DU LLB 2014 Question Paper

Download DU LLB Past Year Papers with Full Solutions

We have compiled the DU LLB Papers (2003 onwards) into one neat, beautifully formatted bundle for you to download, view offline or print. You can download it by clicking below

Download DU LLB Question Papers & Solutions

DU LL.B. 2014 Question Paper

Time: 2 hours Total Marks: 700

“Ignorance of the law excuses no man, not that all men know the law, but because it is an excuse every man will plead.” Who said these words?
(A) Rousseau
(B) John Wilson
(C) John Selden
(D) B.H. Brewster

2. “Justice must not only be done but also appear to be done, and may I add, must be paid for being done.” Who is the author of this statement?
(A) Henry Cecil
(B) Francis Bacon
(C) Voltaire
(D) Seneca

3. ‘Ultra vires’ is a term used for:
(A) A document corrupted by virus
(B) An act beyond the authority of law
(C) An act authorised by law
(D) An illegal act

4.Who presides over joint sitting both Houses of Parliament?
(A) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) President
(C) Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(D) Prime Minister

5. A sentence of death by a lower court:
(A) must be confirmed by High Court
(B) must be confirmed by Supreme Court
(C) is operational if no appeal is made to higher courts
(D) must be confirmed by the President

6. In which of the following cases the Supreme Court held that “wife under section 125 of Cr. P.C. includes divorced Muslim woman so long as she has not remarried”:
(A) Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan
(B) Veena v. State of Bihar
(C) Veera Ibrahim v. State of Maharashtra
(D) Mohd. Ahmed Khan v. Shah Bano Begum

7. The Legal Services Authorities Act, 1987 was enacted under which provision of the Constitution:
(A) Article 21
(B) Article 39
(C) Article 39 A
(D) Article 49 A

Constitution of India 94th Amendment, 2006 which amended Article 164 of Constitution deals with
(A) Number of ministers and their percentage in a State
(B) Number of ministers and their percentage in Lok Sabha
(C) Number of ministers and their percentage in Rajya Sabha
(D) Number of ministers and their percentage in Council of States

9. What does WIPO deal with?
(A) International Posts and Telegraph
(B) International refugees
(C) Intellectual Property Rights
(D) International Educational, Scientific and Cultural matters

10. Economic and Social Council of the United Nations Organisation consists of:
(A) 50members
(B) 51 members
(C) 52 members
(D) 54 members

11. The secretary-General is the chief administrative officer of the UN. He is elected by:
(A) General Assembly
(B) General Assembly on recommendation of the Security Council
(C) General Assembly by 2/3rds majority
(D) None of the above

In Law of Torts:
(A) Intention is necessary
(B) Intention is irrelevant
(C) Intention is relevant only in some torts
(D) None of the above

Sometimes a person himself does not commit an offence. He helps or aids another person.
He is then guilty of….
(A) Abetment
(B) Conspiracy
(C) Abatement
(D) Attempt

14. The first federal court was established in Delhi in December 1937 and it sat till:
(A) Indian Independence on 15th August, 1947
(B) Supreme Court was set up on 28 January, 1950
(C) Republic Day on 26th January, 1950
(D) Adoption of Constitution on 26 November, 1949

15. Parliament of India consists of:
(A) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(B) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Speaker and Deputy Speaker
(C) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(D) Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and Union Ministry

16. The disobedience of any judgment, order, etc., of a court amounts to
(A) Perjury
(B) Contempt of Court
(C) Offence
(D) None of these

A written statement of a person by whom it is voluntarily signed and sworn to is called
(A) Advowson
(B) Affidavit
(C) Affirmation
(D) Affray

18. The Headquarters of International Labour Organisation is at
(A) Geneva (Switzerland)
(B) Rome (Italy)
(C) Washington D.C. (USA
(D) Vienna (Austria)

19. The Headquarters of IMF is at
(A) Geneva (Switzerland)
(B) Rome (Italy)
(C) Washington D.C. (USA)
(D) Vienna (Austria)

