Assam Judicial Service Grade-I 2012 Prelim

Assam Judicial Service Grade-I 2012 Prelim Question Paper

Total marks – 100                           Duration – 3 hours

Directions- Each of the following reading comprehension questions are based on the content of the following passage. Read the passage and then determine the best answer choice for each question. Base your choice on what this passage states directly or implies, not on any information you may have gained elsewhere.

Both plants and animals of many sorts show remarkable change in form, structure, growth habits, and even mode of reproduction in becoming adapted to different climatic environment, types of food supply, or mode of living. This divergence in response to evolution is commonly expressed by altering the form and function of some part or parts of the organism, the original identity of which is clearly discernible. For example, the creeping foot of the snail is seen in related marine pteropods to be modified into a flapping organ useful for swimming, and is changed into prehensile arms that bear suctorial disks in the squids and other cephalopods. The limbs of various mammals are modified according to several different modes of life- for swift running (cursorial) as in the horse and antelope, for swinging in trees (arboreal) as in the monkeys, for digging (fossorial) as in the moles and gophers, for flying (Volant) as in the bats, for swimming (acquatic) as in the seals, whales and dolphins, and for other adaptations. The structures or organs that show main change in connection with this adaptive divergence are commonly identified readily as homologous, in spite of great alterations. Thus, the finger and wrist bones of a bat and whale, for instance, fiave virtually nothing in common except that they are definitely equivalent elements of the mammalian limb.

1. Which of the following is the most appropriate title for the passage, based on its content?
(a) Adaptive Divergence
(b) Evolution
(c) Unusual Structures
(d) Changes in Organs

2. The author provides information that would answer which of the following questions?
I. What factors cause change in organisms?
II. What is the theory of evolution?
III. How are horses’ legs related to seals’ flippers?
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II only
(d) I and III only

3. Which of the following words could best be substituted for “homologous” (linel4) without substantially changing the author’s meaning?
(a) altered
(b) mammalian
(c) corresponding
(d) divergent

4. The author’s style can best be described as
(a) Humorous
(b) objective
(c) patronizing
(d) esoteric
Direction: In each of the following antonym questions, a word printed in capital letters precedes four lettered words or phrases. From these four lettered words or phrases, pick the one most nearly opposite in meaning to the capitalized word.

5. PRODIGAL
(a) Nomad
(b) Sycophant
(c) Gifted child
(d) Economical person

6. ARTIFICE
(a) Edifice
(b) Sincerity
(c) Pryndice
(d) Creativity

Directions- Each of the following analogy questions presents a related pair of words linked by a colon. Four lettered pairs of words follow the linked pair.
Choose the lettered pair of words whose relationship is most like the relationship expressed in the original linked pair.

7. TORRENT:DROPLET::
(a) Water : eddy
(b) Swamp : desert
(c) Downpous : puddle
(d) Avalanche : pebble

8. PHILATELY:STAMPS
(a) Calligraphy : pens
(b) Cartograpy : maps
(c) Chronology : events
(d) Numismatics : coins

Direction- Each of the following sentence completion questions contains one or two blanks. These blanks signify that a word or set of words has been left out. Below each sentence are four words or set of words. For each blank, pick the word or set of words that best reflect the sentence’s overall meaning.

9. The orator was so______ that the audience became______
(a) Soporific — drowsy
(b) inaudible— elated
(c) Convincing— moribund
(d) Dramatic— affable

10. The child was so spoiled by her indulgent parents that she pouted and became______ when she did not receive all of their attention.
(a) Discreet
(b) Suspicious
(c) Tranquil
(d) Sullen

GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

11. Michael Phelps, hailed as the greatest Olympian of all time, has won how many Olympic gold medals?
(a) 21
(b) 18
(c) 19
(d) 23

12. Sushil Kumar, who is the first Indian to win two individual Olympic medals, won a Silver Medal in the 2012 London Olympics in which of the Page I 3 following events?
(a) Archery
(b) 66 Kg Freestyle wrestling
(c) 60 Kg Freestyle wrestling
(d) 10 m Air Rifle event.

