AILET LLM 2019 Question Paper
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AILET LLM 2019 Question Paper
Directions (Q. 1 – Q. 8): Read the following passage carefully and then answer the questions that follow.
Surajendu Kumar’s study on the effect of the modernization of a Government Printing Press on Press maintenance work and workers is a solid contribution to a debate that encompasses two lively issues in the history and sociology of technology: technological determinism and social constructivism.
Kumar makes the point that the characteristics of a technology have a decisive influence on job skills and work organization. Put more strongly, technology can be a primary determinant of social and managerial organization. Kumar believes this possibility has been obscured by the recent sociological fashion, exemplified by Cravman’s analysis, that emphasizes the way machinery reflects social choices. For Cravman, the shape of a technological system is subordinate to the manager’s desire to wrest control of the labor process from the workers. Technological change is construed as the outcome of negotiations among interested parties who seek to incorporate their own interests into the design and configuration of the machinery. This position represents the new mainstream called the social constructivism.
The constructivists gain acceptance by misrepresenting technological determinism: technological determinists are supposed to believe, for example, that machinery imposes appropriate forms of order on society. The alternative to constructivism, in other words, is to view technology as existing outside society, capable of directly influencing skills and work organization.
Kumar refutes the extremes of the constructivists by both theoretical and empirical arguments. Theoretically, he defines “technology” in terms of relationship between social and technical variables. Attempts to reduce the meaning of technology to cold, hard metal are bound to fail, for machinery is just scrap unless it is organized functionally and supported by appropriate systems of operation and maintenance. At the empirical level, Kumar shows how a change at the Printing Press from maintenance-intensive electromechanical devices to semi-electronic devices altered work tasks, skills, training opportunities, administration, and organization of workers. Some changes Kumar attributes to the particular way management and labor unions negotiated the introduction of the technology, whereas others are seen as arising from the capabilities and nature of the technology itself. Thus, Kumar helps answer the question : “When is social choice decisive and when are concrete characteristics of technology more important ?”
1. The primary purpose of the passage is to –
(a) challenge the position of advocates of technological determinism.
(b) consider a successful challenge to the constructivist view of technological change.
(c) suggest that the social causes of the technological change should be studied in real situation.
(d) advocate a more positive attitude towards technological change.
2. Which of the following statements about the modernization of the Printing Press is supported by the information provided in the passage?
(a) Some of the maintenance workers felt victimized by the new technology.
(b) The modernization was implemented without the consent of the employees directly affected by it.
(c) The new technology reduced the role of managers in labor negotiations.
(d) The modernization had an impact that went significantly beyond maintenance routines.
3. Which of the following most accurately describes Kumar’s opinion of Cravman’s position?
(a) He is sympathetic to its concern about the impact of modern technology on workers.
(b) He is concerned about its potential to impede the implementation of new technologies.
(c) He disapproves of its misplaced emphasis on the influence of managers.
(d) He admires the consideration it gives to the attitude of workers affected.
4. Which of the following statements from the passage suggests that the hypothetical sociological studies of change in industry most clearly exemplifies the social constructivists’ version of technological determinism?
(a) It is the available technology that determines worker’s skills, rather than workers’ skill influencing the application of technology.
(b) Some industrial technology eliminates jobs, but educated workers can create whole new skills areas by the adaptation of the technology.
(c) Most major technological advances in industry have been generated through research and development.
(d) All progress in industrial technology grows out of a continuing negotiation between technological possibility and human need.
5. According to the passage, Kumar believes if social constructivism had not gained widespread acceptance, then which of the following would be true?
(a) Modernization would have occurred at a slower rate.
(b) Businesses would be more likely to modernize without considering the social consequences of their actions.
(c) There would be greater understanding of the role played by technology in producing social change.
(d) Businesses would be less likely to understand the attitudes of employees affected by modernization.
6. According to the passage, constructivists employed which of the following to promote their argument?
(a) Construction of hypothetical situations that support their view.
(b) Empirical studies of business situations involving technological change.
(c) Description of the breadth of impact of technological change.
(d) Contrasts of their view with a misstatement of an opposing view.
7. The author of the passage uses the expression “are supposed to” in third para (highlighted) primarily in order to –
(a) define the generally accepted position of determinists regarding the implementation of technology
(b) engage in speculation about the motivation of determinists
(c) suggest that a contention made by constructivists regarding determinists is inaccurate
(d) lend support to a comment critical of the position of determinists
8. Which of the following statements about Kumar’s study of the Printing Press can be inferred from the information in the passage ?
(a) Kumar’s study suggests that the implementation of technology should be discussed in the context of conflict between labor and management.
(b) Kumar examined the impact of changes in the technology at the printing Press in terms of overall operations and organization.
(c) Kumar concluded that the implementation of new technology was equally beneficial to management and labor.
(d) Kumar’s reason for undertaking the study was to undermine Cravman’s analysis of the function of technology.
Directions (Q. 9 – Q. 11): In each of the following questions, a word is highlighted. Choose the word which is a synonym of the highlighted word.
9. The flaw of the genre is not in betraying the loquacious John Williams and the chatty Father Foucquet, but in failing to schedule an interview with the reticent Eunice Williams and the tongue-tied John Hu.
10. The above data suggest that common mechanisms underpin attachment organization in caregiver and infant, and the precocious emergence of mentalizing in the child.
11. But there remains the ineluctable sense that something is badly, mysteriously wrong—if nothing else, because neither Kawhi nor the Spurs organization seems to need, or want, to clear things up.
Directions (Q. 12 – Q. 13): Following are the questions based on the same words used as different parts of speech. Choose the correct matches.
1. Adverb A. He has seen the ups and downs of life.
2. Preposition B. The porter was killed by the down train.
3. Adjective C. The fire engine came crashing down the hill.
4. Noun D. Down went the “Royal George.”
(a) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
(b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A.4-B
(d) 1-B, 2-A, 3-C, 4-D
1. Interrogative Adverb A. Why did you do it ?
2. Relative Adverb B. I know the reason why he did it.
3. Interjection C. Why, it is surely Nanak !
4. Noun D. This is not the time to go into the why and the wherefore of it.
(a) 1-B, 2-D, 3-A, 4-C
(b) 1-D, 2-C, 3-B, 4-A
(c) 1-C, 2-D, 3-A, 4-B
(d) 1-A, 2-B, 3-C, 4-D
Directions (Q. 14 – Q. 23): Each of the following questions has a sentence, part or all of which is underlined. Four sentences are given in the options. Choose the sentence, which is correct grammatically. Make sure the sentence is clear, exact and free from redundancy, ambiguity and awkwardness.
14. Although she was considered among her contemporaries to be the better poet than her husband, later Kassia was overshadowed by his success.
(a) Although she was considered among her contemporaries to be the better poet than her husband, later Kassia was overshadowed by his success.
(b) Later overshadowed by the success of her husband, Kassia’s poetry had been considered among her contemporaries to be better than that of her husband.
(c) Although Kassia’s success was later overshadowed by that of her husband, among her contemporaries she was considered the better poet.
(d) Kassia’s poetry was considered among her contemporaries as better than her husband, but her success was later overshadowed by his.
15. A ruined structure found at Aizawl. India, was probably a church, as indicated in its eastward orientation and by its overall plan, as well as artifacts, such as glass-oil lamp fragments, found at the site.
(a) A ruined structure found at Aizawl, India, was probably a church, as indicated in its eastward orientation and by its overall plan, as well as
(b) A ruined structure found at Aizawl, India, once probably being a church, was indicated by its eastward orientation, overall plan, and
(c) A ruined structure found at Aizawl, India, was probably a church, as indicates its eastward orientation and overall plan, as well as the
(d) That a ruined structure found at Aizawl, India, was probably a church is indicated by its eastward orientation and overall plan, as well as by the
16. Octopus, with anywhere from five to eight arms, have a strong regenerative ability, and if one arm is lost it quickly replaces it. sometimes by the animal overcompensating and growing an extra one or two.