Who among the following in India is the Chairman of its Planning Commission?
(A) Finance Minister
(B) Prime Minister
(C) President
(D) Comptroller and Auditor-General

21. Who is the present President of the National Consumer Dispute Redressal Commission under the Consumer Protection Act, 1986?
(A) Justice Balakrishna Eradi
(B) Justice Rama Rao
(C) Justice Krishna Iyer
(D) Justice D K Jain

22. A prerogative writ used to command a person or a public authority who is detaining another in custody to produce that person before the court
(A) Habeas Corpus
(B) Certiorari
(C) Quo Warranto
(D) Mandamus

23. South Asian University is located at
(A)New Delhi
(B) Kathmandu
(C) Tokyo
(D) Islamabad

24. A right available against world at large is
(A) right In personam
(B) right In rem
(C) right In pleno
(D) right In situ

25. The reprehensible practice of killing of new born children is called
(A) Infanticide
(B) Homicide
(C) Foeticide
(D) Fraticide

26. Who said “Litigation is a game in which the Court is umpire”?
(A) Infanticide
(B) Pollock
(C) Foeticide
(D) Blackstone

A writ by court, to some person or body to compel it to perform some public duty is
(A) Quo Warranto
(B) Habeas Corpus
(C) Mandamus
(D) Prohibition

28. The presence of one or more employees and/or other persons who are protesting an action or labour dispute, for influencing employees or customers or visitors to withhold the action, work or business is called
(A) Strike
(B) Picketting
(C) Serjeanty
(D) Piscary

Law of contract is a
(A) Public Law
(B) Private Law
(C) International Law
(D) Conflict of laws

30. Law can be broadly divided into two kinds. Procedural law which tells us the procedure for obtaining justice and substantive law which
(A) creates rights and duties
(B) which supplements procedural law
(C) which substantiates moral principles
(D) issues directions to law enforcement agencies

31. Offence of breaking a divine idol is:
(A) Crime
(B) Sacrilege
(C) Salus populi
(D) Blasphemy

32. Primary function of Finance Commission of India is to recommend
(A) Distribution of revenue between Centre and State
(B) Prepare annual Budget
(C) Advise president on finance mattes
(D) Allocate fund to finance ministers of Union and States

33. By which Constitutional Amendment the voting age was reduced from 21 to 18 years
(A) 61st Amendment of 1988
(B) 7th Amendment of 1956
(C) 42nd Amendment of 1976
(D) 54th Amendment of 1986

34. Assertion (A): The Constitution of India provides for the appointment of a Governor for a period of five years.
Assertion (R): The Governor holds office during the pleasure of the President
(A) Both A and R are true
(B) Both A and R are false
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

35. The present Chairperson of the National Human Rights commission of India is
(A) Justice A.S. Anand
(B) Justice P.N. Bhagwati
(C) Justice K.G. Balakrishnan
(D) Justice Swatantra Kumar

36. Which of the following rights is a constitutional right and not fundamental right?
(A) right to freedom of expression
(B) right to freedom of religion
(C) right to property
(D) right to move freely

Which of the following posts is by Convention always held by a member of an opposition party?
(A) Deputy speaker of Lok Sabha
(B) Deputy Chairman of Rajya Sabha
(C) Chairman of Joint Select Committee
(D) Chairman of Public Accounts Committee

38. The Word “State” is defined under Article of constitution of India.
(A) Article 12
(B) Article 13
(C) Article 14
(D) Article 18

39. Petitions to the Supreme Court of India under Article 32 of Constitution are subject to the rule of ‘Res Judicata’, except petitions for
(A) Quo Warranto
(B) Certiorari
(C) Babeas Corpus
(D) Prohibition

The council of Ministers in India remains in office as long as it enjoys the confidence of the
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) House of the People
(D) Armed Forces