13. M.C. Mary. Kom clinched the Bronze Medal in Women’s Boxing in the 2012 London Olympics in which category?
(a) 55 Kg
(b) 51 Kg Fly
(c) 52 Kg
(d) 49 Kg Fly

14. Find the odd one out from the following:- Pascal, Newton, Cobol, Basic.
(a) Pascal
(b) Newton
(c) Cobol
(d) Basic.

15. A crossing on the road is named after which animal?
(a) Elephant
(b) Tiger
(c) Zebra
(d) Giraffe

16. The Indian Constitution was adopted by the Constituent Assembly on
(a) 25 August, 1949
(b) 26 November, 1949
(c) 26 January, 1950
(d) 15 August, 1947

17. The Preamble to our Constitution proclaims the “WE, the People of India have established
(a) a Sovereign Socialist Secular Democratic Republic
(b) a Sovereign Democratic Republic
(c) a Sovereign Secular Democratic Socialist Republic
(d) a Secular Socialist Democratic Sovereign Republic

18. Article 14 guarantees equality before law and equal protection of law to
(a) all persons living within the territory of India
(b) all Indian citizens living in India
(c) all persons domiciled in India
(d) all persons natural as well as artificial

19. Rights under Article 19 of the Constitution are available to
(a) Citizens and non-citizens
(b) natural persons as well as artificial persons
(c) Citizens only
(d) all persons who have juristic personality

20. Fundamental Duties were inserted in the Constitution by
(a) 42nd Amendment
(b) 44th Amendment
(c) 47th Amendment
(d) 49th Amendment

21. The President’s Rule under Article 356 of the Constitution remains valid in the State for the maximum period of
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) six months
(d) nine months

22. A person can be a member of Council of Ministers without being a member of Parliament for the maximum period of
(a) one year
(b) six months
(c) three months
(d) one month

23. Money Bill can be introduced in
(a) The House of the People
(b) The Council of States
(c) Either of the two Houses
(d) None of the above.

24. Which Article of the Constitution gives Governor power to grant pardon in certain cases?
(a) Article 151
(b) Article 155
(c) Article 161
(d) Article 165

25. Which Article lays down that the laws declared by the Supreme Court would be binding on all Courts in India
(a) Article 131
(b) Article 141
(c) Article 143
(d) Article 142

26. To establish Section 34 of IPC
(a) common intention be proved but not overt act be proved
(b) common intention and overt act both be proved
(c) common intention need not be proved but overt act be proved
(d) all the above.

27. The right of things done in private defence is contained in
(a) section 94 of IPC
(b) section 95 of IPC
(c) section 96 of IPC
(d) section 98 of IPC

28. For an assembly to be unlawful, must have a common object specified in
(a) section 141 of IPC
(b) section 140 of IPC
(c) section 142 of IPC
(d) section 144 of IPC

29. Culpable homicide has been defined
(a) under section 299 of IPC
(b) under section 300 of IPC
(c) under section302 of IPC
(d) under section 304 of IPC

30. Assault can be caused by
(a) gestures
(b) preparations
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

31. Robbery becomes dacoity. when committed conjointly by
(a) two persons
(b) more than two persons but less than five persons.
(c) five persons or more
(d) at least ten persons.

32. The facts which form part of the same transaction are relevant
(a) under section 5 of Evidence Act
(b) under section 6 of Evidence Act
(c) under section 7 of Evidence Act
(d) under section 8 of Evidence Act

33. Alibi is governed by
(a) section 6 of Evidence Act
(b) section 8 of Evidence Act
(c) section 12 of Evidence Act
(d) section 11 of Evidence Act

34. A confession made by a person while in police custody is inadmissible as per
(a) section 25 of Evidence Act
(b) section 26 of Evidence Act
(c) section 27 of Evidence Act
(d) section 30 of Evidence Act

35. Public documents are mentioned in
(a) section 72 of Evidence Act
(b) section 73 of Evidence Act
(c) section 74 of Evidence Act
(d) section 75 of Evidence Act.

36. Admissibility of electronic record has been prescribed under
(a) section 65 of Evidence Act
(b) section 65 A of Evidence Act
(c) section 65 B of Evidence Act
(d) section 66 of Evidence Act

37. For presumption of death under section 108 of Evidence Act, the person is shown to be not heard for a period of
(a) 3 years
(b) 7 years
(c) 12 years
(d) 30 years

38. Presumption as to dowry death is contained in
(a) section 111 A of Evidence Act
(b) section 113 A of Evidence Act
(c) section 113 B of Evidence Act
(d) section 113 of Evidence Act.

39. A Magistrate has the power under Cr. P.C. to direct the police to investigate into
(a) a non-cognizable offence
(b) a cognizable offence
(c) only a non-cognizable offence, as in the cognizable offence the police is under a duty to investigate.
(d) both (a) & (b)

40. It is mandatory to produce the person arrested before the Magistrate, within 24 hours of his arrest, under
(a) section 56 of Cr. PC
(b) section 57 of Cr. PC
(c) section 58 of Cr. PC
(d) section 59 of Cr. PC

41. Where the police submits a final report under section 173(2) of Cr. PC for dropping of proceedings to a Magistrate, the Magistrate
(a) may accept the same
(b) may reject the same and take cognizance
(c) may reject the same and order further investigation
(d) any of tire above.