(a) one arm is lost it quickly replaces it, sometimes by the animal overcompensating and
(b) one arm is lost it is quickly replaced, with the animal sometimes overcompensating and
(c) they lose one arm they quickly replace it, sometimes by the animal overcompensating,
(d) they lose one arm it is quickly replaced, sometimes with the animal overcompensating,
17. The eves of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than any other animal vet tested, thus allowing it to hunt efficiently under the gloomy conditions at its feeding depths of between 500 and 800 meters.
(a) The eyes of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than any other animal yet tested, thus allowing it
(b) The eyes of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than does any other animal yet tested, allowing them
(c) The eyes of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than do those of any other animal yet tested, allowing it
(d) Because the eyes of the catfish adapt to darkness more quickly than do those of any other animal yet tested, it allows them
18. The first trenches that were cut into a 1000 acre site at Haji Pivada. Afghanistan, have yielded strong evidence for centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia that were arising simultaneously with but independently of the more celebrated city-states of Indus Valley Civilization, in what is now northern India.
(a) that were cut into a 1000-acre site at Haji Piyada, Afghanistan, yields strong evidence that centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia were arising simultaneously with but also
(b) having been cut into a 1000-acre site at Haji Piyada, Afghanistan, have yielded strong evidence that centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia were arising simultaneously but
(c) cut into a 1000-acre site at Haji Piyada, Afghanistan, yields strong evidence of centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia arising simultaneously but also
(d) cut into a 1000-acre site at Haji Piyada, Afghanistan, have yielded strong evidence that centrally administered complex societies in northern regions of Asia arose simultaneously with but
19. While it costs about the same to run atomic power plants as other types of power plants, it is the fixed costs that stem from building atomic power plants that makes it more expensive for them to generate electricity.
(a) While it costs about the same to run atomic power plants as other types of power plants, it is the fixed costs that stem from building atomic power plants that makes it more expensive for them to generate electricity.
(b) While the cost of running atomic power plants is about the same as for other types of power plants, the fixed costs that stem from building atomic power plants make the electricity they generate more expensive.
(c) Even though it costs about the same to run atomic power plants as for other types of power plants, it is the fixed costs that stem from building atomic power plants that makes the electricity they generate more expensive.
(d) It costs about the same to run atomic power plants as for other types of power plants, whereas the electricity they generate is more expensive, stemming from the fixed costs of building atomic power plants.
20. About 8 million acres in the British Isles have been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia with milky sap that gives mouth sores to cattle, displacing grasses and other cattle food and rendering grasslands worthless.
(a) Isles have been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia with milky sap that gives mouth sores to cattle, displacing grasses and other cattle food and rendering
(b) Isles have been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia, with milky sap, that gives mouth sores to cattle and displaces grasses and other cattle food, rendering
(c) Isles have been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia having milky sap that gives mouth sores to cattle and displacing grasses and other cattle food, rendering
(d) Isles, having been invaded by leafy spurge, a herbaceous plant from Russia that has milky sap giving mouth sores to cattle and displacing grasses and other cattle food, rendering
21. In Xonia, a lack of genetic variation in the Rodian ant has allowed the species to spread widely; due to their being so genetically similar to one another, the ants consider all their fellows to be a close relative and thus do not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colonv struggles that limits the spread of this species in its native Rodia.
(a) due to their being so genetically similar to one another, the ants consider all their fellows to be a close relative and thus do not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colony struggles that limits
(b) due to its being so genetically similar, the ant considers all its fellows to be a close relative and thus does not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colony struggles that limit
(c) because they are so genetically similar to one another, the ants consider all their fellows to be close relatives and thus do not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colony struggles that limit
(d) because of being so genetically similar to one another, the ants consider all their fellows to be a close relative and thus do not engage in the kind of fierce inter-colony struggles that limits
22. Rivaling the Roman Colosseum or even the ancient cities of the Harappa and Mohenjo-Daro as an achievement, the army of bronze warriors created to protect Juan Ming. Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime is more than 3.000 years old and took 900.000 artisans more than 40 years to complete.
(a) the army of bronze warriors created to protect Juan Ming, Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime is more than 3,000 years old and took 900,000 artisans more than 40 years to complete
(b) it took 900,000 artisans more than 40 years to create an army of bronze warriors more than 3,000 years ago that would protect Juan Ming, Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime
(c) more than 3,000 years ago, 900,000 artisans worked more than 40 years to create an army of bronze warriors to protect Juan Ming, Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime
(d) more than 40 years were needed to complete the army of bronze warriors that 900,000 artisans created 3,000 years ago to protect Juan Ming, Indonesia’s King, during his lifetime
23. Tides typically range from four to seven feet, but while some places show no tides at all, some others, such as the Bay of Bengal, have tides of at least twenty feet and more.
(a) the others, such as the Bay of Bengal, that have tides of more than twenty feet
(b) others, such as the Bay of Bengal, have tides of more than twenty feet
(c) those at the Bay of Bengal, which has tides of more than twenty feet
(d) the ones at the Bay of Bengal have tides of at least twenty feet and more
Directions (Q. 24 – Q. 29) : Following questions are based on the various Figures of Speech.
24. Which of the following statements is not an example of epigram ?
(a) So innocent arch, so cunningly simple.
(b) A man cannot be too careful in the choice of his enemies.
(c) Fools rush in where angels fear to tread.
(d) Art lies in concealing art.
25. Which of the following statements is an example of Litotes ?
(a) I am a citizen of no mean city.
(b) Is life worth living ? – It depends upon the liver.
(c) Why, man, if the river were dry, I am able to fill it with tears.
(d) He had his jest, and they had his estate.
26. Which of the following statement is an example of metaphor ?
(a) The righteous shall flourish as the palm tree.
(b) The Assyrian came down like a wolf on the fold.
(c) As the hart panteth after the water-brooks, so panteth my soul after Thee, 0 God.
(d) Revenge is a kind of wild justice.
27. Which of the following statements is an example of Metonymy ?
(a) Uneasy lies the head that wears the crown.
(b) He was playing to the gallery.
(c) He has many mouths to feed.
(d) England won the first test match against Australia.
28. Which of the following statements is an example of Oxymoron ?
(a) Not that I loved Caesar less, but that I loved Rome more.
(b) Speech is silvern, but silence is golden.
(c) She accepted it as the kind cruelty of the surgeon’s knife.
(d) Give every man thy ear, but few thy voice.
29. Which of the following statements is an example of Pun ?
(a) No doubt but ye are the people, and wisdom shall die with you.
(b) An ambassador is an honest man who lies aboard for the good of his country.
(c) I must be taught my duty, and by you!
(d) One truth is clear: whatever is, is right.
Direction (Q. 30 – Q. 35): Choose the best word to fill in the blanks
Roshan acknowledges that late payment of rent will cause Ram, his Landlord to (30) costs not contemplated by their Lease, the exact amount of which will be extremely difficult to (31) . These costs include, but are not (32) to, processing and accounting charges, and late charges which may be (33) on Landlord by the terms of any Superior Leases and Mortgages. Accordingly, if any installment of Monthly Rent or payment of additional rent is not received by Ram or Landlord’s assignee within fifteen days after the amount is (34) , Roshan shall pay to Ram a late charge equal to ten per cent of said amount. Acceptance of late charges by Ram shall not constitute a waiver of Roshan’s default with respect to said amount, nor prevent Ram from (35) any of the other rights and remedies granted hereunder or at law or inequity.