Which is the minimum age prescribed for marriage of a girl by Prohibition of Child Marriages Act?
(A) 21 years
(B) 17 years
(C) 15 years
(D) 18 years

42. Electoral disputes arising out of Presidential and Vice-Presidential elections are settled by
(A) Central Election Tribunal
(B) Supreme Court of India
(C) Joint Committee of Parliament
(D) Election Commission of India

43. When an offer is accepted by other party, it becomes
(A) Proposal
(B) Contract
(C) Agreement
(D) Promise

44. The oldest High Court in India
(A) Bombay High Court
(B) Calcutta High Court
(C) Madras High Court
(D) Allahabad High Court

A Lok Adalat is different from other courts
(A) Because its decisions cannot be challenged in any Court of Law
(B) Because the system is developed by the judges
(C) because a Parliamentary Act guides it
(D) none of the above

46. Agreement on Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights (TRIPs), forming the part of the World Trade Organisation (WTO) is intended to
(A) harmonise Intellectual Property Rights (IPR) regime in India
(B) harmonise IPR regime internationally
(C) harmonise IPR regime in Asia
(D) harmonise IPR regime in Europe

47. The “Right to Information” (RTI) is a
(A) Constitutional Right
(B) Legal Right
(C) Fundamental Right
(D) Contractual Right

48. According to the amendment in Negotiable Instruments Act, the physical cheque is no more required to be sent to drawee bank because –
(A) of difficulty in sending cheques to paying branch
(B) cheque in the electronic form is sent to paying bank
(C) difficulties caused by loss of physical cheque
(D) law permits truncation of cheques by sending Electronic image of cheque to the paying bank in electronic

49. Which of the following statutes was amended to give equal property right to daughters in India?
(A) Hindu Marriage Act
(B) Hindu Adoption and Maintenance Act
(C) Hindu Succession Act
(D) Transfer of Property Act

50. Right to Primary Education under Constitution of India falls under
(A) Directive Principles of State Policy
(B) Fundamental Rights
(C) Civil Rights
(D) Preamble of Constitution.

Which Article of Constitution of India empowers the Supreme Court to determine disputes between Union of India and its States and between the States?
(A) Article 141
(B) Article 131
(C) Article 356
(D) Article 350

52. Death sentence” in Criminal Punishment System in India is
(A) Hanging of Convict
(B) Hanging of Convict till death
(C) Death of convict by firing
(D) Imprisonment upto death of convict

53. Article 370 of the Constitution of India deals with
(A) Special provision for Delhi
(B) Special provision for State of Jammu and Kashmir
(C) Special provision for State of Gujarat
(D) Special provision for State of Andhra Pradesh

Provisions relating to amendment of the Constitution of India are contained in
(A) Article 356
(B) Article 370
(C) Article 368
(D) Article 375

55. The seat of International Criminal Court is at
(A) Vienna
(B) The Hague
(C) Switzerland
(D) Melbourne

56. Both the President and the Governors in India have power to promulgate Ordinances. The statement is
(A) True
(B) False
(C) True only if the Parliament and concerned legislature is not in session
(D) True only if the Parliament and concerned legislature is in session

INTERPOL is a 190-nation Police Commission, established in 1923. Its headquarters is at
(A) Paris
(B) Lyons
(C) London
(D) Frankfurt

58. Special Economic Zones in India means
(A) the places where industries get certain incentives and/or tax advantages
(B) the places where industries can operate without any control
(C) the places wherein any person can start any industry
(D) the places wherein the national labour laws do not apply

59. Uniform Civil Code is envisaged in _________ of the Constitution of India
(A) Article 42
(B) Article 43
(C) Article 44
(D) Article 45

60. The Directive Principles of State Policy are enshrined in of the Indian Constitution
(A) Part I
(C) Part II
(D) Part III
(D) Part IV

61. Theft is an offence relating to
(A) Movable property only
(B) Immovable Property only
(C) Movable and Immovable Property only
(D) Cash and Ornaments only

