1. The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976 inserted which of the following words to the preamble of the Constitution of India ?

(a)         Socialist and Secular

(b)         Socialist and Sovereign

(c)          Secular and Democratic

(d)         Secular and Republic

2. Under Article 3 of the Constitution of India, the proposal in a Bill affecting the area, boundaries or names of any of the States is referred by the President to the Legislature of that State for expressing its views thereon within a specified time period as allowed by the president. The Bill for the above stated purpose could be introduced in either House of Parliament only if :

(a)         It receives the approval of the Chief Minister of the State concerned

(b)         It receives the approval from the Head of the Delimitation Commission

(c)          It receives the recommendation of the Prime Minister

(d)         It receives the recommendation of the President

3. Which of the following Constitutional Amendment incorporated the provision under Part-III of the Constitution of India providing for special provisions for socially and educationally backward classes of citizens or for Scheduled Castes or the Scheduled Tribes in admission to educational institutions including private educational institutions, whether aided or unaided by the State, other than the minority educational institutions ?

(a)         The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Act, 2019

(b)         The Constitution (Eighty-First Amendment) Act, 2000

(c)          The Constitution (Eighty-Fifth Amendment) Act, 2001

(d)         The Constitution (Ninety-Third Amendment) Act, 2005

4. ‘Office of profit’ has been mentioned as a disqualification for the offices of President,

Vice President, Governor and for members of Parliament and of State Legislatures under various provisions of the Constitution of India. Apart from these provisions, under which Article, ‘Office of Profit’ has been mentioned as a disqualification ?

(a)         Article 18

(b)         Article 76

(c)          Article 165

(d)         Article 148

5. Which is the ground for the impeachment of the President mentioned under the provisions of the Constitution of India ?

(a)         High Treason

(b)         Corruption

(c)          Violation of the Constitution

(d)         Violation of the Code of Conduct

6. Article 38 of Part IV of the Constitution of India was amended vide

(a)         The Constitution (First Amendment) Act, 1951

(b)         The Constitution (Forty-Fourth Amendment) Act, 1978

(c)          The Constitution (Forty-Second Amendment) Act, 1976

(d)         The Constitution (Eighty-Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002

7. Vide the Constitution (Eighty Sixth Amendment) Act, 2002, which one of the following Fundamental Duties was added in part IVA of the Constitution of India ?

(a)         To value and preserve the rich heritage of our composite culture

(b)         To safeguard public property and to abjure violence

(c)          To provide opportunities for education to children between the age of six to fourteen years

(d)         To defend the country and render national service when called upon to do so

8. The President of India is elected by the members of the electoral college, which comprises of

(a)         Elected members of both Houses of Parliament and elected members of the State Legislative Assemblies

(b)         Elected members of House of People and of the Legislative Assemblies of all the States

(c)          All members of both Houses of Parliament and of the State Legislatures

(d)         All members of both Houses of Parliament and of the State Legislative Assemblies

9. “Our Constitution aims at bringing about a synthesis between ‘Fundamental Rights’ and the ‘Directive Principles of State Policy’ by giving to the former a pride of place and to the latter a place of permanence. Together, not individually, they form the core …they constitute its true conscience.”

The above statement has been taken from, which one of the following judgments ?

(a)         Minerva Mills v. Union of India, (1980) 2 SCC 591

(b)         Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala, (1973) 4 SCC 225

(c)          Excel Wear v. Union of India, (1978) 4 SCC 224

(d)         Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India (1978) 1 SCC 248

10. The total number of Ministers, including the Prime Minister, in the Council of Ministers shall not exceed certain percentage of the total number of members of the Lok Sabha. This percentage is

(a)         Five Percent

(b)         Ten Percent

(c)          Fifteen Percent

(d)         Twenty Percent

11. How many Anglo Indian members were nominated to the House of the People by the President under Article 331 of the Indian Constitution ?

(a)         One

(b)         Two

(c)          Three

(d)         Four

12. Information Technology (Intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021 have superseded the 2011 Rules. in the Rules, 2021, the requirement of publication of rules and regulations, privacy policy and user agreements which stipulate that no user shall post information which would contravene any law in force has been retained. Which of the following decisions of the Supreme Court of india has now been embodied in these Rules ?

