DU LLB 2013 Question Paper

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DU LL.B. 2013 Question Paper

Time: 2 hours Total Marks: 700
Each correct answer will get 4 marks. Each incorrect answer will incur a penalty of 1 mark.

1. Which of the following countries was hit by a massive earthquake, measuring 7.6 magnitude on the Richter scale, on 31st August 2012
(a) Malaysia                            
(b) Indonesia
(c) Thailand                     
(d) Philippines

2. Which State is famous for its bandhni, tie and dye technique?
(a) Kerala                               
(b) Haryana
(c) Gujarat                       
(d) Andhra Pradesh

3. On 16th May 2012 India declared to set up a $ 2 billion swap facility for member nations.
(a) SAARC                             
(b) Eurozone
(c) BRICS                                

4. Pranab Kumar Mukherjee, 76 was declared elected as President of India on 22nd July 2012.
(d)13 th

5. As urban per United Nations Report, which 2 countries will lead global population growth between 2010 and 2050.
(a) Nigeria and USA        
(b) India and China
(c) Ukraine and Brazil     
(d) Paki stan and Bangladesh

What is an anagram?
(a) The result of rearranging the letters of a word or phrase to produce a new word or phrase
(b) A geometrical shape with ‘n’ number of sides
(c) A telegraph transmitted via analogous mode
(d) A technique for constructing holograms

Metals that can be easily beaten into sheets are known as:
(a) Beatable                            
(b) Ductile
(c) Polymers                    
(d) Malleable

8. With which country does India share the longest border?
(a) Bangladesh                 
(b) China
(c) Nepal                         
(d) Pakistan

In which police station was the FIR relating to the assassination of Mahatma Gandhi registered?
(a) Parliament Street Police Station
(b) Tuglaq Road Police Station
(c) Daryaganj Police Station
(d) None of the above

10. Who is the author of the book “A Judge’s Miscellany”?
(a) justice H.R. Khanna               
(b) justice Dalveer Bhandari
(c) Lord M.R. Dennings              
(d) Justice M. Hidayatullah

Where is the painting, Mona Lisa displayed?
(a) Louvre, Paris                          
(b) National Gallery of London
(c) Luexembourg, Paris               
(d) Orsay, Paris

Munchausen Syndrome refers to:
(a) A mental disorder in which the affected person fakes or exaggerates illness to gain attention and treatment.
(b) A condition in which the affected person is excessively worried or preoccupied about having illness.
(c) A disorder involving a fear of being negatively evaluated by others or being embanassed because of impulsive acts.
(d) An eating disorder involving a compulsion to eat or avoid eating.

13. Which modern Indian historian has described the events of 1857 as “neither first nor National nor War of Independence”?
(a) V.D. Savarkar             
(b) Dadabhai Naoroji
(c) R.C. Majumdar           
(d) S.N. Sen

Which Organization has won 2012 Noble Peace Prize?
(a) European Union                     
(b) UNO
(c) Red Cross                              
(d) IMF

15. Who among the following is the present Chief Information Commissioner under Right to Information Act, 2005.
(a) Wajahat Habibullah               
(b) Satyanand Mishra
(c) M.L. Sharma                           
(d) Annapurna Dixit

First woman Prime Minister in the world was of:
(a) Sri Lanka                                       
(b) Bhutan
(c) India                                       
(d) Nepal

17. Sunita Williams spent  days in space
(a) 190                                                
(b) 192
(c) 195                                         
(d) 198

Who among the following players won Australian Open Men’s Single Title, 2013?
(a) Bob Bryan                              
(b) Novak Djokovic
(c) GiselaDulko                           
(d) Daniel Nestor

Company showing apparent concern on environment by fake methods and shortcuts to appear as environment friendly organizations is called
(a) Green lighting                               
(b) Moon lighting
(c) Green washing                       
(d) Rainbow warrior

According to 2011 census, which is the second most populows state in India?
(a) Bihar                                             
(b) West Bengal
(c) Maharashtra                           
(d) Andhra Pradesh

21. Who among the following proposed the concept of Earth Hour?
(a) Jim O’Neil                              
(b) Theodore Levitt
(c) Baruch Blumbers                    
(d) Andy Ridley

22. Edward Roberts is associated with:
(a) HIV                                                           
(b) IVF
(c) Global Warming                    
(d) Nano Technology

23. Which of the following banks has celebrated platinum Jubilee in July 2012?
(a) SBI                                                
(b) PNB
(c) IOB                                         
(d) BOl

World Heritage committee declared which natural site in India as a World Heritage site in July 2012?
(a) The Nilgiris                            
(b) The Aravali Ranges
(c) Western ghats                                   
(d) Eastern ghats

25. Which country is provided huge grant to UNICEF to ensure India remains Polio free?
(a) UK                                                
(b) Russia
(c) USA                                        
(d) Japan