62. The expression ‘Socialist’ was introduced in the Preamble of India by the Constitution
(A) 42nd Amendment
(B) 44th Amendment
(C) 46th Amendment
(D) 74th Amendment

A secretly planned and suddenly executed attempt to overthrow a government by force is
(A) Reflation
(B) Relic
(C) Requisition
(D) Putsch

64. Ravi invited his business partner Rajesh and his family to his house for dinner. Rajesh accepted the invitation but later did not turn up, nor did he give notice of his failure to attend the dinner. Thereupon, Ravi filed a suit against Rajesh for the price of non-consumed food, the wages paid to servants and a fee for the Ravi’s time blocked for the dinner and for the preparation thereof. Will he succeed?
(A) Yes, because it was a business dinner.
(B) Yes, because Rajesh agreed for dinner and caused loss to Ravi.
(C) No, because Ravi could have called up Rajesh asking his confirmation.
(D) No, because it was an invitation to dinner and not a contract.

65. Ramesh has had quarrels with his brother, Rajesh. Rajesh kidnapped Ramesh’s son, and then demanded that Ramesh give away one-half of all his property in favour of Rajesh by way of a deed of gift, in return for the child. Ramesh signs the deed of gift. When Rajesh sought to enforce the deed, Ramesh resisted. Would Ramesh succeed?
(A) Yes, He can, because he signed the deed of gift under duress.
(B) Yes. He signed the deed because he wanted to save the child.
(C) No. Ramesh knew fully well what he was doing when he signed the deed.
(D) No. Ramesh could have gone to authorities for help.

66. The president of India is administered oath of his office by
(A) Prime Minister
(B) Chief Justice of India
(C) Speaker of Lok Sabha
(D) Attorney-General of India

67. Sovereignty in India under the Constitution of India belongs to
(A) Parliament
(B) The people
(C) President
(D) Supreme Court

68. In India the International Treaties are ratified by
(A) President
(B) Parliament
(C) Prime Minister
(D) Foreign Secretary

69. Legal Principle: Acts done by children below 12 years of age are not offences if they are not mature enough to understand the nature and consequences of the acts.
Factual Situation: Sahil, a child of 10 years of age, finds a gold coin in his uncle’s home. He gives the coin to his sister Rachna who is eight years old. The uncle reports the matter to the police. The police conducts a search. During the investigation the police finds the gold coin kept in the toys of Rachna. Rachna tells the police that Sahil had given the coin to her.

(A) Sahil is guilty of theft
(B) Rachna is guilty of theft
(C) Both Sahil and Rachna are guilty of theft
(D) Neither Sahil nr Rachna is guilty of theft

70. Who is the present Governor of Reserve Bank of India?
(A) D. Subbarao
(B) Pranab Mukherji
(C) P. Chidambaram
(D) Raghuram Rajan

Are You Interested in India's Best DU LLB Coaching?

Delhi Law Academy conducts India's best DU LLB Coaching. We have coached thousands of students to success in DU LLB. With some of India's most qualified faculty and the best technology, DLA's Online DU LLB Coaching is the right choice!

71. The law that gives monopoly rights in relation to inventions is known as:
(A) Copyright law
(B) Patent law
(C) Trade mark law
(D) Design law

72. Acceptance of a proposal if done by e mail is:
(A) valid after Information Technology Act, 2000
(B) valid if proposal directs to send acceptance by e mail
(C) valid if acceptance is acted upon by the proposer
(D) all three (A), (B) and (C) are correct

73. Which of the States in north India have a Common High Court?
(A) Punjab & Himachal Pradesh
(B) J & K and Punjab
(C) Haryana & Uttar Pradesh
(D) Punjab & Haryana

74. Assertion (A): X, because of unsound state of mind and not knowing the nature of the act, attacks Y, who in self defense and in order to ward off the attack hits him thereby injuring him. Y has not committed an offence.
Reason (R): Y had a right of private defense against X under the Indian Penal Code.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A. ^
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