42. A case can be committed to the Court of Sessions, by a Magistrate
(a) under section 209 of Cr. PC
(b) under section 323 of Cr. PC
(c) under section 324 of Cr. PC
(d) both (a) & (b) above.

43. Examination of witnesses in the absence of the accused can be done, under
(a) section 299 of Cr. PC
(b) section 321 of Cr. PC
(c) section 224 of Cr. PC
(d) section 301 of Cr. PC

44. Under section 313 of Cr PC, the statement of the accused
(a) has to be recorded on oath
(b) has to be recorded without oath
(c) either on oath or without oath depending on whether the case is a summons trial or a warrant trial
(d) either on oath or without oath as per the discretion of the Court.

45. Disposal of property at the conclusion of trial is governed by
(a) section 452 of Cr PC
(b) section 453 of Cr PC
(c) section 454 of Cr PC
(d) section 455 of Cr PC

46. Which of the following is not a decree
(a) dismissal in default
(b) rejection of a plaint
(c) both (a) & (b)
(d) neither (a) nor (b)

47. ‘A’ dies leaving behind a son ‘X’ & a married daughter Y. A suit filed by ‘A’, after his death, can be continued by
(a) ‘X’ alone as legal representative
(b) ‘Y’ alone a legal representative
(c) ‘X’, ‘Y’ and the husband of Y as legal representatives.
(d) ‘X’ and ‘Y’ both, as legal representatives.

48. Constructive res-judicata is contained in
(a) explanation III to section 11
(b) explanation IV to section 11
(c) explanation VI to section 11 M
(d) explanation VII to section 11

49. Under Order VII, Rule 11 of CPC
(a) part only of the plaint can be rejected
(b) whole of the plaint is to -be rejected.
(c) part of the plaint or whole of the plaint can be rejected
(d) it is the discretion of the Court to reject the plaint in part

50. A suit can be dismissed in default
(a) under Order IX, Rule 1 of the CPC
(b) under Order IX, Rule 3 of the CPC
(c) under Order IX, Rule 8 of the CPC
(d) both (b) & (c)

51. Adjournment can be granted
(a) under Order XVII, Rule 3 of the CPC
(b) under Order XVII, Rule 2 of the CPC
(c) under Order XVII, Rule 1 of the CPC
(d) None of the above

52. Appointment of receiver has been dealt with
(a) under Order XLIV
(b) under Order XLII
(c) under Order XL
(d) under Order VLV

53. Section 89 of CPC provides for
(a) settlement of dispute outside Court
(b) settlement of dispute through Court
(c) settlement of dispute through village panchayat
(d) all the above.

54. Supreme Court in which among the following cases observed that CPC Amendment Acts of 1999 and 2002 are constitutionally valid?
(A) Salem Advocate Bar Association, Tamil Nadu v. Union of India
(B) Delhi High Court Bar Association v. Union of India
(C) Allahabad High Court Bar Association v. Union of India
(D) Punjab & Haryana High Court Bar Association v. Union of India.

55. Novation of a contract means
(A) the renewal of original contract
(B) substitution of a new contract in place of original contract
(C) cancellation of contract
(D) alteration of contract

56. ‘X’ enters into a contract with Y for which Y is guilty of fraud. X can
(a) set aside the contract & recover damages
(b) set aside the contract but cannot recover damages
(c) recover damages but cannot set aside the contract
(d) recover damages for actual loss suffered.

57. Agency stands terminated
(a) by the death, insolvency or insanity of the principal
(b) by the death, insolvency or insanity of the agent
(c) by the death, insolvency or insanity of either the principal or the agent
(d) by the death, insolvency or insanity of the principal and the agent both.

58. Within the meaning of Section 4 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the provisions of sections 54, paragraphs 2 and 3, sections 59, 107 and 123 shall be read as supplemental to
(a) Indian Contract Act, 1872
(b) Indian Registration Act, 1908
(c) General Clauses Act, 1897
(d) Sale of Goods Act, 1930.

59. Under the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 the condition restraining alienation is provided in
(a) section 10
(b) section 9
(c) section 8
(d) section 7.

60. Rule of lis pendens is applicable to suits for specific performance of contracts to transfer immovable property. The statement is
(a) true
(b) false
(c) partly true
(d) none of the above.