26. Shivnarine Chanderpaul secured place in the 10000 runs club in cricket in April 2012. He belongs to
(a) West Indies                            
(b) Sri Lanka
(c) India                                       
(d) Bangladesh

As per agreement on 10 July 2012, the World Bank will extend additional credit of $ 100 million to which Indian state, towards implementation of “Rural Livelihood” project namely “Jeevika”.
(a) Andhra Pradesh                     
(b) Bihar
(c) Rajasthan                                
(d) Maharashtra

28. Finacle is a banking solutions software which was awarded, “Core Banking Technology”, provider of the year award in July 2012. Finacle is from which software company?
(a) Wipro                        
(b) TCS
(c) Infosys                        
(d) Cognizant

With Parliament voting favourably in July 2012, Russia will be joining which world organization soon?
(a) WTO                         
(b) IBRD
(c) IMF                             

The Principal Bench of the Central Administrative Tribunal is at:
(a) New Delhi                 
(b) Kolkata
(c) Mumbai                      
(d) Chennai

Directions: (Questions 31-40) Read the passage given below and answer questions.

Working overseas is always a challenge for any professional and if you are an Indian, always strive to give your best as Indians have always been considered intelligent, hardworking, talented and spiritual. Indians have always excelled in a competitive working environment and working overseas was something many Indians desired but few achieved till the information technology boom opened several white-collar job opportunities for them in global markets. However, securing employment abroad may be an achievement but retaining it, is quite a challenge as a professional required constant demonstration of professionalism and exacting standards of competence. Then, there is the challenge of working in an alien environment coupled with numerous other variables like culture, people, work ethics, local regulations, etc. that one is expected to cope up with to be successful on the job. Change, thus, becomes inevitable as one moves into a new work environment and the best way to tackle change is to be prepared for it, and adapt to it rapidly. Let us dwell on some key factors that could be useful when adapting to a foreign environment.

Each country is a mix of cultural and social influences that make it unique. Religious belief, way of speaking and behaviour, customs and traditions would all come across as very different. Also, home sickness and loneliness, all aspects of life and livelihood appear confusing, alien and difficult to comprehend. Privacy is highly valued in most countries which tends to translate into loneliness for most expatriates. One should experience the new cultlure and try different forms of entertainment and make friends among people coming from different cultural backgrounds. When you start work it is a good idea to be observant. Absorb as much as you can about systems in the organization and adjust accordingly.

Must you speak the language of the country you are in? Yes, you should be at least conversational. Co-workers want to speak their own language and will not be entirely comfortable if they cannot understand you. Even within the same language English, pronunciation can be a problem.

Westerners are particular about time so always make sure that you stick to time for meetings, attending offices and even social gatherings. Superiors at work and seniors are addressed by their first name. ‘Sir’ and ‘Madam’ are not much in vogue. Mix with a wide variety of people. Respect others’ cultural background and keep clear ofracist orsexist remarks and beliefs. Adapt to the local culture and traditions and be aware of the local favourites they are good social conversation breakers.

Layoffs may be a stigma in India since it is relatively unheard of in white-collar jobs but the term ‘job security’ does not exist in developed world. Accept this as a part of the work hazard and do not let it affect your performance. Keep updating skills and knowledge constantly so that current skills are readily accepted in the job market, if you need to move on. Cost of medical services can prove to the prohibitive. Opt for health insurance cover at all time. If you travel a lot, consider travel and household insurance too. It is useful to be registered with the nearest Indian mission so that you can be easily reached in case of an eventuality.

31. An appropriate title for the passage is:
(a) “Higher studies in foreign countries”
(b) “The problems of getting a job abroad”
(c) “Why Indian should not go abroad”
(d) “How Indians can be successful in a foreign country”

While taking up a job in a foreign country, one should:
(a) Be ready to face the change in culture
(b) Be willing to try different varieties of food
(c) Be conversational in the language of the country
(d) All of the above

33. According to the passage, Indians have been successful overseas because:
(a) India is a poor nation.
(b) There is no job opportunity in India.
(c) Indians are lazy in their own land.
(d) Indians are considered intelligent, hardworking talented and spiritual.

34. When you go meet Westerners, you must stick to time because:
(a) Westerners are particular about time.
(b) Westerners are busy people.
(c) To show that Indians always stick to time.
(d) None of the above.

35. ‘Job Security’ does not exist in developed world. So you must be prepared to move on by:
(a) Looking for jobs elsewhere.
(b) Updating skills and knowledge.
(c) Returning to India.
(d) Feel miserable and fight with the management.

36. In the early stages one tends to get lonely in a foreign country because:
(a) Foreigners are hostile towards Indians.
(b) Indians are not friendly people.
(c) You are busy with your work.
(d) Privacy is highly valued is most countries.

