Assam Judicial Service Grade-III 2012 Prelim
Assam Judicial Service Grade-III 2012 Prelim Question Paper
Total marks – 100 Duration – 3 hours
1. Section 129 of Evidence Act, 1872 states that no one shall be compelled to disclose to the Court any confidential communication which has taken place between_____
(A) Teacher and student
(B) Company and its client
(C) Legal professional advisor and his client
(D) Landlord and tenant
2. Under section 114 of Evidence Act, 1872, Court may presume the existence of any fact which it thinks likely to have happened, regard being had to the common course of
(A) Natural events
(B) Human conduct
(C) Public private business
(D) All the above
3. Section 5 of the Limitation Act, 1963 applies to
(A) Suit
(B) Appeal and application
(C) Execution application
(D) All the above
4. Dacoity is committed
(A) When two or more persons commit or attempt to commit robbery
(B) When five or more persons commit or attempt to commit robbery
(C) When robbery is committed with fire-arms or lethal weapons
(D) When seven or more persons are engaged in extortion with arms
5. Mensrea is
(A) Guilty mind
(B) Proved fact
(C) Intention of the law maker
(D) Measuring mind
6. Section 89 of the Code of Civil Procedure provides for settlement of disputes by referring the matter to
(A) Arbitration or conciliation
(B) Fast track Court
(C) Advocate General
(D) All the above
7. No suit against Government or Public Officer shall be instituted until expiration of________ period next after notice in writing has been delivered
(A) One month
(B) Two months
(C) 15 days
(D) 90 days
8. The doctrine of “double jeopardy” in Article 20(2) of the Constitution of India mean
(A) No one can be tried and punished more than once for the same offence
(B) One can be tried several times for the same offence
(C) Punishment once awarded cannot be enhanced in appeal or revision
(D) One can be tried more than once but punished only once.
9. In which of the following cases did the Supreme Court hold that “Basic features” of the Constitution of India cannot be amended by exercising the power of amendment under Article 368
(A) Sajjan Singh -Vs- State of Rajasthan
(B) Sankari Prasad -Vs- Union of India
(C) Keshavananda Bharati -Vs- State of Kerala
(D) Golaknath -Vs- State of Punjab
10. By the 42nd Amendment Act, 1976, the following words have been added to the preamble to the Constitution of India
(A) Unity and integrity
(B) Socialist and secular
(C) Socialist, secular and integrity
(D) Secular, unity and integrity
11. Respect for the National Flag and National Anthem is
(A) Fundamental right of every citizen
(B) Fundamental duty of every citizen
(C) Directive principles of State Policy
(D) None of above.
12. Issuance of writ of Mandamus relates to
(A) Non-performance of private duty
(B) Specific performance of contract
(C) Non-performance of public duty
(D) None of the above
13. Who amongst the following is exempted from the application of Indian Penal Code ?
(A) President of India
(B) Diplomats
(C) Alien enemy
(D) All the above
14. Presumption as to dowry death of a woman is provided in the Indian Evidence Act, 1872 under
(A) Section 113 A
(B) Section 113 B
(C) Section 113
(D) Section 114 A
15. Which is the following kinds of mortgage is not included in section 58 of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 ?
(A) Anomalous mortgage
(B) Usufructuary mortgage
(C) Simple English mortgage
(D) Mortgage by deposit of title deeds
16. Maxim “Res ipsa loquitor” means –
(A) The things speak for itself
(B) He who cannot act by himself cannot act ajt all
(C) He who does an act through another is deemed in law to do it himself
(D) None of above
17. When a writ is issued to an inferior Court or tribunal on the ground of exceeding jurisdiction or acting in violation of the rules of natural justice, it is called a writ of
(A) Certiorari
(B) Mandamus
(C) Quo warrants
(D) Habeous Corpus
18. Prohibition of employment of children below______ years is provided under Article 24 of the Constitution of India_____