75. Assertion (A): In the event of violation of any legal right (tort) the aggrieved party is entitled to recover damages as determined by the court.
Reason (R): The object of awarding damages to the aggrieved party is to put him in the same position in which he would have been if the wrong would not have been committed. Damages are therefore, assessed on that basis.
(A) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(B) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(C) A is true but R is false
(D) A is false but R is true

76. LEGAL PRINCIPLE OF SEDITION: Whoever by words, by signs or otherwise brings into hatred or contempt or excites disaffection towards the Government established by Law in India shall be punished with imprisonment for life.
FACTUAL SITUATION: In a public meeting Z, the leader of an opposite party thunders, “this is a Government of scoundrels, bootleggers and scamsters. They deserve to be unseated. Teach them a lesson in the coming elections by voting them out of power”. The Government prosecutes Z for sedition.

(A) Z is guilty of sedition for having made irresponsible and inflammatory statements against the Government
(B) Z is not guilty of sedition as he is only exercising his freedom of speech in public.
(C) Z is guilty of sedition as his statement would incite people to violence leading to breakdown of law and order.
(D) None of these

77. Schedule IX of Indian Constitution
(A) provides immunity to the laws listed in it
(B) enables legislations to claim protection from attack under the Constitution
(C) deals with protection to land reform legislation only
(D) gave immunity to legislations listed in it but now they are liable to judicial review

78. President is the head of the Union Executive, such power has been given to him by
(A) Constitution of India
(B) Parliament
(C) Special Commission appointed from time to time for this purpose
(D) Supreme Court of India

79. When a person is prosecuted for committing a criminal offence, the burden of proof is on:
(A) Himself
(B) Prosecution
(C) Court
(D) Police

80. Sex determination tests have been banned under
(A) Pre-Conception & Pre Natal Diagnostic Techniques (Prohibition of Sex Selection) Act
(B) SDT (Prohibition) Act
(C) Ultra-sound Control Act
(D) Medical Termination of pregnancy Act.

81. Election petitions are heard by
(A) High Courts and Supreme Court
(B) Election Tribunals
(C) Election Commission
(D) Special Courts.

82. Which amongst the following international organizations deals with ‘Refugees’?

83. Which among the following can impose reasonable restrictions on the freedoms contained in Article 19 of the Constitution?
(A) only Parliament
(B) only Supreme Court
(B) only Government of India
(D) only High Court

84. A document issued by Court, calling upon the person to whom it is directed to attend before the judge.
(A) A procedure by which a defendant pleads guilty in exchange for a lesser sentence
(B) A conference between opposing lawyers to settle claim
(C) A conference between opposing lawyers and Judge to determine the time a case should be heard
(D) None of the above

85. What is plea bargaining?
(A) A procedure by which a defendant pleads guilty in exchange for a lesser sentence
(B) A conference between opposing lawyers to settle claim
(C) A conference between opposing lawyers and Judge to determine the time a case should be heard
(D) None of the above

86. The Principle Bench of the Central Administrative Tribunal is at:
(A) New Delhi
(B) Calcutta
(C) Mumbai
(D) Chennai

87. What is the full form of scanning technique known as CAT?
(A) Complete Anatomical Trepanning
(B) Computerized Automatic Therapy
(C) Computerized Axial Tomography
(D) Complete Axial Transmission

88. Wold Earth Day is celebrated on
(A) 14 February
(B) 22 April
(C) 11 May
(D) 11 July

89. Who invented the computer mouse?
(A) Charles Babbage
(B) Bill Gates
(C) Douglas Engelbart
(D) Narsimha Murthy

90. Where is the world’s highest waterfall located?
(A) United Sates
(B) Argentina
(C) Sri Lanka
(D) Venezuela

91. Which of the following is associated with Marx’s economics?
(A) Theories of Surplus Value
(B) Essay on the Principle of Population
(C) On the Principles of Political Economy and Taxation
(D) Okishio’s theorem