37. Health insurance is a must in a foreign land because:
(a) Medical expenses are high.
(b) You can fall ill very often.
(c) You can save some money.
(d) None of the above.

38. What are the challenges in retaining an employment abroad?
(a) Professionalism, competence and working in an alien culture.
(b) Cost of living and loneliness.
(c) Lack of facilities in the offices.
(d) Sexual harassment.

39. What is the main theme of the passage?
(a) Job opportunities in foreign countries.
(b) How you can enjoy a holiday abroad.
(c) The importance of being an NRI.
(d) Challenges for working overseas.

40. The best way to tackle change is:
(a) by avoiding it.
(b) be prepared for it and adapt to it rapidly.
(c) by changing places.
(d) All of the above.

Directions: (Question Nos. 41 & 42) Each question has a pair of capitalised words followed by 4 pairs of words. Choose the pair of words that do NOT express a relationship similar to that expressed by the capitalised pair.

(a) Battalion: soldiers
(b) Congregation: temple
(c) Crew: vessel
(d) Crowd: thoroughfare

(a) Mundane: exciting
(b) Euphoric: despondent
(c) Muddled: organised
(d) Doleful: sombre

Directions: (Question Nos. 43 & 44) Choose the correct option to fill the blanks.

43. I like to watch  play badminton in my garden.
(a) Them  
(b) They
(c) She     
(d) He

44. She practised hard  she could perform well.
(a) Unless
(b) Hence
(c) So that
(d) For

45. Identify the correct sentences from the options given below:
(a) He has been giving alms to the poor since the last ten years.
(b) He was giving alms to the poor for the last ten years.
(c) He is giving alms to the poor for the last ten years.
(d) He has been giving alms to the poor since 1999.

46. If a person says, “All of our knowledge brings us closer to ignorance”, he implies:
(a) The more we learn, the less we know.
(b) Too much knowledge leads to ignorance.
(c) The more we learn the more we realize how little we know.
(d) Ignorance is the stepping stone to knowledge.

47. Pugnacious is to fight as garrulous is to:
(a) Thought
(b) Fact
(c) Speech
(d) Silence

48. Antonym for the word passionate is:
(a) Dispassionate
(b) Non-passionate
(c) Unpassionate
(d) None of the above

49. Choose the correct answer.
Difference between empathy and sympathy is that
(i)  In empathy focus is on feeling the same as someone else.
(ii) In sympathy focus is on both the feelings and expression of feelings.

(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are incorrect

50. Choose the odd one out:
(a) Whale: Mammal
(b) Salamander: Insect
(c) Snake: Reptile
(d) Frog: Amphibian

51. Choose the correct option.
(i) My shoes are much better than that of yours.
(ii) Rahul as well as his friends is going for the trip.

(a) (i) is correct
(b) (ii) is correct
(c) Both are correct
(d) Both are incorrect

52. Choose the odd one out:
(a) Sacrosanct
(b) Sacrilege
(c) Sanctify
(d) Sanctimonious

53. There seems to be no solution the food problem of many underdeveloped countries.
(a) of   
(b) for
(c) to        
(d) in

54. Make while the sun shines.
(a) a fortune   
(b) hay
(c) straw  
(d) rainbows

55. A by the Principal disciplined the rowdy schoolboys.
(a) Censor
(b) Censure
(c) Direction
(d) Suggestion

56. He a lie if he ever said that he liked you.
(a) was telling
(b) have been telling
(c) would have told
(d) would have been telling

57. the room, the door suddenly swung and hit her in the face.
(a) on entering
(b) entering
(c) as she entered
(d) while entering

58. I must dispense your services.
(a) of        
(b) in
(c) at        
(d) with

59. Choose the most appropriate sentence from the following:
(a) All the employees must report immediately to the concerned heads of the department.
(b) All the employees must report immediately to the heads of the departments concerned.
(c) All the employees must report immediately to the concerned heads of the departments.
(d) All the employees must report immediately to the heads of the department concerned.

60. Choose the word with the correct spelling,
(a) Benidiction
(b) Solicitude
(c) Psycophancy
(d) Intution

61. Choose the word which is closest in meaning to the word SHREWD.
(a) Erudite           
(b) Profound
(c) August
(d) Artful

62. Which word is the opposite of “Hypothesize”?
(a) Posit   
(b) Conjecture
(c) Refute
(d) Speculate

63. Concurrence means all of the following except:
(a) Agreement
(b) Accord
(c) Harmony
(d) Consensus

64. Radical is related to Moderate in the same way as Revolution is related to:
(a) Change           
(b) Chaos
(c) Peace  
(d) Reformation

65. If a person makes a statement: “I never speak the truth”. The person can be said to be Choose the appropriate words to fill in the blank.
(a) Lying
(b) Lying as well as speaking the truth
(c) Making a logically contradictory statement
(d) Partially speaking the truth and partially lying