30. (a) derive (b) acquire
(c) collect (d) incur
31. (a) affirm (b) classify
(c) ascertain (d) locate
32. (a) contained (b) limited
(c) held (d) bound
33. (a) imposed (b) dictated
(c) obliged (d) required
34. (a) owing (b) scheduled
(c) due (d) unpaid
35. (a) practising (b) exercising
(c) commanding (d) undertaking
SECTION –B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
36. Why North-western India gets rainfall in winter season of January and February ?
(a) Due to western disturbance in Mediterranean Sea
(b) Due to eastern disturbance in the Mediterranean Sea
(c) Due to western disturbances in the Pacific Ocean
(d) Due to eastern disturbances in Pacific Ocean
37. Which of the following is/are true about Methanol based Economy ?
I. Future economy in which dimethyl ether replace fossil fuels as a means of energy storage.
II. It offers an alternative to the proposed hydrogen economy or ethanol economy.
III. China is the world’s largest producer of methanol.
IV. Menthol cannot be made by chemical recycling of carbon-dioxide.
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) III, IV
(d) I, II, III
38. Which airport is known as the ‘World’s Emptiest Airport’ ?
(a) Sigiriya Airport, Dambulla
(b) Ellinikon International Airport, Athens
(c) Mattala international Airport, Hambantota
(d) Berlin Tempelhof Airport, Germany
39. Who has prepared Global Tlisk Report 2019 ?
(a) United Nation
(b) World Economic Forum
(c) Greenpeace International
(d) None of these
40. India’s first Vertical-Lift Bridge will connect
(a) Rameswaram to mainland India
(b) Ahmedabad to Mumbai
(c) Daman and Diu to Gujarat
(d) Kavaratti to mainland India
41. What was the cause of extreme cold in USA in January and February 2019 ?
(a) Strengthening of Polar Vortex
(b) Weakening of Polar Vortex
(c) Extreme cold in Antarctica
(d) Depletion of Ozone layer
42. Which of the following are the Administrative/Revenue units of Jammu and Kashmir ?
(a) Jammu and Kashmir
(b) Jammu, Kashmir, Kargil
(c) Jammu, Kashmir, Leh
(d) Jammu, Kashmir, Ladakh
43. Which of the following is/are true about the Earth’s Magnetic Field ?
I. Earth Magnetic Field is shifting from Canada and moving towards Siberia.
II. The Magnetic Pole is moving fast because of turbulence in Earth’s liquid outer core.
III. The constant shift is a problem for compasses in smartphones and some consumer electronics.
IV. GPS will also be affected by fast moving of Magnetic Pole.
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) I, II, III
(c) I, II
(d) III, IV
44. Which of the following is/are true about concept of Most Favored Nation (MFN) ?
I. It establishes the sovereign equality of states with respect to trading policy.
II. There are two forms of MFN treatment: conditional and unconditional.
III. Such treatment has always applied primarily to the duties charged on imports.
IV. Custom unions and free trade areas are exceptions to MFN principle.
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, III, IV
(c) I, II, III, IV
(d) I, III, IV
45. Who has become highest wicket taker in Internationa! Cricket in 2018 ?
(a) Mohamed Shami
(b) Jaspreet Bumrah
(c) Billy Stanelcake
(d) Marcus Stoinis
46. Who is appointed as the New Chief Minister of Madhya Pradesh in 2018 ?
(a) Kamal Nath
(b) Shivraj Singh Chouhan
(d) Ashok Gehlot
47. Who is appointed as the New Chief Information Commission of India ?
(a) R. K. Mathur
(b) Vandana N. Sarna
(c) Sudhir Bhargava
(d) Suresh Chandra
48. Which of the following countries have quit the membership of UNESCO ?
(a) USA and China
(b) USA and Iran
(c) Israel and Iran
(d) Israel and USA
49. USA has ceased to be member of which of the following organizations ?
(d) All of the above
50. Which country has introduced GAFA tax on Global Internet Technology firms ?
51. The Yellow Vest protest of France is in respect of
(a) Green Tax on fuel
(b) Labour Policy
(d) Economic Policy
52. The Cabinet has approved merger of Vijaya Bank and Dena Bank with
(b) Indian Bank
(c) Bank of Baroda
(d) Indian Overseas Bank
53. Which of the following countries recently assumed the seat of non-permanent member of UN Security Council ?
(a) South Africa
54. Which of the following country’s spacecraft has landed for the first time on the far side of the Moon ?
55. India’s fastest train, Vande Bharat Express, will run from_____ to_____
(a) Delhi, Varanasi
(b) Delhi, Agra
(c) Delhi, Mumbai
(d) Mumbai, Bengaluru
56. The HQ of International Olympic Committee is located in
57. Which of the following statements is/are true ?
I. According to Indus Water Treaty, India got the full rights for utilization of waters of three eastern rivers Ravi, Beas and Satluj.
II. Shahpur Kandi dam is planned to be built across the river Satluj.
III. Implementation of the Shahpurkandi Dam project would minimize wastage of water to Pakistan.
(a) I, II, III
(b) I, II
(c) II, III
(d) I, III
58. Hayabusa 2 was in news recently, which of the following statement regarding it is correct ?
(a) It is Japan’s first Mars Mission, funded by NASA.
(b) Asteroid sample-return mission operated by the Japanese space Agency, JAXA.
(c) It is a military satellite by JAXA.
(d) It is Japan’s first mission to Jupiter.
59. World’s first privately funded mission to Moon is launched by
60. Which of the following railway stations in India is NOT to be redeveloped in a PPP mode ?
(c) Delhi Sarai Rohilla
(d) Jammu Tawi
61. ______was one of the first countries in the world to propose a ban on the sale of petrol and diesel cars by making the switch to electric-powered vehicles.
62. Which of the following statements is/are not true regarding Credit Rating Agencies (CRA) in India ?
I. The Securities and Exchange Board of India (CRA) Regulations, 1999 empower SEBI to regulate CRAs operating in India.
II. All the credit agencies need to be registered with SEBI in order to operate in India.
III. There are several Indian Credit Rating Agencies, viz. CRISIL, ICRA, CARE, India Ratings and Research, SMERA, Infomerics and Brickworks, Moody, Fitch.
IV. CRAs help strengthening of primary market by increasing borrower pool.
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) III, IV
(c) I, III
(d) II, IV
63. Which of the following companies has designed gates and reader for the National Common Mobility Card in India ?
(a) Bharat Electronics Limited
(b) Hindustan Electronic Limited
64. Why Ratnagiri, which will be Asia’s largest oil refinery, was in news recently ?
I. Protest over acquisition of land by government
II. Protest over harm on eco-sensitive zone
III. Protest against impact on mango and cashew crops
IV. Protest over acquisition of land under State Law and not under Central law on acquisition of land.
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, III, IV
(c) I, II, IV
(d) I, II, III, IV
65. World’s largest Solar Park is being inaugurated in
(a) Karnataka, India
(b) Tengger Desert, China
(c) Gobi Desert, China
(d) Rajasthan, India
66. Which of the following movies got the 91st Academy Award for Best Picture ?
(a) Black Panther
(b) Green Book
(c) Bohemian Rhapsody
67. Bharat Ratna 2019 will be conferred to
I. Bhupen Hazarika
II. Pranab Mukherjee
III. Nanaji Deshmukh
IV. Atal Bihari Bajpai
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) I, II
(c) I, II, III
(d) II, III
68. Sunderban Reserve Forest was accorded the status of ‘Wetland of International Importance’ under which of the following International Instruments ?
(a) Ramsar Convention
(b) Convention on Biological Diversity
(c) United Nations Framework Convention on Climate Change
(d) Kyoto Protocol
69. In March 2019, RBI has allowed White Level ATM Operators to buy wholesale cash, above a threshold of_____ pieces of any denomination, directly from the Reserve Bank and Currency Chests against full payment.
(a) 5 Lakh
(b) 3 lakh
(c) 2 lakh
(d) 1 lakh
70. In March 2019, which of the following countries government resigned after failure of flagship health and social care reform ?
SECTION –C: LEGAL APTITUDE
Directions (Q. 71 – Q. 73): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Legal Principles :
1. An attempt is an act committed in part execution of a criminal design or intent, mote than mere preparation, but failing short of actual commission.
2. Whoever, by deceiving any person, fraudulently or dishonestly induces the person so deceived to deliver any property to any person, or to consent that any person shall retain any property, or intentionally induces the person so deceived to do or omit to do anything which he would not do/omit if he were net so deceived, and which act or omission causes or is likely to cause damage or harm to that person in body, mind, reputation or property, is said to “cheat”.
3. Preparation is the second stage in the commission of a crime. It means to arrange the necessary measures for the commission of the intended criminal act.