(a)         Ranjit Udeshi v. State of Maharashtra, AIR 1965 SC 881

(b)         S. Rangarajan v. P. Jagjivan, (1989) 2 SCC 574

(c)          Shreya Singhal v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 1523

(d)         Aveek Sarkar v. State of West Bengal, (2014) 4 SCC 257

13. As per the information Technology (intermediary Guidelines and Digital Media Ethics Code) Rules, 2021, any intermediary who primarily or solely enables online interaction between two or more users and allows them to create, upload, share, disseminate, modify or access information using its services and has more than 50 lakh registered users is classified as a ‘significant social media intermediary’. Thus, all popular social networking platforms such as Whatsapp, Facebook, Instagram and Twitter would be required to observe these additional requirements, which are known as

(a)         Due Diligence Requirements

(b)         Due Reporting Requirements

(c)          Due Freedom Requirements

(d)         Due Safety Requirements

14. If any decision on the question as to the disqualification of members of Parliament under Article 102 of the Constitution of India is to be taken, the decision of the President on that question will be final, only if it is according to the opinion of

(a)         Prime Minister

(b)         Council of Ministers

(c)          Election Commission

(d)         Speaker of the Lok Sabha

15. Who calls the joint sitting of both the Houses of parliament, if after a Bill is passed by one House and is transmitted to the other House, the other House rejects or disagrees to it ?

(a)         Prime Minister

(b)         Speaker of the Lok Sabha

(c)          Vice president

(d)         President

16. As per Article 112 of the Constitution of India, annual Financial Statement includes

(a)         a statement of the estimated receipts and the expenditure of the Government of india for that year

(b)         a statement of the total receipts and the total expenditure of the Government of india for that year

(c)          a statement of the total cost of infrastructural expenditure of the Government of india for that year

(d)         a statement of the total cost of overall expenditure of the Government of india for that year

17. In M. C. Mehta Vs. Union of India, AIR1987 SC1086 (Shriram Foods & Fertilizers case) the principle that was constitutionally laid that

(a)         In the case of escape of toxic gas the enterprise is strictly and absolutely liable to compensate all those who are affected by the accident

(b)         In the case of escape of toxic gas the enterprise is only liable for the negligence

(c)          in the case of escape of toxic gas the enterprise is only liable for the failure to take reasonable care if any

(d)         in the case of escape of toxic gas the enterprise is not liable for the accident

18. Supreme Court declared National Judicial appointments Commission (NJAC) act, 2014 and the Constitution (Ninety Ninth amendment) act, 2014 as unconstitutional and void. What was the strength of the Bench of the Supreme Court of India in this decision ?

(a)         Three Judges

(b)         Five Judges

(c)          Seven Judges

(d)         Nine Judges

19. Common Cause v. union of india, (2018) 5 SCC 1 is quoted for

(a)         Hanging by rope

(b)         Delay in execution

(c)          Living wills and passive euthanasia

(d)         Custodial violence

20. Under article 368 of the Constitution of India, if the amendment seeks to make changes to articles 54, 55, 73, 162, 241 or any of the lists of the Seventh Schedule, apart from getting it passed from both the Houses of parliament, it is required to be ratified by the State Legislatures. What is the extent of such ratification ?

(a)         Not less than one-tenth of the State legislatures

(b)         Not less than one-third of the State Legislatures

(c)          Not less than one-fourth of the State Legislatures

(d)         Not less than one-half of the State Legislatures

21. Provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection was first incorporated in the Constitution of India vide

(a)         The Constitution (Forty Fourth amendment) Act, 1978

(b)         The Constitution (Forty Second amendment) Act, 1976

(c)          The Constitution (Fifty Second amendment) Act, 1985

(d)         The Constitution (Forty Ninth Amendment) Act, 1984

22. Para 3 of the provisions as to disqualification on the ground of defection i.e. of the Tenth Schedule was omitted vide the Constitution (Ninety First Amendment) Act, 2003, which related to

(a)         Disqualification on ground of defection to apply in case of split

(b)         Disqualification on ground of defection not to apply in case of split

(c)          Disqualification on ground of defection not to apply in case of merger

(d)         Disqualification on ground of defection to apply in case of merger

23. Power of President or Governor to promulgate an Ordinance under Articles 123 or 213 is a______ power conferred by the Constitution.

(a)         Constitutional

(b)         Supreme

(c)          Executive

(d)         Legislative

24. Each House of parliament is the sole judge of lawfulness of its own proceedings and the validity of any proceedings of parliament cannot be called in question on ground of any alleged irregularity of procedure. Under which provision of the Constitution of India has this been prescribed?

(a)         Article 74

(b)         Article 84

(c)          Article 122

(d)         Article 124

25. How many languages are presently listed in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India?

(a)         22

(b)         20

(c)          18

(d)         14