66. The HCF and the LCM of two numbers are equal. What can be said about the numbers?
(a) They are prime
(b) They are co-primes but not primes
(c) They are equal
(d) None of these

67. Ashok got 30% of the maximum marks in an exam and failed by 10 marks. Bala got 40% of maximum marks in it and got 10 marks more than the pass mark. Find the maximum marks.
(a) 150
(b) 200
(c) 100     
(d) 250

68. Ajay and Vijay have some marbles. If Ajay gives 5 marbles to Vijay, he would have twice the number of marbles Vijay would have. If Vijay gives 15 marbles to Ajay, Ajay would have 8 times the marbles that Vijay would have. Find the number of marbles with Vijay.
(a) 20  
(b) 30
(c) 25       
(d) 35

69. P sells a table to Q at a profit of 10% and Q sells it to R at a profit of 12%. If R pays Rs. 246.40 for it, then how much had P paid for it?
(a) 200     
(b) 300
(c) 248     
(d) 346

70. If 0.06% of a number is 84, then 30% of that number is:
(a) 25.2    
(b) 420
(c) 42000 
(d) 2520

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71. A sum was divided among P, Q & R. R got double then P who got double than Q. If the difference between the shares of Q and R is Rs. 3675.00, then the sum in rupees is:
(a) 4900   
(b) 8575
(c) 11025 
(d) 7350

72. One-third of one-fourth of a number is 12. Then the number is:
(a) 96
(b) 144
(c) 108
(d) 36

73. If the ratio of the areas of two squares is 25:36, then the ratio of their perimeters is:
(a) 5:6
(b) 25:36
(c) 6:5      
(d) 36:25

74. Out of the total income, X spends 20% on house rent and 70% of the remaining amount on household expenditure. If X saves Rs. 1800, the total income is:
(a) Rs. 8000    
(b) Rs. 9500
(c) Rs. 7500         
(d) Rs. 8500

75. In a factory, the production of scooters rose to 48,400 from 40,000 in 2 years. The rate of growth per annum is:
(a) 20%    
(b) 10%
(c) 30%    
(d) 8%

76. War : Death : : Smoke : ?
(a) Burning
(b) Pollution
(c) Fire
(d) Cigarette

77. A and B are young ones of C. If C is the father of A but B is not the son of C. How are B and C related?
(a) Niece and Uncle
(b) Daughter and Father
(c) Niece and Uncle
(d) Daughter and Mother

78. Find the odd one out:
(a) Stale: fresh
(b) Truth: lie
(c) Slow: sluggish
(d) Teach: learn

79. In a family there are husband wife, two sons and two daughters. All the ladies were invited to a dinner. Both sons went out to play. Husband did not return from office. Who was at home?
(a) Only wife was at home
(b) All ladies were at home
(c) Only sons were at home
(d) Nobody was at home

80. There are five books A, B, C, D and E placed on a table. If A is placed below E, C is placed above D, B is placed below A and D is placed above E, then which of the following books touches the surface of the table?
(a) C   
(b) B
(c) A        
(d) E

81. Three ladies X, Y and Z marry three men A, B and C. X is married to A, Y is not married to an engineer, Z is not married to a doctor, C is not a doctor and A is a lawyer. Then which of the following statements is correct?
(a) Y is married to C who is an engineer
(b) Z is married to C who is a doctor
(c) X is married to a doctor
(d) None of these

82. If BAD is written as YZW and SAME as HZNV, then LOVE will be coded as:
(a) ROWN     
(b) OJUC
(c) OLEV 
(d) NOPL

83. JE, LH, OL, SQ,
(a) WV           
(b) WX
(c) VW    
(d) XW

84. In a certain code, COMPUTER is written as RFUVQNPC. How is MEDICINE written in the same code?

85. If ROSE is coded as 6821, CHAIR is coded as 73456 and PREACH is coded as 961473, what will be the code for SEARCH
(a) 216473
(b) 246173
(c) 214673           
(d) 214763

86. Appreciation is related to Reward in the same way as Disgrace i$ related to
(a) Crime 
(b) Guilt
(c) Allegation
(d) Punishment

87. Here are some words translated form an artificial language
slar means jump
slary means jumping
slarend means jumped

Which word could mean “Playing”
(a) Clargslarend
(b) Clergy
(c) Ellaclarg          
(d) Slarmont

88. Statements: All windows are doors. No door is wall.
(i) No window is wall
(ii) No wall is door

(a) Only conclusion 1 follows
(b) Only conclusion II follows
(c) Neither 1 nor II follows
(d) Both I and II follow

89. Y is in the East of X which is in the North of Z. If P is in the South of Z, then in which direction of Y, is P?
(a) North
(b) South
(c) South East
(d) None of these