92. Which of the following is a credit rating company of India?
(A) Standard and Poor
(B) Moodys Investor service
(C) The Fitch’s company

93. Which of the following has been declared as a new offence under IPC?
(A) Acid attack
(B) Homosexuality
(B) Mercy Killing
(D) Honour Killing

94. In which of the following states, nuclear power plants are not located?
(A) Karnataka and Gujarat
(B) Tamil Nadu and Uttar Pradesh
(C) Rajasthan and Maharashtra
(D) Punjab and Haryana

95. Which country will host the football World Cup 2014?
(A) Germany
(B) Italy
(C) Brazil
(D) United Kingdom

96.‘Natya – Shastra’, the main source of India’s classical dances was written by:
(A) Narad Muni
(B) Bharat Muni
(C) Abhinav Gupta
(D) Tandu Muni

97. NASA has recently discovered a planet. The name of the planet is
(A) Quintana
(B) Goldilocks
(C) Kepler 186f

98. Name the Italian Ambassador to India who gave an affidavit to Supreme Court to the effect that the two Italian marines accused of killing two Indian fishermen will come back to India after casting their votes in Italy?
(A) Daniele Mancini
(B) Massimiliano Lattore
(C) Salvatore Girrone
(D) Giulio Terzi

99. Who is the new Pope at the Vatican?
(A) Benedict XVI
(B) Greogry
(C) John Paul II
(D) Cardinal Jorge Bergoglio

100. Which two numbers together form ‘binary language’ used in computers?
(A) 0 and 1
(B) 1 and 2
(D) 1 and 9
(C) 0 and 9

101. What is the full form of DNA?
(A) Deoxyribonucleic agent
(B) Deoxyribonuclear acid
(C) Deoxyribonucleus acid
(D) Deoxyribonucleic acid

102.Match the following:
1. My Experiments with Truth
2. Mein Kampf
3. My Life – A Spoken Autobiography
4. The Diary of a Young Girl
5. Adolf Hitler
6. Fidel Castro
7. Anne Frank
8. Mahatama Gandhi

(A) A-2, B-3, C-4, D-1
(B) A-1, B-2, C-3, D-4
(C) A-2, B-4, C-1, D-3
(D) A-2, B-4, C-3, D-1

103. Who is the founder of the popular social networking site, Twitter?
(A) Charles Babbage
(B) Jack Dorsey
(C) Bill Gates
(D) M. Zuckerberg

104. Suez Canal connects
(A) Mediterranean sea and Red sea
(B) Mediterranean sea and Black sea
(C) Baltic sea and Red sea
(D) Baltic sea and Black sea

105. Which Hindi writer is known by the name of “Nirala”?
(A) SuryakantTripathi
(B) Jaishankar Prasad
(C) Sumitranandan Pant
(D) Hazariprasad Dwivedi

106. The Book ‘Courts and their Judgements’ was written by:
(A) Arun Shourie
(B) Gakendra Gadkar
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Henry Dunant

107. The International Red Cross and Red Crescent Movement was born out of the efforts made by:
(A) John Ibrahim
(B) Henry Truman
(C) Churchil
(D)Henry Dunant

108. Which of the following is a permanent member of the Security Council?
(A) India
(B) France
(C) Germany
(D) Japan

109. India has largest deposits of ________ in the world.
(A) Gold
(B) Copper
(C) Mica
(D) Silver

110. How many Lok Sabha seats are allocated to state of Rajasthan?
(A) 33
(B) 25
(C) 30
(D) 21

111. Which scientist discovered the radioactive element radium?
(A) Isaac Newton
(B) Albert Einstein
(C) Benjamin Franklin
(D) Marie Curie

112. Pulitzer prize is awarded for outstanding work in the field of:
(A) Science and Technology
(B) Environmental Studies
(C) Literature and Journalism
(D) International Understanding