(A) 14
(B) 16
(C) 18
(D) None of above
19. Supreme Commander of Indian Armed Forces is
(A) President of India
(B) Prime Minister of India
(C) Defence Minister
(D) Chief of Army Staff
20. Who is the present Attorney General of India
(A) Salman Khurshid
(B) Soli Sorabjee
(C) G.E. Vahanvati
(D) Gopal Subramanium
21. What is the retirement age of a Judge of the Supreme Court of India ?
(A) 62 years
(B) 58 years
(C) 70 years
(D) 65 years
22. Who is the present Chief Justice of Gauhatl High Court ?
(A) Justice Madan B. Lokur
(B) Justice J.Chelameswar
(C) Justice Adarsh Kumar Goel
(D) None of the above
23. Out of the following eminent personalities of Assam, who has been awarded Bharat Ratna ?
(A) Lokapriya Gopinath Bordoloi
(B) Hem Barua
(C) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmed
(D) Mamoni Raison Goswami
24. Section 82 of the Indian Penal Code provides that nothing is an offence which is done by a child under the age of
(A) Seven years
(B) Ten years
(C) Fourteen years
(D) None of above
25. An executing Court
(A) Can modify the terms of the decree
(B) Can vary the terms of the decree
(C) Can modify and vary the terms of the decree
(D) Can neither modify nor vary the terms of the decree
26. A garnishee is
(A) the Judgment debtor
(B) Judgment debtor’s debtor
(C) Judgment debtor’s creditor
(D) None of the above
27. Who composed the immortal song “0 Mor Aponar Desh”
(A) Bishnu Prasad Rabha
(B) Bhupen Hazarika
(C) Sahityarathi Lakshminath Bezbarua
(D) None of above
28. If a patient is taken inside an operation theatre for angioplasty, then his disease is
(A) Liver failure
(B) Lung cancer
(C) Congestion of the arteries due to fat and cholesterol
(D) Disclocation of thigh bone
29. Which of the following human blood group is called “Universal Donor”
(A) A group
(B) B group
(C) AB group
(D) 0 group
30. Complete the series : 2,4, 7,11, ______ 22.
(A) 14
(B) 15
(C) 16
(D) 17
31. Who amongst the following great personalities is known as Rupkonwar?
(A) Hemango Biswas
(B) Jyoti Prasad Agarwala
(C) Bishnu Prasad Rabha
(D) Bhupen Hazarika
32. The day after tomorrow is my birthday. Next week, the same day is the day of “Holi”. If yesterday was Sunday, what day would be the day after Holi ?
(A) Monday
(B) Thursday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Friday
33. The expression “richter scale” relates to
(A) Flood
(B) Volcano
(C) Earth quakes
(D) None of the above
34. When he______ his haircut, he took a bath
(A) Have had
(B) Had
(C) Will have
(D) Has
35. “Kirtan Ghosa” was composed by
(A) Madhav Kandali
(B) Srimanta Sankardev
(C) Haridev
(D) Dr. Maheswar Neog
36. I never miss a cricket match as I______ fond of cricket since childhood
(A) Has been
(B) Will be
(C) Am
(D) Was
37. I am tired ____ this work
(A) With
(B) Of
(C) By
(D) None of the above
38. I want to go______ my friend’s birthday party
(A) In
(B) At
(C) To
(D) Into
39. We must try to get home______ time for dinner
(A) At
(B) By
(C) Since
(D) In
40. The national song “Vande Mataram” was composed by
(A) Rabindra Nath Tagore
(B) Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(C) Iqbal
(D) None of the above
41. Tirupati is in_
(A) Andhra Pradesh
(B) Tamil Nadu
(C) Kerala
(D) Karnataka
42. Davis Cup is related to which sport.
(A) Hockey
(B) Tennis
(C) Football
(D) Cricket
43. The famous football player Zinedine Zidane played for which country?
(A) Italy
(B) Brazil
(C) France
(D) Germany
44. An agreement the meaning of which is not certain is
(A) Void
(B) Voidable
(C) Valid
(D) None of the above
45. All agreements are contract if.
(A) They are made by the free consent of parties competent to contract
(B) For a lawful consideration and with a lawful object
(C) Not expressly declared to be void
(D) All the above
46. A proposal when accepted, becomes
(A) An undertaking
(B) A promise
(C) An agreement
(D) None of the above
47. An agreement enforceable by law is a
(A) Contract
(B) An undertaking
(C) Promise
(D) None of the above
48. Immovable property does not include
(A) Building
(B) Land
(C) Standing timber
(D) None of the above
49. The doctrine of part performance of contract is provided in section_______ of the Transfer of Property Act, 1882.
(A) Section 53 A
(B) Section 53
(C) Section 52
(D) None of the above
50. A mortgage which is not a simple mortgage, a mortgage by conditional sale, an usufructuary mortgage, an English mortgage or a mortgage by deposit of title deeds is called
(a) A pledge
(b) An anomalous mortgage
(c) Agreement of mortgage
(d) None of above
51. I’d rattier have water_____ milk
(A) Instead of
(B) But
(C) Instead to
(D) Instead from
52. If floriculture is the cultivation of flowers, horticulture is the
(A) Practice of garden cultivation, particularly of fruits
(B) Rearing of fish
(C) Rearing of ducks
(D) None of the above
53. Ornithologist is one who is engaged in the
(A) Study of flowers
(B) Study of animals
(C) Scientific study of birds
(D) None of the above
54. Which one of the under mentioned right is guaranteed to the citizens of India as a freedom under Article 19 of the Constitution ?
(A) Right to vote
(B) Right to citizenship
(C) Right to contest election
(D) Right to assemble peacefully without arms.
55. The term ‘sale’ in the Transfer of Property Act, 1882 is defined in section
(A) 53
(B) 54
(C) 55
(D) 56
56. A second appeal under section 100 of the Code of Civil Procedure, 1908 lies to the High Court
(A) On a point of law
(B) On a mixed question of law and fact
(C) On disputed questions of fact
(D) On substantial question of law
57. Injunction is granted under which provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
(A) Section 115
(B) Order XXXIX Rule 1
(C) Section 96
(D) None of the above
58. A person claiming a right to appear before the Court, may lodge a caveat under which provision of the Civil Procedure Code, 1908
(A) Section 148
(B) Section 148 A
(C) Section 151
(D) None of the above
59. A plaint shall be rejected
(A) if it does not disclose a cause of action
(B) if it is filed in the wrong Court
(C) if proper parties are not added
(D) None of the above
60. An application can be filed for review of a judgment if
(A) If the judgment is erroneous
(B) If there is error apparent on the face of the record
(C) If the matter is important and requires rehearing
(D) None of the above.