4. Whoever causes death by doing an act with the intention of causing death, or with the intention of causing such bodily injury as is likely to cause death, or with the knowledge that his act is likely to cause death, commits the offence of murder.
5. Whoever causes the death of any person by doing any rash or negligent act shall be guilty of negligence.
71. In which of the following cases, X is guilty of attempting to commit the offence?
(a) X, in order to forge a document purporting to be executed by Y, send his servant to buy a stamp paper in the name of Y. As the servant reaches shop, he Is arrested.
(b) X shoots at Y whose back is towards him. Y is not hurt as he is beyond the range of the gun.
(c) X pours half a pint of subslance from a bottle marked ‘poison1 into the drink of Y. Y Is not aware of it. Later, it turns out that :he bottle did not contain any poison.
(d) X administers some noxious substance to Ria so that an abortion results. The woman was not pregnant.
72. Facts : Amar applied for the post of P. G. Teacher in a government school and submitted his application along with his degrees. He was called for the interview on 10 June 2018. But the school authorities on 10 May 2018 discovered that the copy of the degrees attached with Amar’s application are forged and so the interview was cancelled.
Is any offence committed by Amar?
(a) Amar is guilty of cheating.
(b) Amar is guilty of preparation to cheat.
(c) Amar is guilty of attempt to cheat.
(d) Amar is not guilty of any offence as he is not called for the interview.
73. Facts: X tries to pickpocket Z. Z has a loaded pistol in his pocket. X’s hand touches the pistol and triggers it, resulting in the death of Z.
Which of the following offence is committed by X ?
(a) X is guilty of causing Z’s murder.
(b) X is guilty of culpable homicide by negligence.
(c) X is guilty of causing grievous hurt.
(d) X is guilty of pickpocketing.
Directions (Q. 74 – Q. 76): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Legal Principles :
1. The Tort of Negligence is a legal wrong that is suffered by someone at the hands of another who fails to take proper care to avoid what a reasonable person would regard as a foreseeable risk.
2. The test of liability requires that the harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of the defendant’s conduct, a relationship of proximity must exist and it must be fair, just and reasonable to impose liability.
3. Volenti non-fit injuria is defence to action in negligence.
74. Facts : In a sad incident, 95 fans of a Football club died in a stampede in the Nehru Stadium. The court has decided that the accident was caused due to the negligence of the Police in permitting too many supporters to crowd in one part of the stadium. Now, a suit is filed by Harman and several other people against the Commissioner of State Police. Harman and the other claimants had relatives who were caught up in the Nehru Stadium disaster. The disaster was broadcast on live television, where several claimants alleged, they had witnessed friends and relatives die. Others were present in the stadium or had heard about the events in other ways. All claimed damages for the psychiatric harm they suffered as a result. Determine
whether, for the purposes of establishing liability in negligence, those who suffer purely psychiatric harm from witnessing an event at which they are not physically present are sufficiently proximate for a duty to be owed, and thus can be said to be reasonably within the contemplation of the tort feasor ?
(a) Police is liable for all of the consequences of their negligence because they could reasonable foresee the injury. The liability towards victims who are not physically present is also there in all circumstances.
(b) Police is not liable because the duty of care towards Harman and others will be breached if they were present at the event and the harm caused was being foreseeable. The liability towards victims who are not physically present is only in certain exceptional circumstances.
(c) Police is not liable because the incident was an accident and supporters were there by their own free will.
(d) Police is liable for only for the death of 95 fans burns and not for the psychiatric harm to relatives of deceased fans which happened due to their own delicate mental condition.
75. Facts: X purchased a disused cinema with the intention of turning it into a Multiplex. Six weeks after, X entered the building for the first time, it was set on fire by intruders and destroyed. As a result, the adjacent buildings were also affected and damaged. The cinema building was a target to vandals and children who often played there, but X had had no knowledge of previous attempts to start fire at the cinema buildings. The owners of the adjacent buildings brought an action for negligence against X on grounds that X failed to take reasonable care for the safety of the buildings by not keeping the cinema locked, making regular inspections and employing a caretaker. Decide whether the occupier of a property owe a duty of care to the adjoining occupiers in respect of acts of trespass on his property resulting in damage to the adjoining properties ?
(a) An occupier of a property owes a duty of care to the adjoining occupiers in respect of acts of trespass on his property resulting in damage to the adjoining properties under all circumstances.
(b) X was not aware of previous attempts of vandals to start fire and as such, the building did not present an obvious fire risk, so X was not under any duty to anticipate the possibility of fire and take measures to prevent the entry of vandals. So, no duty of care existed towards the adjoining properties in this case.
(c) Though X were not aware of previous attempts of vandals to start fire and as such and the building did not present an obvious fire risk but he failed to take reasonable care, so X is liable.
(d) X is not liable as the adjoining occupiers are also negligent by not being careful in safeguarding their properties against fire.
76. Facts : A team of scientists imported a virus for the purpose of research. They carried out research on their premises into foot and mouth disease in cattle, and they were apparently responsible for the escape of some virus. As a result, there was an outbreak of foot and mouth disease in the area, and the Minister of Agriculture ordered two markets to be closed. This caused the some of the traders, who were two firms of auctioneers, to suffer a loss of profits on a total of six market days, for which they sought to recover. Decide whether the scientists owed a duty of care towards the traders ?
(a) An ability to foresee indirect or economic loss to another person as the result of a defendant’s conduct automatically impose on the defendant a duty to take care to avoid that loss.
(b) The loss to the traders was pecuniary. They suffered no physical harm to themselves or to any of their property. An ability to foresee indirect or economic loss to another person as the result of a defendant’s conduct did not automatically impose on the defendant a duty to take care to avoid that loss.
(c) It is not proved that there was negligence on the part of the scientists which resulted in an escape of the virus so they are not liable.
(d) Though the scientists are negligent in handling the virus but they are not liable as the leakage of virus was by accident.
77. Legal Principles :
1. Private nuisance is a continuous, unlawful and indirect interference with the use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it.
2. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would be likely to injure his neighbour.
3. The foreseeability of the type of damage is a pre-requisite of liability in actions of nuisance.
Facts : Bharat Sugar Ltd. operated a sugar refinery on the bank of the river Ravi. They had a jetty from which raw sugar would be offloaded from barges and refined sugar would be taken. The sugar would be taken by larger vessels and then transferred to smaller barges to enable them to get through the shallow waters. As part of development Bharat Sugar Ltd. wished to construct a new jetty and dredge the water to accommodate the larger vessels. At the same time the State was constructing new ferry terminals. The design of the ferry terminals was such that that it caused siltation of the channels. After using the channels for a short while, Bharat Sugars’ larger vessels were no longer able to use them. Further dredging at the cost of ? 7,50,000 was required to make the channel and jetties usable by the vessels. Bharat Sugar Ltd. brought an action in nuisance to recover the cost of the extra dredging. Is the State liable ?
(a) The loss caused by the construction of new ferry terminals could not amount to a private nuisance at law since they did not possess any private rights which enabled them to insist on any particular depth of water.
(b) The loss caused by the construction of new ferry terminals amount to a private nuisance at law since they did possess right to use the water at a particular depth.
(c) No, it cannot constitute private nuisance but the claimants can claim damages for loss suffered by them.
(d) Yes, the State’s conduct was unreasonable in building the new terminals without thinking of all the consequences it will have on the rights of other parties.
78. Legal principle : The tort of negligent misstatement is defined as an inaccurate statement made honestly but carelessly usually in the form of advice given by a party with special skill/knowledge to a party that doesn’t possess this skill or knowledge.
Facts : X and Y Co. were advertising agents placing contracts on behalf of a client on credit terms. X and Y Co. would be personally liable should the client default. To protect themselves, the X and Y asked their bankers to obtain a credit reference from K and L, the client’s bankers. The reference (given both orally and then in writing) was given gratis and was favourable, but also contained an exclusion clause to the effect that the information was given ‘without responsibility on the part of this Bank or its officials’. X and Y relied upon this reference and subsequently suffered financial loss when the client went into liquidation. X and Y sued K and L Co. for negligence, claiming that the information was given negligently and was misleading. K and L argued there was no duty of care owed regarding the statements. Decide.