90. A boy rode his bicycle northward, then turned left and rode 1 km and again turned left and rode 2 km. He found himself 1 km west of his starting point. How far did he ride northward initially?
(a) 3 km               
(b) 1 km
(c) 2 km               
(d) 4 km

91. Complete the series: 120, 99, 80, 63,48,…
(a) 35
(b) 33
(c) 31       
(d) 37

92. Which one of the following is always found in ‘Bravery’?
(a) Power            
(b) Courage
(c) Knowledge    
(d) Experience

93. If banana is apple, apple is grapes, grapes is mango, mango is nuts, nuts is guava, which of the following is a yellow fruit?
(a) Mango
(b) Guava
(c) Apple 
(d) Nuts

94. If P is to the South of Q, R is to the east of Q then what direction is P with respect to R?
(a) NE      
(b) NW
(c) SW     
(d) SE

95. A father’s age is 4 times the age of his elder son and 5 times the age of his younger son. When the elder son lived to three times his present age, then father’s age will exceed his younger son’s age by 3 years. What is the age of the father?
(a) 40              
(b) 32
(c) 30              
(d) None of these

96. If 63+25=16,12+18=12 and 23+17=13, then 54+22=
(a) 13              
(b) 17
(c) 19              
(d) 20

97. Which word does NOT belong with the others?
(a) Wing         
(b) Beak
(c) Fin             
(d) Rudder

98. Georgia is older than her cousin Marsha. Marsha’s brother Bart is older than Georgia. When Marsha and Bart are visiting with Georgia, all three like to play a game of Monopoly. Marsha wins more often than Georgia does.
When he plays Monopoly with Marsha and Georgia, Bart often loses.
(a) Of the three, Georgia is the oldest
(b) Of the three, Marsha is the youngest
(c) Georgia hates to lose at Monopoly
(d) None of these

99. Disclosure always involves:
(a) Exposition      
(b) Display
(c) Agents            
(d) Secrets

100. The taxis playing in Wasseypur have the following fare structure: Rs. 20 for the first 2 km. Rs. 5 for every km in excess of 2 km and upto 10 km, and rs. 8 for every km in excess of 10 km. Bullock carts on the other hand charge Rs. 2 per km. Sardar Khan takes a taxi from the Wasseypur railway station to his home. On the way, at a distance of 14 km from the railway station, he meets Faizal Khan, and gets down from the taxi to talk to him. Later he takes a bullock cart to, reach home. He spent a total of Rs. 102 to reach his home from the railway station. How far is his home from the railway station?
(a) 17       
(b) 18
(c) 19       
(d) 20

101. Prof. Mandal walks to the market and comes back in an auto. It takes him 90 minutes to make the round trip. If he takes an auto both ways it takes him 30 minutes. On a Sunday, he decides to walk both ways. How long would it take him?
(a) 100 minutes
(b) 120 minutes
(c) 150 minutes
(d) None of these

102. February 4th and March 10th fall on Monday in a particular year. Find the number of Sundays in the month of April, in the same year.
(a) 5
(b) 4
(c) cannot be determined
(d) none of these

103. A certain number of students are staying in 3 hostel. A part of the hostel charges is fixed irrespective of the number of occupants, and the remaining part varies directly as the number of occupants. When there were 50 occupants, each occupant had to pay Rs. 90. If there are 40 occupants, each will pay Rs. 100. If each occupant is paying Rs. 150, then find the number of occupants in the hostel.
(a) 20                   
(b) 15
(c) 32                   
(d) 45

104. Ram, Shyam and Taran ran a race. The average of the speeds of the three was half the sum of the average speed of Ram and Shyam and the average speed of Shyam and Tarun. If the speeds of the three are distinct, then who among the following CANNOT be the winner?
(a) Ram
(b) Shyam
(c) Tarun
(d) Cannot be determined

105. Legal Principle: Every person is entitled to freedom of conscience and to profess, practice and propagate his religion subject to public order, morality and health.
Factual Situation: X, a Muslim sacrifices a cow on Bakra-ld believing it to be a part of his religious rites. However, there was a law of general prohibition on slaughter of cows. X, was prosecuted for slaughtering cow.
(a) X cannot be prosecuted as killing of cow on Bakra-Id has the Muslim religious sanction.
(b) X can be prosecuted as the state has a right to regulate the freedom of the religion in the interests of the public order.
(c) X can be prosecuted as the slaughtering of cow hurts other community’s religious sentiments
(d) X can be prosecuted, as the slaughtering of cow is cruelty to animals.