113. Who wrote the famous book – ‘We the people’?
(A) T. N. Kaul
(B) J. R. D. Tata
(C) Khushwant Singh
(D) Nani Palkhivala

114. Who was the first Speaker of Lok Sabha?
(A) M. A. Ayyangar
(B) G. V. Mavalankar
(C) Sardar Hukum Singh
(D) Bali Ram Bhagat

115. The chief constituent of gobar gas is:
(A) Ethane
(B) Methane
(C) Hydrogen
(D) Nitrogen

Directions for Questions 116-122: Read the passage given below and answer the questions:

One of South America’s mysteries is Easter Island. Easter Island, also called Rapa Nui and Isla de Pascua, 3,600 km (2,237 mi) west of Chile, is a volcanic island with an interesting and partly unknown history. The island was named by the Dutch explorer Jacob Roggeveen because he encountered it on Easter Sunday 1722. He was the first European to find the island. The official name of the island, Isla de Pascua, means Easter Island in Spanish. This island is famous because of the approximately 887 huge statues which were found there. The statues consist of heads and complete torsos, the largest of which weighs 84 tons! These monuments, called moai, were carved out of compressed volcanic ash, called tuff, which was found at a quarry at a place called Rano Raraku. Statues are still being found. Some of the monuments were left only half-carved. Nobody knows why Rano Raraku was abandoned. It is thought that the statures were carved by the ancestors of the modern Polynesian inhabitants. But the purpose of the statues and the reason they were abandoned remain mysteries.

116. Who named the island “Easter Island”?
(A) An Indian explorer
(B) A Dutch explorer
(C) The original inhabitants
(D) Rano Raraku

117. Who was Jacob Roggeveen?
(A) A European who found the island
(B) An explorer who named the island
(C) A person who carved several statues
(D) Both (A) & (B) are correct

118. What are moai?
(A) Ancestors of the current inhabitants
(B) Quarries on the island
(C) Statues on the island
(D) Volcanic ashes

119. Why isn’t the exact number of statues known?
(A) The island is too big to explore
(B) Statues are still being found
(C) Some statues were taken away
(D) None of the above

120. What are the statues made of?
(A) Uncompressed volcanic ash
(B) Tuff
(C) Clay
(D) Sedimentary rocks

121. Why the quarry where the compressed volcanic ash was found abandoned?
(A) Nobody knows about it
(B) Because the quarry became empty
(C) Because of a curse
(D) Because of water logging

122. Rano Raraku is:
(A) The name of the Dutch explorer
(B) The name of an Indian warrior
(C) The name of the place in Easter Island
(D) The name of a place in Vanuatu Islands

123. To bite one’s lips
(A) to feel sorry
(B) to laugh at others
(C) to be angry
(D) to doubt

124. To mince words
(A) to make matters difficult
(B) to win over people
(C) to be blunt
(D) to talk in an indirect way

125. To die in harness
(A) die while being active
(B) die while in penury
(C) die while fighting
(D) die while in youth

126. A bread and butter letter is
(A) an appointment letter
(B) a contract termination letter
(C) a letter to thank a host
(D) a request to get donation for a noble cause

127. As the crow flies
(A) to wander in jungles
(B) in a straight line
(C) to protect environment
(D) to travel to a foreign land

128. Cool as a cucumber
(A) not nervous or emotional
(B) caught cold
(C) was happy
(D) was scared

129. Ran in the same groove
(A) promoted each other
(B) clashed with each other
(C) moved in harmony
(D) moved in different directions

Are You Interested in India's Best DU LLB Coaching?

Delhi Law Academy conducts India's best DU LLB Coaching. We have coached thousands of students to success in DU LLB. With some of India's most qualified faculty and the best technology, DLA's Online DU LLB Coaching is the right choice!