(a) The K and L’s disclaimer was not valid to protect them from liability and X and Y’s claim will not fail.
(b) The X and Y has a duty to obtain the necessary information themselves without relying upon the other party.
(c) It was reasonable for K and L to have known that the information that they had given would likely have been relied upon for entering into a contract of some sort. That would give rise to a special relationship of trust, in which K and L would have to take sufficient care in giving advice to avoid negligence liability. However, on the facts, the disclaimer is sufficient to discharge any duty created by K and L’s actions.
(d) It was reasonable for K and L to have known that the information that they had given would likely have been relied upon for entering into a contract of some sort. That would give rise to a special relationship of trust, in which K and L would have to take sufficient care in giving advice to avoid liability. Hence, liable for negligent misstatement.
Directions (Q. 79 – Q. 81): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Legal Principles :
1. A contract comes into being from the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made signifies his assent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement.
2. Consideration is something that moves from the promisee to the promisor, at the implied or express request of the latter, in return for his promise. The item that moves can be a right, interest, profit, loss, responsibility given or suffered, forbearance or a benefit which is of some value in the eyes of law.
3. Contractual rights and liabilities are exclusive to the parties to contract.
4. There are few exceptions to the doctrine of privity of contract like agency, trust, assignment and third-party beneficiary.
5. A quasi contract is a contract that is created by the court when no such official contract exists between the parties to prevent a party from being unjustly enriched, or from benefiting from the situation when he does not deserve to do so.
79. Facts : Goodtyre is a tyre manufacturer who agreed with their dealer to not sell the tyres below a recommended retail price (RRP). As part of the agreement, Goodtyre also required their dealers to gain the same agreement with their retailers, who in this instance was Bestmotors. The agreement held that if tyres were sold below the RRP, they would be required to pay ? 500 per tyre in damages to Goodtyre. This was agreed between the dealer and Bestmotors, which effectively made Goodtyre a third-party to that agreement. Sometime after this, Bestmotor sold the tyres below the agreed price and Goodtyre sued for damages and an injunction to prevent them from continuing this activity. Bestmotor is arguing that Goodtyre could not enforce the contract as it was not part of the contract between the dealer and the Bestmotor. The court decided that Goodtyre had no right to access damages. Which of the following are correct reasons?
I. Goodtyre could not claim for damages as only a party to a contract can claim damages under it.
II. Goodtyre had not given any consideration to Bestmotor and therefore there could be no binding contract between the parties.
III. Goodtyre was not listed as an agent within the contract and could therefore not be included as a valid third-party who had rights to claim on the contract.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) I and II
(d) I, II, ill
80. Facts : Nandini, by deed of gift, made over certain landed property to Reena, her daughter. By the terms of the deed, which was registered, it was stipulated that an annuity of Rs. 3,000 should be paid every year to the Subhashini, sister of Nandini. Reena executed in Subhashini’s favour an agreement promising to give effect to the stipulation. The annuity was, however, not paid and the Subhashini sued to recover it. Reena is defending herself by claiming that there is no valid contract with Subhashini. Which of the following can be ground/s for court’s decision?
I. A promise is enforceable if there is some consideration for it and it is quite immaterial whether it moves from the promise or any other person.
II. Only a person who is a party to a contract may demand the execution of that contract from other party. But if there is third party beneficiary to contract then it is enforced to the extent of his\her benefit.
III. The agreement is valid as both Reena and Subhashini agreed to on the same thing in the same sense.
IV. There is no privity of contract as Subhashini has furnished no consideration. Reena had promised to Subhashini but consideration was furnished by Nandini.
(a) I, II
(b) III, IV
(c) I only
(d) II only
81. Facts : Tanu’s brother, Ishan, tries to talk her into building a greenhouse in her large back-yard. She declines, but Ishan is convinced that, if she were surprised by a lovely greenhouse, she would love it. Knowing that Tanu makes good money, and could easily afford the greenhouse, Ishan contacts greenhouse builder Aditya, and arranges to have him erect the structure while his sister is at work one day.
Tanu is not happy by her brother’s initiative, but the deed is done. Ishan has directed Aditya to bill his sister for the greenhouse, and that turns out to be the biggest surprise for her. She declines to pay, and Ishan tells Aditya he cannot afford it. Aditya is now out, not only for payment for his many hours of hard work, but cash for the materials he used. He files a civil suit to claim against both Tanu and Ishan. Decide.
(a) Ishan is liable to pay as he has entered into contract with Aditya for his services.
(b) Tanu is not liable to pay as there is no contract between Aditya and Tanu.
(c) Tanu is liable to pay Aditya the costs involved in building the greenhouse as she has being unjustly enriched by this deal.
(d) Tanu is liable as Ishan is her brother and was acting on her behalf under her implied consent as she liked greenhouse.
82. Legal Principles :
1. Vicarious liability is when employers are held liable for the torts of their employees that are committed during the course of employment.
2. A servant is a person subject to the command of his master as to the manner in which he shall do his work. The question of whether a person is an employee depends upon the degree of control which the ’employer’ exercises over the worker.
Facts : Raja is a travel agent and possessed certain houses, which had an internal communication throughout, and which were used for the purposes of his business. Ramesh looked after the houses, and lived in them for this purpose, but he was also a clerk in the Raja’s pay at a set annual salary. He lived in the houses with his wife, a child, and a servant. The case concerned the payment of inhabited house duty. There was a statutory exemption for premises which were occupied by a ‘ servant’’ or person occupying the premises “for the protection thereof”. Raja was claiming the exemption from tax liability by claiming that Ramesh was the servant. Decide whether Ramesh was a servant or an independent contractor ?
(a) Ramesh is not a servant as the premises was held purely for trade purposes, and as Ramesh’s position was simply that of a caretaker.
(b) Ramesh earned a salary per annum in his separate role as.a clerk and merely enjoyed residence of the building with his family members. Thus, is an employee of the building owner for tax purposes.
(c) Ramesh is a servant as servant is a person subject to the command of his master as to the manner in which he shall do his work.
(d) Ramesh is a servant as Raja can control his work of caretaker of the building as well as his job of clerk.
83. Legal Principles :
1. Private nuisance is a continuous, unlawful and indirect interference with the use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or Iri connection with it.
2. The person who for his own purposes brings on his lands and collects and keeps there anything likely to do miscnief It it escapes, must keep it in at his peril, and, If he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape.
3. Generally, nuisances cannot be justified on the ground of necessity, pecuniary interest, convenience, or economic advantage to a defendant.
Facts : Dr. Hemant had for 18 years operated a clinic and hospital for the treatment of ENT. Dr. Karan operated a renal clinic in which patients receive haemo-dialysis on the floor above the Dr. Hemant’s clinic. The Karan was found liable for emitting from their clinic obnoxious fumes which escaped downwards into Hemant’s clinic. Hemant, his staff and patients were found to have suffered substantial damage ranging from skin diseases, red and swollen eyes, headaches, lethargy and breathing difficulties. Decide whether Karan is liable ?
(a) Karan is not liable as the work is a public welfare requires, a nuisance may be permitted for special purposes.
(b) Hemant cannot claim damages as he is voluntarily operating his clinic since a decade.
(c) Karan is not liable as he is running the clinic for 18 years and Hemant has not raised any issues earlier.
(d) Karan is liable for the damages caused to Hemant and his staff and patients.
Directions (Q. 84 – Q. 85) : The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion’ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
84. Assertion (A): The rule making power of the Supreme Court is not subject to any law made by the Parliament of India.
Reason (R): Only an impartial and independent judiciary can protect the rights of the individual without fear or favour.
85. Assertion (A): The entries in the three legislative lists are not always set out with scientific precision.
Reason (R) : The entries are not powers but only fields of legislation.
86. Which of the following amendments are sought to be introduced in the Representation of the People Act through Amendment Bill, 2018 ?