61. At present, Gauhati High Court has jurisdiction over______ States.
(A) Seven
(B) One
(C) Eight
(D) Four
62. When a person has not been heard of for_____ years by those who would naturally have heard of him if he had been alive, the burden of proving that such a person is alive is shifted to the person who affirms it.
(A) Thirty
(B) Seven
(C) Ten
(D) Fourteen
63. Summons case means a case
(A) Relating to an offence and not being a warrant case
(B) Relating to an offence punishable with seven years
(C) Where summons are issued
(D) None of the above
64. Non-cognizable offence means
(A) A police officer has no authority to arrest without warrant
(B) A police officer has authority to arrest without warrant
(C) A police officer may arrest but inform the higher authority afterwords.
(D) None of the above
65. A person shall be eligible to be appointed as a Public Prosecutor if he has been in practice for not less than
(A) Seven years
(B) Three years
(C) Ten years
(D) None of the above
66. Anticipatory bail can be granted to a person apprehending arrest on accusation of having committed a non-bailable offence under
(A) Section 437 Cr. P.C.
(B) Section 438 Cr. P.C.
(C) Section 439 Cr. P.C.
(D) Section 436 Cr. P.C.
67. The attorney protested that testimony being offered was not_______ to the case and asked it to be struck off from the record.
(A) Favourable
(B) Harmful
(C) Germane
(D) None of above
68. Feroze Shah Kotla stadium is located at
(A) Kolkata
(B) Mumbai
(C) Hyderabad
(D) Delhi
69. With which of the sport Mary C. Kom is associated with
(A) Badminton
(B) Weightlifting
(C) Boxing
(D) Kabaddi
70. There are two classes of advocates in India
(A) Advocates and Senior Advocates
(B) Solicitors and Barristers
(C) Government Advocates and Private Advocates
(D) None of the above
71. To free a person from the charge or blame
(A) Inculpate
(B) Exculpate
(C) Circumvent
(D) Expunge
72. The maxim nemo debet esse iudex in causa propria sua means
(A) Affected party should be heard
(B) Freedom from bias
(C) Notice must be given
(D) None of the above
73. DTP stands for
(A) Desk Top Publishing
(B) Direct to Print
(C) DeskJet Type Printer
(D) None of the above
74. The noise comes from _________ from river
(A) Beyond
(B) Inside
(C) Depths of
(D) Cross
75. You can trust Raju to have everything
(A) Over control
(B) Through control
(C) For control
(D) Under control
76. A Court of people officially appointed to deal with special matters
(A) Trial Court
(B) Tribunal
(C) Appellate Authority
(D) Supreme Court
77. “Ultra Vires” is a term used to mean
(A) a document corrupted by virus
(B) beyond or in excess of powers
(C) an irregular act
(D) None of the above
78. The headquarter of North Eastern Council (NEC) is at
(A) Shillong
(B) Guwahati
(C) New Delhi
(D) Agartala
79. Who presides over the sessions of Rajya Sabha ?
(A) President
(B) Speaker
(C) Deputy Speaker
(D) Vice-President
80. A_____ of lions was moving menacingly in the jungle.
(A) Pride
(B) Group
(C) Herd
(D) Flock
81. A_____ of chital fish was seen near the river bank.
(A) School
(B) Bunch
(C) Cluster
(D) Handful
82. Choose the word from amongst the alternatives which has the closest meaning to the word Ecstatic
(A) Very happy
(B) Unruly
(C) Angry
(D) Disobedient
83. Choose the word from amongst the alternatives which has the closest meaning to the word Annulled
(A) Upheld
(B) Set aside
(C) Remand
(D) None of the above
84. Choose the word from amongst the alternatives which has the closest meaning to the word VoxPoouli
(A) Voice of people
(B) Voice of politicians
(C) Legal arguments
(D) None of the above
85. Article 227 of the Indian Constitution deals with
(A) High Court’s power of superintendence
(B) Power of Speaker
(C) Election of Vice President
(D) None of the above
86. Grammy award is given to people excelling in_
(A) Sports
(B) Literature
(C) Politics
(D) Music
87. Which of the following is not a computer language?
(A) Basic
(B) Tally
(C) Pascal
(D) Fortran
88. The full form of www is
(A) Win WinWin
(B) Word Wide Wisdom
(C) Web World Wide
(D) World Wide Web
89. The capacity of the modem is expressed in terms of.
(A) bits per second
(B) bits per minute
(C) kilobytes per second
(D) megabytes per second
90. The doctor is able to get a clear picture of the foetus in the womb of a mother with the following technology
(A) CT Scan
(B) X-Ray
(C) Ultra-sound
(D) Laser