Under which Article of the Constitution of India has untouchability been abolished and its practice prohibited?
(a) Article 17       
(b) Article 19
(c) Article 20       
(d) Article 21

107. A judgment passed by the Supreme Court of India can be reviewed only by the:
(a) President
(b) Prime Minister
(c) International Court of Justice
(d) Supreme Court itself

108. Total number of ministers including Prime Minister shall not exceed % of the total number of members of Lok Sabha.
(a) 20       
(b) 14
(c) 15       
(d) 18

109. A marriage is said to be child marriage if:
(a) The girl is below 18 years and the boy is below 20 years.
(b) The girl and the boy are below 21 years.
(c) The girl is below 20 years and the boy the below 21 years.
(d) The girl is below 18 years and the boy the below 21 years.

110. The founding member of the movement for Right to Information is:
(a) AnnaHazare
(b) ArunaRoy
(c) Arvind Kejriwal
(d) Arundathi Roy

111. The reservation of seats for women in Panchayat Raj institutions is:
(a) 50% of total seats
(b) 33% of total population
(c) Proportionate to women population
(d) 33% of total seats

112. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections are settled by
(a) Central Election Tribunal
(b) Joint Committee of Parliament
(c) Election Commission of India
(d) Supreme Court of India

113. Ignorance of law is:
(a) Excused
(b) Not excused
(c) Many times excused
(d) All of these

114. Choose the Fundamental Rights available to Indian citizens but not to aliens.
I Freedom of speech and expression
II Equality before the law
III Right of minorities
IV Protection of life and liberty
(a) 1 and III      
(b) I and IV
(c) II and IV
(d) II and III

115. The present Chairperson of the National Human Rights Commission of India is:
(a) Justice A.S. Anand
(b) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(c) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
(d) Justice Swatantra Kumar

116. Mr. Samay was severely hurt while working in his factory and fell unconscious. He was rushed to a hospital by his fellow workers. In the hospital (at emergency/casualty ward) the doctors opined that he should be operated immediately. While conducting preliminary examinations, he was found to be HIV positive. The doctors are in a dilemma regarding what should they do first.
(a) Doctor should operate first.
(b) Doctor should inform his family members.
(c) Doctors should inform his employers.
(d) Doctors should not inform anyone because it would violate patient’s right of privacy.

117. Principle: When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that person to such an act or abstinence, he is said to have made a proposal.
Fact: Ram telegraphed to Shyam: “Will you sell me your bullet bike? Telegram the lowest price.” Shyam replied by telegram: “Lowest price for bike is Rs. 1 lakh.” Ram immediately sent his consent through telegram stating: “I agree to buy the bike for Rs. 1 lakh asked by you.” Shyam refused to sell the bike.
(a) He cannot refuse to sell the bike because the contract has already been made.
(b) He can refuse to sell the bike because it was only invitation to offer and not the real offer.
(c) It was not a valid offer because willingness to enter into a contract was absent.
(d) None of these

118. Sheela, an adult married woman, agreed to live in adultery with Rahul and also agreed to serve him as his housekeeper. In return, Rahul, an adult agreed to pay Sheela Rs. 5000 per month for living in adultery and Rs. 5000 per month for housekeeping the agreement is:
(a) Valid as the parties are adults and so capable of contracting
(b) Voidable as Sheela is a married woman.
(c) Contingent as Sheela may or may not perform the agreement
(d) Unlawful as being opposed to public policy

119. Rania applied for the post of Director in an organization. The governing body of the organization passed a resolution appointing him to the post. Afterwards, one of the members of the governing body informed him privately of the resolution. Subsequently, the resolution was rescinded by the governing body. Rania files a suit for breach of contract and claims damages. Which one of the following is the correct legal proposition in the case?
(a) Rania cannot claim damages as she had not resigned from her existing post in anticipation of getting the appointment letter.
(b) Rania cannot claim damages as there was no proper communication of acceptance.
(c) Rania can claim damages as governing body cannot rescind the resolution once passed and communicated.
(d) Rania can claim damages as there was private communication.

120. Y makes an attempt to steal some jewels by breaking open a box and finds, after opening the box, that there is no jewel in it. Choose the appropriate answer.
(a) Y is not guilty of attempt to theft because the box was empty
(b) Y is guilty of attempt to commit theft
(c) Y is guilty of trespass
(d) Y is not guilty of any offence

121      ______is NOT a Central Government tax.
(a) Income Tax
(b) Custom Duty
(c) Land Revenue
(d) Service Tax

122. A patent is granted for a:
(a) New expression
(b) New invention
(c) New combination
(d) New discovery

123. JNNURM means:
(a) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Renewal Mission
(b) Jawaharlal Nehru Natural Urban Rural Mission
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru National Urban Rural Mission
(d) None of these

124. Full form of TRIPS is:
(a) Traffic related aspects of international ports
(b) Technology related aspects of intellectual property rights
(c) Trade related aspects of intellectual property rights
(d) Trade related aspects of industrial property rights

125. WTO is the successor of:
(a) NAM         
(b) IMF
(c) GATS        
(d) GAIT

126. Who described international law as positive morality?
(a) Vladimir Lenin
(b) Mao Zodong
(c) Alexander Dworkin
(d) John Austin