I. Proxy voting
II. Gender neutral provisions
III. Allocation of seats
IV. Delimitation of constituencies
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) III, IV
(c) I, II
(d) I, II, IV
87. Which of the following offences can be prosecuted under the newly enacted Fugitive Economic Offenders Act, 2018 ?
I. Economic offences involving Rs. 100 crore and more
II. Dishonouring of cheques
III. Money laundering
IV. Benami transactions
(a) III, IV
(b) I, II, III, IV
(c) II, IV
(d) I, III, IV
88. The Constitution (One Hundred and Third Amendment) Bill, 2019 seeks to amend______ to include_____
(a) Article 15 and 29; Other Backward Class
(b) Article 15 and 30; Other Backward Class
(c) Article 29 and 30; Economically weaker sections
(d) Article 15 and 16; Economically weaker sections
89. Which of the following are the salient features of the Aadhaar and other laws (Amendment) Ordinance 2019 ?
I. The maximum penalty proposed is Rs. one crore.
II. The cognizance of an offence under the law can be taken only on a complaint by UIDAI.
III. It changes definition of ‘aadhaar number’ to include ‘virtual ID’, in addition to the 12-digit number.
IV. The authority who can issue orders to disclose Aadhaar information is proposed to be changed as ‘High Court Judge’ from ‘District Judge.
(a) I, II
(b) II, III, IV
(c) I, III, IV
(d) III, IV
90. Recently, Ram Janmabhoomi and Babri Masjid land dispute is referred to mediation by a panel. Which of the following is the correct constitution of the panel?
(a) Retd. Justice Kalifullah, Sadhguru
(b) Retd. Justice Altmas Kabir, Sadhguru, Sadhna Ramachandran
(c) Retd. Justice Altmas Kabir, Sri Sri Ravi Shankar
(d) Retd. Justice Kalifullah, Sri Sri Ravi Shankar, Sriram Panchu
91. Who is heading the five-member committee set up to examine the issues related to framing of a proper, structured scheme for providing of insurance cover to the advocates and also suggest modalities for the implementation of such scheme ?
(a) Ravi Shankar Prasad
(b) Anand Patel
(c) Alok Srivastava
(d) Amrinder Khuller
92. What is the punishment under the Official Secrets Act, 1923 for the offence of spying in relation to any work of defense establishment or in relation to any secret official code ?
(a) Sentence of Death
(b) Imprisonment for 14 years
(c) Imprisonment for 10 years
(d) Imprisonment for life
93. Citizenship (Amendment) Bill 2019, seeks to grant citizenship on the basis of ______ to the people from______
(a) Religion; Bangladesh, Pakistan, Afghanistan
(b) Registration; Bangladesh, Pakistan
(c) Birth; Bangladesh
(d) Descent; Bangladesh, Afghanistan
94. Delhi High Court has allowed the transgenders to register complaints of sexual harassment under which provision of Indian Penal Code ?
(a) Section 265
(b) (b) Section 355 B
(c) (c) Section 365
(d) (d) Section 354 A
95. Who is the executive Chairperson of NALSA ?
(a) Justice A. K. Sikri
(b) Justice Madan B. Lokur
(c) Justice N. F. Nariman
(d) Justice D. Y. Chandrachud
96. Who is the First Chief Justice of Telangana High Court ?
(a) B.N. Srikrishna
(b) T.B.N. Radhakrishna
(c) K.R. Lakshmanan
(d) Hrishikesh Roy
97. A human wall was made up by women in Kerala as part of the State sponsored initiative to uphold gender equality from_____ to____
(a) Thrissur, Kollam
(b) Kasaragod, Thiruvananthapuram
(c) Kollam, Maradu
(d) Varkala, Thiruvananthapuram
98. Trade Union Act (Amendment) Bill 2019 will provide for which of the following benefits ?
I. Recognition of Trade Unions at Central and State level;
II. Ensure true representation of workers in the tripartite bodies;
III. Check on the arbitrary nomination of workers’ representatives by the Government; and
IV. Reduce litigations and industrial unrest.
(a) I, II, III, IV
(b) I, II, III
(c) II, III
(d) I, II
99. Under the Forest Rights Act, 2006, Other Traditional Forest Dwellers has to give proof that they have been living in the forest areas for_____years.
(a) 50 years
(b) 99 years
(c) 75 years
(d) 100 years
100. Article 35 A, Constitution of India is regarding
(a) Special status of Delhi
(b) Special Status of 99 years
(c) Empowers the Jammu and Kashmir State’s legislature to define “permanent resident” of the State
(d) Empowers State of Jammu and Kashmir to have its own separate laws
101. Which of the following statements, are true regarding the jurisdiction of the High Court ?
I. High Court can punish for its contempt.
II. High Court tender advice on the legal question referred to it by the Governor of the State.
III. High Court confirms the death sentences passed by lower judiciary.
IV. High Court can issue writs for enforcement of Fundamental rights.
(a) I, IV
(b) I, II, III
(c) I, II, IV
(d) I, III, IV
102. If the tax rate increases with the higher level of income, it is called
(a) Progressive Tax
(b) Proportional Tax
(c) Lumpsum Tax
(d) Regressive Tax
103. In February, 2019 a Public Interest Litigation has been lodged with the High Court of______, wherein a 11-year-old boy has sought ban on the PUBG game in all the schools in the State.
104. As per the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code (Amendment) Ordinance, 2018, which of the following is true ?
I. Home Buyers Recognized as Financial Creditors.
II. Extension of the application of the Code to personal guarantors of Corporate Debtors and Proprietorship firms
III. A person shall be eligible to submit a resolution plan, if such person is an undischarged insolvent.
IV. A resolution applicant cannot withdraw a resolution application, from the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT), after such process has been initiated.
(a) I and II
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) All of the above
105. The Supreme Court has said that FIR in respect heinous and serious offences cannot be quashed solely on the ground that the dispute was settled amicably between the parties. Which of the following were included in the list of “heinous and serious offences” ?
I. Offences under Prevention of Corruption Act
II. Some Offences under Arms Act
IV. Offences by public servants in their official capacity
(a) I, III
(b) II, III
(c) I, II, III
(d) I, II, III, IV
SECTION –D: REASONING
Direction (Q. 106 – Q. 112): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Shopper’s Stop offers exactly 10 types of perfumes – both domestic ana export varieties of Woods, Proposal, Rose, Neesh and Hydra. Shopper’s Stop is having a sale on some of these types of perfumes. The following conditions must apply:
i. Export Rose is on sale; domestic Proposal is not.
ii. If Doth types of Rose are on sale, then all Hydra is.
iii. If both types of Woods are on sale, then no Neesh is.
iv. If neither type of Woods is on sale, then domestic Rose is.
v. If either type of Neesh is on sale, then no Hydra is.
106. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the types of perfume that are on sale ?
(a) export Proposal, export Rose, domestic Neesh, export Neesh
(b) domestic Woods, export Rose, export Neesh, domestic Hydra
(c) domestic Woods, export Woods, export Proposal, export Rose, domestic Neesh
(d) export Woods, export Rose, domestic Hydra, export Hydra
107. If domestic Hydra is not on sale, then which one of the following must be true ?
(a) At least one type of Woods is not on sale.
(b) Domestic Neesh is not on sale.
(c) At least one type of Rose is not on sale.
(d) Domestic Neesh is on sale.
108. If both types of Woods are on sale, then which one of the following is the minimum number of types of domestic perfume that could be included in the sale ?
109. Which one of the following CANNOT be true ?
(a) Neither type of Woods and neither type of Proposal is on sale.
(b) Neither type of Woods and neither type of Hydra is on sale.
(c) Neither type of Proposal and neither type of Neesh is on sale.
(d) Neither type of Proposal and neither type of Hydra is on sale.
110. If neither type of Woods is on sale, then each of the following must be true EXCEPT
(a) Domestic Hydra is on sale.
(b) (b) Export Hydra is on sale.
(c) Domestic Neesh is not on sale,
(d) (d) Export Proposal is on sale.
111. If domestic Hydra is the only type of domestic perfume on sale, then which one of the following CANNOT be true ?
(a) Export Hydra is not on sale.