61. The term ‘sale’ in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is defined in section
(a) 53
(b) 54
(c) 55
(d) 56

62. The time for presentation of document for registration has been provided in
(a) section 22
(b) section 23
(c) section 24
(d) section 25

63. The doctrine of ‘relation back’ in the Registration Act is contained in
(a) section 42
(b) section 47
(c) section 48
(d) section 50

64. Under the Registration Act, a registered document operates
(a) from the date of its registration
(b) from the date of its execution
(c) from the date as given for the operation of the document, in the document
(d) None of the above

65. Section 6 of the Limitation Act can be availed by
(a) plaintiff(s)
(b) defendant(s)
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) none of the above.

66. The period of limitation for a suit for possession of immovable property based on title is
(a) one year
(b) three years
(c) twelve years
(d) six months.

67. Period of limitation for setting aside abatement is
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 10 days
(d) 90 days.

68. Period of limitation for suits not specifically provided under the Schedule is
(a) 1 year
(b) 2 years
(c) 3 years
(d) 12 years

69. An application for setting aside an arbitral award must be made by the party after receiving the award within
(a) three months
(b) thirty days
(c) ninety days
(d) forty days.

70. The ‘Principle of Confidentiality’ in the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 is laid down in
(a) section 76
(b) section 73
(c) section 75
(d) section 74

71. An appeal under the Arbitration and Conciliation Act, 1996 shall lie from which of the following orders to the court authorised by law to hear appeals from original decrees of the court passing the order
(a) granting or refusing to grant any measure under section 9
(b) setting aside or refusing to set aside an arbitral award under section 34
(c) only (a) is correct
(d) both (a) and (b) are correct.

72. The concept of ‘trusts’ originated in
(a) France
(b) England
(c) Germany
(d) Rome

73. Rights and Liabilities of beneficiaries are provided under
(a) 51-65 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882 ;
(b) 53-67 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
(c) 55-69 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882
(d) 57-71 of the Indian Trusts Act, 1882

74. To mature as a ground of divorce, under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955, the desertion must continue for a minimum period of
(a) one year
(b) two years
(c) three years
(d) five years.

75. As regards the payment, the dower can be
(a) prompt
(b) deferred
(c) both (a) and (b)
(d) only (a) and not (b)

76. Power to ascertain net profits or market-value under the Court-fees Act, 1870 is provided in
(a) Section 8
(b) Section 9
(c) Section 14
(d) Section 15.

77. Computation of fees payable in certain suits under the Court-fees Act, 1870 is provided in
(a) Section 6
(b) Section 7
(c) Section 8
(d) Section 9

78. Workman is defined under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 in Section
(a) 2 (m)
(b) 2 (r)
(c) 2
(d) 2(s)

79. Labour Courts under the Industrial Disputes Act, 1947 are constituted under Section
(a) 5
(b) 7
(c) 8
(d) 9

80. The Collector shall make an award under Section 11 of the Land Acquisition Act, 1894 within what period from the date of the publication of the declaration?
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 3 years.

81. Under Land Acquisition Act, 1894, which provision provides for matters to be neglected in determining compensation?
(a) 23
(b) 24
(c) 26
(d) 29

82. The general principles on which the perpetual injunctions could be granted under the Specific Relief Act are contained in
(a) section 37
(b) section 38
(c) section 39
(d) section 40

83. Under Section 6 (2) (a) of the Specific Relief Act, 1963, no suit shall be brought after expiry of what period from the date of dispossession?
(a) 6 months
(b) 1 year
(c) 2 years
(d) 3 years.

84. Part III of the Specific Relief Act, 1963 deals with
(a) Specific Relief
(b) Declaratory Decrees
(c) Preventive Relief
(d) None of the above.

85. Which section of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988 provides for special provisions as to payment of compensation on structured formula basis?
(a) 161
(b) 163
(c) 163-A
(d) 170

86. Under section 168(2) of the Motor Vehicles Act, 1988, Claims Tribunal shall arrange to deliver copies of the award to the parties concerned within how many days from the date of the award?
(a) 15 days
(b) 30 days
(c) 45 days
(d) 60 days.

87. Savigny is an exponent of
(a) Analytical School of Jurisprudence
(b) Historical School of Jurisprudence
(c) Sociological School of Jurisprudence
(d) None of the above

88. “Philosophy of Law” is a book written by
(a) Stammler
(b) Kohler
(c) Sir Henry Maine
(d) John Austin.

89. “Nature of Judicial Process” was written by
(a) Immanuel Kant
(b) John Rawls
(c) Benjamin Cardozo
(d) Justice Oliver Wendell Holmes

90. Who defined State as “an association of human beings established for the attainment of certain ends by certain means”?
(a) Salmond
(b) Holland
(c) John Locke
(d) Garner.