127. A draft is a/an _________ instrument.
(a) Transferable
(b) Negotiable
(c) Inchoate    
(d) Non-refundable

128. Out of the following which statute is older than the others?
(a) Indian Contract Act, 1852
(b) Indian Penal Code, 1860
(c) Transfer of Property Act, 1862
(d) Companies Act, 1972

129. A film is protected under _________ Act
(a) Trademarks    
(b) Patents
(c) Copyright       
(d) Cinematograph

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130. The word “Ltd.” after the name of a business enterprise denotes:
(a) That it is a limited liability company
(b) That it is an unlimited liability company
(c) That it has issued limited shares
(d) That it has limited number of members

131. Lawyers are officers of the Court and are constituted into an independent profession under the:
(a) Constitution of India
(b) Indian Penal Code
(c) Civil Procedure Code
(d) Advocates Act

132. In relation to a case the term res subjudice means that:
(a) The case has been decided by a court
(b) The case decided by a lower court could be appealed to a higher court
(c) A case has been dismissed by a court
(d) The case is pending before a court

133. Who is associated with drafting of the Indian Penal Code?
(a) Thomas Macaulay
(b) Frederic Pollock
(c) Firdaus Kanga
(d) Henry S. Maine

134. What does UNESCO deal with?
(a) International economic, social and community matters
(b) International ecclesiastical matters
(c) International educational, scientific and cultural matters
(d) International elections of societies and communities

135. Sexual intercourse with a girl under is rape even if she had given her consent
(a) 15 years          
(b) 18 years
(c) 12 years          
(d) 16 years

136. A lady wanted to buy a railway ticket but finding crowd near the ticket window at the station, asked Raju, who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and handed him money for the same. Raju took the money and instead of getting the ticket, ran away with it. What offence has been committed by Raju?
(a) No offence
(b) Criminal breach of trust
(c) Criminal misappropriation
(d) Theft

137. Z is carried off by a tiger. X fires at the tiger, knowing that the shot might kill Z, but with no intention to kill Z, and in good faith trying to save Z. X’s shot, however, gives Z a mortal wound. Choose the correct option:
(a) X has committed an offence of a grievous nature
(b) X has no mortal duty to save Z therefore he can be held liable
(c) X has not committed an offence, as the act was in good faith and for the benefit ofZ
(d) None of these

138. Remarks of a judge, which are made casually and are not relevant to the case in hand, are known as:
(a) Obiter dicta
(b) Ratio decidendi
(c) Precedent
(d) Binding source of law

139. The principle that agreements must be respected in good faith, is known as:
(a) Pacta dant legem contractri
(b) Pactum de non petendo
(c) Raison d’etre
(d) Pacta sunt servanda

140. “Justice must not only be done but also appear to be done, and may I add, must be paid for being done.” Who is the author of this statement?
(a) Henry Cecil
(b) Francis Bacon
(c) Voltaire          
(d) Seneca

141. Fiduciary relationship means a relationship based on:
(a) Money
(b) Contract
(c) Trust  
(d) None of these

142. Contract is said to have three essentials. Which one among the following is not an essential in the formation of contract?
(a) Offer  
(b) Acceptance
(c) Consideration
(d) Damages

143. ‘Ecomark’ is issued by:
(a) Indian Standard Organisation
(b) Bureau of Indian Standards
(c) International Standards Organisation
(d) The Trade Marks Office

144. Right to education is added as Article 21A in the Constitution of India by
(a) 86th Constitutional Amendment, 2002
(b) 88th Constitutional Amendment, 2003
(c) 89th Constitutional Amendment, 2003
(d) 90th Constitutional Amendment, 2003

145. First Lokpal Bill had been introduced in the Parliament of India in the year:
(a) 1962   
(b) 1964
(c) 1966   
(d) 1968

146. Which among the following Vice-President in India resigned from his office to contest for the post of President?
(a) V.V. Giri
(b) Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
(c) N. Sanjeeva Reddy
(d) R. Venkataraman

147. A National Emergency in India remains in operation, with the approval of Parliament for:
(a) Maximum of 1 year
(b) Indefinite period
(c) Maximum of 2 years
(d) Maximum of 3 years

148. Which among the following Indian Constitutional Amendments included 4 more languages in the Eighth Schedule to the Constitution of India?
(a) 89th Amendment, 2003
(b) 90th Amendment, 2003
(c) 91st Amendment, 2003
(d) 92nd Amendment, 2003

149. Constitution Amending Bill passed by the Parliament of India also requires to be ratified by the Legislatures of not less than half of the States in regard to the:
(a) Fundamental Rights
(b) Fundamental Duties
(c) Representation of States in Parliament
(d) Constitutional remedies

150. As per Constitutional requirement the parliament of India shall meet at least:
(a) Once a year
(b) Twice a year
(c) Thrice a year
(d) Four times a year