(b) (b) Export Neesh is not on sale.
(c) Export Woods is not on sale.
(d) (d) Export Proposal is not on sale.
112. If exactly four of the five types of export perfume are the only perfume on sale, then which one of the following could be true ?
(a) Export Neesh is not on sale.
(b) Neither type of Woods is on sale.
(c) Neither type of Neesh and neither type of Hydra is on sale.
(d) Export Proposal is not on sale.
Directions (Q. 113 – Q. 115) : In each question is given a statement followed by two courses of action. On the basis of the information given in the statement you have to suggest course of action.
(a) If only I follows
(b) If only II follows
(c) If both I and II follows
(d) If neither I nor II follows
Light Up company has rejected first lot of switches supplied by company ABC and has cancelled its huge order quoting use of inferior-quality material and poor craftmanship.
Courses of Action :
I. The company ABC needs to investigate functioning of its purchase, production and quality control departments.
II. The company ABC should inspect all the valves rejected by LightUp company.
The State Government is expecting bumper crop of wheat this year under its ‘Wheat Purchase Guarantee Scheme’.
Courses of Action :
I. Other farmers should start cultivation of wheat from the next year.
II. The price of wheat will increase in the open market.
The eligibility for appearing in Common Admission Test (CAT) for law in the State of X is now raised to 70% from earlier 60% in the Higher Secondary Examination.
Courses of Action :
I. Many candidates from the State of X may not appear for CAT this year and may appear from other states.
II. At pre-examination screening candidates obtaining less than 70% at the Higher Secondary Examination will have to be eliminated.
Directions (Q. 116 – Q. 117) : In each of the following questions, there are statements followed by conclusions. Find out the most appropriate response on the basis of the given statements.
116. Statement 1 – Some parrots are pigeons.
Statement 2 – All pigeons are crows.
Conclusions – I. Some parrots are crows.
II. All parrots are crows.
III. Some crows are parrots.
IV. All pigeons are parrots.
(a) I, III
(b) II, IV
(c) I, II, III
(d) I, II, III, IV
117. Statement 1 – All singers are dancers.
Statement 2 – Some dancers are actors.
Conclusions – I. Some actors are singers.
II. No actor is a singer.
III. All dancers are singers.
IV. All singers are actors.
(b) I, III
(c) either I or II
(d) either II or III
Directions (Q. 118 – Q. 120): In each of the following questions there is a related pair of words followed by four pairs of words. Select that pair which expresses the relationship that is most similar to that the capitalized pair.
118. Appeal: Refusal
(a) Obesity : Over-eating
(b) Try : Failure
(c) Struggle : Victory
(d) Examination : Passing
119. Zephyr: Gale
(a) Decay : Age
(b) Death : Sickness
(c) Trickle : Torrent
(d) Imprint: Emboss
120. Implicate : Incrimination
(a) Perjury : Fraud
(b) Involve : Crime
(c) Embezzlement: Charging
(d) Exonerate : Acquittal
Directions (Q. 121 – Q. 122): In each of the following questions, two Statements I and II are provided. These may have a cause and effect relationship or may have independent causes.
(a) if the Statement I is the cause and Statement II is its effect.
(b) if the Statement II is the cause and Statement I is its effect.
(c) if both the Statements are effects of independent causes.
(d) if both the Statements are effects of some common cause.
121. Statement I – The price of Bronze has gone up from ? 30,000 per kg to ? 60,000 per kg in almost a year’s time.
Statement II – Indian sculptors are receiving a lot of demand for bronze statues from English and Russian art collectors.
122. Statement I – Hallmark of gold jewelry has been made compulsory.
Statement II – Many persons do not prefer to buy hali marked jewelry.
Directions (Q. 123 – Q. 127): Given below is a passage followed by several inferences. You have to examine each inference separately in the context of the passage and decide upon its degree of truth or falsity. Mark your answer as
(a) if the inference is ‘definitely true’.
(b) if the inference is ‘probably true’.
(c) if the ‘data provided is inadequate’.
(d) if the inference is ‘probably false’.
In a proposal to Government of Xovia, Association of Xovian Industry (AXI) has suggested a^ series of short and long-term initiatives to help the states to cope up with the specter of drought in the country particularly in the North. It has come out with a paper on ‘How to tackle drought’ and recommended the cultivation of selected crops such as short duration paddy and irrigated dry crops in the focus areas besides subsidization of their seeds by 50%. Other short-term measures include a food-for-work program with the investment of relevant departments and rural bodies, the setting up of a task force headed by top government officials to monitor the drought relief program, the scrapping of schemes that facilitates subsidized power supply to irrigation pump set connection in water-scarce blocks to ensure power supply for drinking water schemes and ban on export of fodder. In fact, fodder should be mobilized from all sources and cattle sheds should be opened wherever needed. Employment affirmation program should be launched with central assistance. If possible, interest on loans taken by farmers should be waived besides converting the short¬term loans into long-term ones. It is necessary to work out a way to take over the loans taken from primitive money lenders or reschedule them. Coming to long-term steps, the AXI paper says new water resources be explored besides building water supply projects and creating rainwater storage facility. Dryland cultivation ought to be promoted apart from popularizing water-saving irrigation technologies.
123. To cope up with the specter of draught, we should devise both short-term and long-term policies.
124. During the draught, a bailout package should be given to the farmers.
125. Draughts are more devastating than floods.
126. We should work out a long-term and permanent strategy to tackle the frequent draught situations.
127. In case of draught situation, we should channelize all the meters to the field.
128. In a card party, six friends are playing a game of card. Lela is facing Leena who is sitting to the left of Shreya and to the right of Ritu. Shreya is sitting to the left of Arya. Megha is sitting to the left of Ritu. If Arya exchanges her seat with Megha and Ritu exchanges with Leena, who will be sitting to the left of Arya ?
129. In the Diwali dinner, four men and four women are invited. They are sitting around a square table facing the centre. One person is sitting at each corner and at the mid-point of each side of the table. Kiran is sitting diagonally opposite to Mona who is to the right side of Piya. Kishan who is to the left side of Piya is diagonally opposite to Chander who is to the left of Deepak. Ravi is not sitting to the right of Kiran but in front of Sheela. Who is sitting opposite to Deepak ?
130. Sana has organized birthday party for Roma. Roma took her car to reach the venue of the party. She drove 30 km towards North and then 40 km towards West. She then turned to South and covered 8 km. Further she turned to East and moved 26 km. Finally, she turned right and drove 10 km and then turned left to travel 19 km. How far and in which direction is she from the starting point?
(a) South-East of the starting point, 5 km
(b) North-East of the starting point, 13 km
(c) North-East of the starting point, 6 km
(d) South-East of the starting point, 13 km
131. The houses of Asma and Seema face each other on a road going North-South. Asma’s house is on the western side, she comes out of her house and turns left, travels for 5 km. She then turns right, travels 5 km and reaches the front of Geeta’s house. Seema does exactly the same and reaches in front of Shobha’s house. In this context, which of the following statement is correct ?
(a) The houses of Shobha and Geeta are less than 20 km apart
(b) The houses of Shobha and Geeta are 20 km apart
(c) Shobha and Geeta lives in the same street
(d) Geeta’s house faces South
132. A watch, which gains uniformly, is 3 minutes at 12 noon on Monday and is 5 minutes 36 seconds fast at 4 pm on the next Monday. At what time it was showing correct time ?
(a) 12 am on Tuesday
(b) 12 pm on Wednesday
(c) 12 am on Thursday
(d) 12 pm on Thursday
133. A clock is set at 10 am. The clock gains 10 minutes in 24 hours. What will be the right time when the clock indicates 3 pm on the following day ?
(a) 12.40 pm
(b) 1.40 pm
(c) 2.40 pm
(d) 2.48 pm
134. Pihu and Aayan are the children of Mrs. & Mr. Sharma. Riya and Shankar are the children of Mrs. & Mr. Kumar. Aayan and Riya are married to each other and have two daughter Mona and Shona. Shankar is married to Leena and they have two children Rohit and Ruchi. How is Pihu related to Shona ?
