrate first class
(b) Rent Controlling Authority
(c) District Magistrate
(d) District Judge

64. A landlord disconnects the electric supply of a tenant unlawfully and without any reasonable cause, who can order to remain the electric supply on the applicant’s application :-
(a) Civil court
(b) District Magistrate
(c) Rent Controlling Authority
(d) Judicial Magistrate First Class

65. Under S 3 of the transfer of Property Act the following does not amount to notice:-
(a) Registration where the instrument is compulsorily registerable
(b) Registration where the instruments is not compulsorily registerable
(c) Possession
(d) Notice to agent

66. What may be transferred :-
(a) Spes successionis
(b) A right to sue
(c) A right of re-entry to the owner for breach of a condition subsequent
(d) A right to future maintenance

67. In which of the following cases a transfer of immovable property can be made without writing:-
(a) Sale of property of a value more than Rs. 100
(b) Lease for a term of 11 months
(c) Exchange
(d) Actionable Claim

68. A transfers Rs. 500 to B to be paid to him on his attaining his majority or marrying with a proviso that if B dies a minor or marries without C’s consent. The said Rs. 500 shall go to ‘B’ marries when only 17 years of age without C’s consent. The said Rs. 500 shall go to?
(a) A
(b) B
(c) C
(d) D

69. The farm of Sultanpur is the property of C and worth Rs. 80000 A by an instrument of gift professes to transfer it to B giving by the same instrument Rs. 100000 to C, A dies before the election B shall be:-
(a) Entitled to get Rs. 20000 from C
(b) Entitled to get Rs. 80000
(c) Entitled to get Rs. 80000 from A’s representative
(d) Not be entitled to get any amount from any one

70. A believing in good faith that he is absolutely entitled thereto, sows crops on B’s land. The crops are growing at the time of his eviction A is entitled to :-
(a) Whole of the crops
(b) Half of the crops
(c) Transfer of the land in his favour
(d) Amount employed

71. The doctrine of Lis Pendense applies where:-
(a) The suit is collusive
(b) The transfer is made after the decree of the trial court but before the filling of an appeal
(c) Right to movable property is in question
(d) Property is situated outside the territorial jurisdiction of the court

72. If the Sale and agreement to repurchase are embodied in separate documents then the transaction cannot be a mortgage this was laid down in :-
(a) ChunchunjhaVs. Sheikh Ebadat Ali
(b) BeniRamVs. Kundanlal
(c) Raja kishandatt Vs. Raja MumtazAli
(d) Musahar Sahu Vs.Hakimlal

73. A Mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called :-
(a) Anomalous mortgage
(b) English mortgage
(c) Equitable mortgage
(d) Unsufurcturary mortgage

74. In which of the following cases, a lease of immovable property does not determine :-
(a) By efflux of time limited thereby
(b) By express surrender
(c) On the service of a notice to quit
(d) By forfeiture

75. A gives a lakh of rupees to B reserving to himself with B’s assent the right to take back at pleasure Rs. 10000 out of lakh. The gift:-
(a) Is wholly void
(b) Is invalid
(c) Holds goods as to Rs. 90000
(d) Is onerous

76. Which of the following transfers is valid:-
(a) An unregistered usufructuary mortgage for Rs.99
(b) An unregistered gift of immovable property of the value of Rs. 99
(c) An oral lease of immovable property from year to year
(d) An oral assignment of debts

77. ‘L’ is sent to search for G’s nephew in the meantime ‘G’ by advertisement offers a reward of Rs. 501 to anyone who finds his nephew. ‘L’ traces the boy and subsequently knowing about the reward claims it. To the reward L is :-
(a) Entitled
(b) Not entitled as the offer is general
(c) Not entitled as the consideration is inadequate
(d) Is not entitled as the offer was not communicated to him

78. Which of the statements as to consideration is not correct :-
(a) It may be past also
(b) It need not be adequate
(c) Stranger to it cannot sue
(d) It must be real

79. A contract by a minor is absolutely void This was laid down it:-
(a) Mohiri bibi Vs. Dharmodas Ghosh
(b) Lalman Vs. Gauri Dutt
(c) Kanhayalal Vs. Girdarilal
(d) Mohanmmed said Vs. Vishambhar Nath

80. A suit to money had and received does not lie in the following set of circumstances:-
(a) Money paid by plaintiff to the defendant which he seeks to recover
(b) Money paid by the plaintiff to a third party for the benefit of the defendant which the plaintiff seeks to recover
(c) Money received by the defendant from third parties in circumstances in which it will not be looked upon as a plaintiffs money which he seeks to recover
(d) Money received by the defendant from third parties in circumstances in which it will not be looked upon as a plaintiff’s money which he seeks to recover

81. Which of the following agreements is not void:-
(a) A agrees to sell B a hundred tons of oil
(b) A Promises to obtain for B an employment in the public service and B promises to pay Rs. 1000 to A
(c) A agrees with B to discover treasure by magic
(d) A finds B’s purse and gives it to him B promises to give to A Rs.50