151. Chairman of Central Sixth Pay Commission in India was:
(a) Justice B.N. Srikrishna
(b) Justice B.N. Kripal
(c) Justice L.K. Majumdar
(d) Justice V.N. Khare

In which of the following cases the Constitution of India allows an exception to the rule of equality?
(a) President and Governor
(b) Prime Minister and Chief Minister
(c) Union Law Minister and Law Minister of a State
(d) Deputy Prime Minister and Deputy Chief Minister

153. Article 1 of the Constitution of India declares India as:
(a) Federal State
(b) Quasi-federal State
(c) Unitary State
(d) Union of the States

154. A Panchayat Samiti at the block level in India is only a/an:
(a) Advisory body
(b) Consultative committee
(c) Co-ordinating and supervisory authority
(d) Administrative authority

155. When the offices of both the President and Vice-President of India are vacant, then their functions will be discharged by:
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Home Minister
(c) Chief Justice of India
(d) Speaker

156. Parliament or a State Legislature in India can declare a seat vacant, if a member absents himself without notice from the session for more than:
(a) 30 days           
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days           
(d) 120 days

157. Which country among the following is the first country in Europe to guarantee animal rights in its Constitution?
(a) Belgium          
(b) Germany
(c) Switzerland
(d) Belgrade

158. Kothari Commission relates to:
(a) Sports
(b) Cultural
(c) Education
(d) Backward classes

159. Permission to vote in India by postal ballot is given to:
1. Members of the Armed Forces
2. Foreign Service personnel posted abroad
3. Officials on election duty
4. Candidates who are touring their constituencies
(a) 2,4      
(b) 1,3
(d) 2,3

160. The concept of Public Interest Litigation which has become quite popular in India originated in:
(a) U.K.          
(b) Australia
(c) Canada      
(d) USA

161. Right to property was removed from the list of Fundamental Rights from the Constitution of India during the tenure of:
(a) Morarji Desai
(b) Rajiv Gandhi
(c) Charan Singh
(d) Indira Gandhi

162. The current strength of Lok Sabha and State Assemblies in India is to be frozen up to:
(a) 2026
(b) 2016
(c) 2018   
(d) 2015

163. Petitions to the Supreme Court of India under Article 32 of Constitution are subject to the rule of ‘Res Judicata’ except:
(a) Quo Warranto
(b) Certiorari
(c) Habeas Corpus
(d) Prohibition

164. Which of the following fundamental rights, guaranteed by the Constitution of India, 1950 cannot be suspended during emergency?
(a) Freedom of speech and expression under Article 19(l)(a)
(b) Right to Constitutional remedies under Articles 32 and 226
(c) Right under Article 21 and 22
(d) Right under Articles 20 and 21

165. In which landmark judgment did the Supreme Court of India lay down guidelines against sexual harassment of women at workplace?
(a) Nilabati Behera v. State of Orissa
(b) Hussainara Khatoon v. State of Bihar
(c) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(d) Vishakha v. State of Raj asthan

166. Clemency of capital punishment is granted by:
(a) Jail superintendent
(b) Prime Minister
(c) Chief Justice of Supreme Court
(d) President of India

167. To be tried under Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection) Act, 2000 the accused must be below the age of:
(a) 18  
(b) 16
(c) 14       
(d) 12

168. A hung Parliament is a Parliament:
(a) Which meets in between two regular sessions.
(b) In which no political party gets an absolute majority
(c) In which joint sessions of both the houses of the parliament take place
(d) Constituted for emergency purpose

169. The official language of a Supreme Court is:
(a) Hindi
(b) English
(c) Any language convenient to the client
(d) All of the above

Directions: (Question Nos. 170 to 175) Each of the next six questions consists of two statements, one labeled as Assertion’ (A) and other as ‘Reason’ (R). You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the correct answer.

170. Assertion (A): A void contract is not necessarily illegal.
Reason (R): Every illegal contract is void.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

171. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self defense and in order to ward off the attack, hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence.
Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under Section 98 of the Indian Penal Code,
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

172. Assertion (A): Austin’s concept of law is known as imperative theory.
Reason (R): Austin emphasized on the commanding character of law.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

173. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under section 149 of the IPC is that the criminal act must have been done with a view to fulfill the common object of an unlawful assembly.
Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

174. Assertion (A): in the event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is entitled to recover unliquidated damages.
Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed. Damages are therefore, assessed on that basis.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A)
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

175. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Governor for a period of five years.
Reason (R): The governor holds office during the pleasure of the President.
(a) Both (A) and (R) are individually true and (R) is the correct explanation of (A).
(b) Both (A) and (R) are individually true but (R) is not the correct explanation of (A).
(c) (A) is true but (R) is false.
(d) (A) is false but (R) is true.

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