135. In a family, there are seven persons, comprising two married couples. F1 is the son of F2 and the grandson of F3. F2 is a widower. F2 and F4 are brothers and F5 is the daughter-in-law of F6, who is the mother of F4 and the grandmother of F7. How is F7 related to F2 ?
(b) (b) nephew or niece
(c) (c) cousin
(d) (d) son-in-law
Directions (Q. 136 – Q. 140): Read the following short passages and choose the best answers to the questions that follow each passage.
136. According to the last opinion poll in Bhadristan, most voters believe that the three problems government needs to address, in order of importance, are crimes; unemployment and capitalistic economy. Yet in election, candidates from political parties perceived as strongly against capitalism were defeated, while those elected were all from parties with a history of opposing legislation designed to curb anti-competitive practices. These results should not be taken to indicate that the polls was inaccurate, however, since………..
Which one of the following most logically completes the passage ?
(a) every candidate who was defeated had a strong anti-capitalism record.
(b) many of the people who voted in the election refused to participate in the poll.
(c) all the candidates who were elected were perceived as being stronger against both crime and unemployment than the candidates who were defeated.
(d) there were no issues other than crime, unemployment and capitalism on which the candidates had significant difference of opinion.
137. Natural Gas Production Units in Industan have recently been acquired in substantial, numbers by investors from abroad. Industanian politicians are proposing legislative action to stop such investment, justifying the proposal by arguing that foreign investors, opportunistically exploiting a recent fall in the value of the Industanian currency, were able to buy Industanian assets at less than their true value.
Which one of the following, if true, casts the most serious doubt the accuracy of the Industanian politicians’ justification for the proposed legislation ?
(a) In Bangania, a country broadly similar to Industan, the share of Natural Gas Production Units that is foreign-controlled is 60 percent higher than it is in Industan.
(b) The true value of investment is determined by the value of the profits from it, and the low value of the Industanian currency has depressed the value of any profits earned by foreign investors from Industanian assets.
(c) The Industanian government originally welcomed the fall in the value of Industanian currency because the fall made Industanian exports more competitive in international markets.
(d) Foreign investors who acquired Industanian production units generally did so with no intention of keeping and running those units over the long term.
138. Proposed new safety rules for Seashore City Port would lengthen considerably the minimum time between departures from the port. In consequence, the port would be able to accommodate 10 percent fewer vessels than currently use the port daily. The city’s operating budget depends heavily on taxes generated by tourist spending, and most of the tourists come by ships. Therefore, the proposed new safety rules, if adopted, will reduce the revenue available for the operating budget.
The argument depends on assuming which of the following ?
(a) The response to adoption of the new safety rules would not include a large increase in the number of passengers per ship.
(b) There are no periods of the day during which the interval between ships departing from the port is significantly greater than the currently allowed minimum.
(c) If proposed safety rules are adopted, the reduction in tourist numbers will not result mainly from a reduction in the number of tourists who spend relatively little in Seashore city.
(d) Increasing the minimum time between departures is the only way to achieve necessary safety improvements without a large expenditure by the city government on port enhancements.
139. The average amount of overtime per month worked by an employee in the design division of the Diva Corporation is 18 hours. Most employees of Diva Corporation work in the design division. Furthermore, the average amount of overtime per month per employee in the company generally does not fluctuate much from month to month. Therefore, each month, most employees of the Diva Corp. almost certainly work at least some overtime.
The argument is most vulnerable to criticism on which of the following grounds ?
(a) It confuses a claim from which the argument’s conclusion about the Diva Corp. would necessarily follow with a claim that would follow from the argument’s conclusion only with a high degree of probability.
(b) It overlooks the possibility that even if most employees of the corporation work some overtime each month, any one corporate employee may, in some months, work no overtime.
(c) It takes for granted that the design division is a typical division of the corporation with regard to the average amount of overtime its employees work each month.
(d) It overlooks the possibility that even if, on average, a certain amount of overtime is worked by the members of some group, many members of that group may work no overtime at all.
140. Supporters of the recently introduced tax on sales of new luxury cars had argued that a tax of this type would be an equitable way to increase government revenues because the admittedly heavy tax burden would fall only on wealthy people and neither they nor anyone else would suffer any economic hardships. In fact, however, 30 percent of the workers employed by manufacturers of luxury cars have lost their jobs as a direct result of this tax.
The information given, if true, most strongly supports which of the following statements ?
(a) Taxes can be equitable only if their burden is evenly distributed over the entire population.
(b) Because many people never buy luxury items, imposing a tax on luxury items is the kind of legislative action that does not cost incumbent legislators much popular support.
(c) The new tax would produce a net gain in tax revenue for the government only if the yearly total revenue that it generates exceeds the total of the yearly tax- revenue decrease resulting from the workers’ loss of jobs.
(d) The market for luxury cars would have collapsed even if new tax on luxury cars had been lower.
SECTION – E: MATHEMATICS
141. If n =1 + x, where x is the product of four consecutive positive integers, then which of the following is true?
I. n is an even number
II. n is prime number
III. n is a perfect square
IV. n is odd number
(a) I, III
(b) I, II
(c) I, IV
(d) III, IV
142. Three wheels can complete 40, 24 and 16 revolutions per minutes respectively. There is a green spot on each wheel that touches the ground at time zero. After how much time, all these spots will simultaneously touch the ground again ?
(a) 7 and 1/2 seconds
(b) 7 seconds
(c) 7 and 1/2 minutes
(d) 7 minutes
143. In a group of students in a class, 20 are in the debating club, 24 in the drama club and 27 in the recitation club. If 12 like drama and debate, 10 like recitation and debate, 14 like drama and recitation and 7 like all the three activities, then the total number of students in the class is
144. Class XII of XYZ International School has three sections – K, L and M. In Mathematics examination, the average marks obtained by these sections are 72, 60 and 50 respectively. The average marks of sections K and L taken together is 69. If the ratio of the number of students in sections L and M is 6 : 7, what is the average score of all the three sections put together ?
145. Sheena’s test had 75 questions i.e., 10 on English, 30 on Reasoning and 35 on Legal Aptitude. Although she answered 70% of the English, 40% of the Reasoning and 60% of the Legal Aptitude questions correctly, she did not pass the test because she got less than 60% of the questions right. How many questions she would have needed to answer correctly to earn a 60% passing grade ?
146. Amrit wants to sell cars at 25% above the cost price. Due to a slump in the market, his cost reduces by 5%. He thus offers a discount of 8% due to which the sales go up by 25%. Compute the change in Amrit’s profit.
147. A water tank has eight pipes fitted into it. Pipes are of two types: Green Pipe and Red Pipe. Green pipes are used to fill the tank and the Red pipes are used to empty the tank. Every Green pipe can fill the tank in 12 hours and every Red pipe can empty it in 36 hours. On opening all the pipes an empty tank is filled in 3 hours. The number of Red pipe is
148. Anju is waiting on the railway station for the arrival of her train. Two trains running in opposite directions cross Anju on the platform in 27 seconds and 17 seconds respectively and they cross each other in 23 seconds. The ratio of their speed is
(a) 2 : 3
(b) 1 : 2
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 2 : 1
149. Neeraj is going to Agra on his bike from Delhi. He overtakes a bus travelling from Delhi to Agra at 4.30 pm. Neeraj reaches Agra at 6 pm. After stopping there for an hour, he starts back towards Delhi and meets the same bus at 7.30 pm which was moving towards Agra at that time. If both the bus and the bike were travelling with uniform speeds on the same route, at what time would the bus reach Agra?
(a) 9.45 pm
(b) 9.30 pm
(c) 9.15 pm
(d) 9 pm
150. Sonam has a rectangular garden. If the length of the garden is reduced by 5 m and breadth is increased by 3 m, then the area of the garden gets reduced by 9 m2. However, if we increase the length by 3 m and breadth by 2 m, the area is increased by 67m2. What is the length of the garden?
(a) 16 m
(b) 17 m
(c) 16.5 m
(d) 17.5 m
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