82. ‘A’ enters in to a contract with ‘B’ to sing at his theatre two nights in every week during the next two months and ‘B’ engages to pay her at rate of Rs. 1000 for each night. ‘A’ wilfully absents herself on the sixth night but with the assent of ‘A’ sings on the seventh night ‘B’:-
(a) Can put an end to the contract
(b) Cannot put an end to the Contract
(c) Is not liable to pay for five nights on which A had sung
(d) Is not entitled to compensation for damage sustained by him on the sixth night

83. Which of the following is not a quasi contract:-
(a) Obligation of person enjoying benefit of non gratuitous act
(b) Responsibility of finder of goods
(c) Quantum merit
(d) Notation

84. ‘A’ contracts to sell and deliver 500 bales of cotton to ‘B’ on a fixed day A knows nothing of B’s mode of conducting his business ‘A’ breaks his promise and ‘B’ having no cotton is obliged to close his mill Is ‘A’ responsible for the loss caused to ‘B’ by The closing of Mill :-
(a) Yes
(b) No
(c) To the extent of the agreed price of cotton
(d) None of the above

85. A becomes surety to C for B’s conduct as a manager of C’s bank. Afterwards B and C contract without A’s permission that B shall become liable for one fourth of the losses on overdraft B allows a customer to overdraw and the bank loses a sum to money. To make good this loss A is :-
(a) Wholly liable
(b) Not Liable
(c) Liable to the extent of one fourth
(d) Liable to the extent of three fourth

86. ‘X’ hires a carriage of Y The carriage is unsafe though Y is not aware of it and X is injured for the injury to X, Y is:-
(a) Liable
(b) Not liable
(c) Liable to the extent of 50%
(d) None of the above

87. A employs B to recover Rs, 1000 from C Through B’s misconduct the money is not recovered B is :-
(a) Entitled to no remuneration and must make good the loss
(b) Neither entitled to remuneration not liable to make good the loss
(c) Entitled to commission from C
(d) None of the above

88. X entrusts Y with negotiable instruments endorsed in blank Y sells them to Z in violation of private orders from X the Sale is :-
(a) Void
(b) Valid
(c) Voidable at the option of Y
(d) Voidable at the option of Z

89. Revenue year as defined in S.2(v) of the MP land Revenue code commences from:-
(a) 1st of January
(b) 1st of April
(c) 1st of July
(d) 1st of October

90. Which of the following is the principal seat of the board of revenue: –
(a) Bhopal
(b) Jabalpur
(c) Gwalior
(d) Indore

91. If any person fails to comply with a summons to attend as witness the Revenue Officer cannot :-
(a) Issue a bailable warrant of his arrest
(b) Order him to furnish security for appearance
(c) Attach his property
(d) Impose upon him a fine

92. Under the provisions of the revenue code an appeal shall lie from an order:-
(a) Rejecting an application for review
(b) Removing a patwari
(c) Granting an application for stay
(d) of an interim nature

93. The Jurisdiction to decide any dispute to which the state government is not a party relating to any right which is recorded in the record of rights is conferred on:-
(a) Civil Court
(b) Tahsildar
(c) Sub-division officer
(d) Collector

94. All entries made under chapter IX of the M.P.Land Revenue Code in the land records shall be presumed to be:-
(a) Conclusive entry
(b) Wrong
(c) Correct until the contrary is proved
(d) None of the above

95. Penalty for encroaching upon a recognised road can be imposed by :-
(a) Tahsildar
(b) Executive magistrate
(c) Patwari
(d) Judicial Magistrate Second Class

96. For recovery of Arrears of land revenue the following shall not be attached and sold:-
(a) Cooking vessels of the defaulter
(b) Less than six hectares of land held by the defaulter in any Scheduled area
(c) If the defaulter is an agriculturist implements of husbandry driven by mechanical power
(d) Tools of artisans

97. Any land comprised in his holding may be given on lease continuously for more than three years by a Bhumiswami who :-
(a) Is a minor
(b) Is a widow
(c) Is a person in the service of the Armed force of the union
(d) Holds the land for non agricultural purposes (* AH options are correct)

98. With reference to an application for partition of holding if any question of title is raised the Tahsildar:-
(a) Shall stay his proceedings till the decision of the civil court
(b) Shall drop his proceedings
(c) Stay his proceedings for a period of three months
(d) Continue with his proceedings till they are stayed by the civil court

99. If a Bhumi-swami belonging to an aboriginal tribe is disposed of the land otherwise than in due course of law he may apply for reinstatement within:-
(a) Two months
(b) Two years
(c) Five years
(d) Seven years

100. In respect of which of the following matters jurisdiction of the civil court is not excluded:-
(a) Ejectment of a Government lessee
(b) Restoration of Possession to an occupancy tenant
(c) Any Claim to modify any entry in the Nistar Partak

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