130. What is the opposite of Progressive?
(A) conservative
(B) prolegomenon
(C) proclamation
(D) proscriptive

131. What is the opposite of Sedate?
(A) excite
(B) shy
(C) mobile
(D) inebriate


133. What is the opposite of Lascivious?
(A) manifest
(B) devout
(C ) whip
(D) chaste

134. POLYGLOT -is someone who
(A) has more than one spouse
(B) drinks too much
(D) plays more than one sport
(D) Speaks many language

135. RIPARIAN— relates to
(A) horses
(B) river banks
(C) religious belief
(D) water sports

136. EQUESTRIAN— relates to
(A) birds
(B) tourism
(C ) horses
(D) water sports

137. The four sentences given below are jumbled constituent sentences of a paragraph. Read each sentence carefully and then pick the option in which the sentences would form a best sequence
i. This clearly indicates that the brains of men and women are organised differently in the way they process speech.
ii. Difference in the way men and women process language is of special interest to brain researchers.
iii. However r, women are more likely than men to suffer axphysia when the front part of the brain is damaged.
iv. It has been known that axphasia—a kind of speech disorder—is more common in men than in women when the left side of the brain is damaged in an accident or after a stroke
(A) ii, i, iv, ii
(B) iv, i, iii, i
(C) iv iii, i, I
(D) ii,iv, iii, i

138. Choose the grammatically correct sentence from the options given below:
(A) Surprisingly, given the recent labour problems in the factory, the factory manager has enjoyed considerable support from they who had previously challenged his leadership.
(B) Surprisingly, given the recent labour problems in the factory, the factory manager has enjoyed considerable support from them who had previously challenged his leadership.
(C) Surprisingly, given the recent labour problems in the factory, the factory manager has enjoyed considerable support from he who had previously challenged his leadership.
(D) Surprisingly, given the recent labour problems in the factory, the factory manager has enjoyed considerable support from those who had previously challenged his leadership.

139. Select the nearly same meaning for the word – Horrendous
(A) Beautiful
(B) coherent
(C) support
(D) dreadful

140. Select the nearly same meaning for the phrase – ‘A fir crack of the whip’
(A) to go out for morning walk
(B) to be routed
(C) to get a fair chance
(D) to get unexpected success

DIRECTIONS: (Question Nos. 141 & 142) In each question, a word with its contextual usage is provided. Pick the work from among the alternatives that is the most appropriate substitute for the question word in the given context and mark its number as your answer.

141. INUNDATE: The popular star had so many fans that his office was inundated with calls and letters on his birthday.
(A) Immersed
(B) Flooded
(C) Crowded
(D) Overwhelmed

142. IMPROMPTU: He has the gift of the gab and even his impromptu speeches receive thunderous applause.
(A) Extempore
(B) Erroneous
(C) Instinctive
(D) Voluntary

143. If a person says, “All of our knowledge brings us closer to ignorance”, he implies
(A) The more we learn, the less we know.
(B) Too much knowledge leads to ignorance.
(C) The more we learn, the more we realise how little we know.
(D) Ignorance is the stepping stone to knowledge.

144. Choose the odd one out
(A) Illusion
(B) Allusion
(C) Delusion
(D) Hallucination

145. Mr. Handsome was guilty of embezzlement. It means that Mr. Handsome
(A) Did not pay his bills
(B) Misappropriated the funds, money or assets he was entrusted with
(C) Engaged in circulating black money in the economy
(D) Misreported educational qualification

146. If the speed of a train is 92.4 kmph, how much distance would be covered by it in 20 minutes?
(A) 30,800 meters
(B) 31,800 meters
(C) 32,200 meters
(D) 32,800 meters

147. An article is sold at a loss of 5%. If it is sold at Rs. 72 more, then there would be a profit of 4%. What is the actual price of the article?
(A) Rs. 500
(B) Rs. 600
(C) Rs. 700
(D) Rs. 800

148. In a class of 90 students, 40 students take English only, 25 take Punjabi only and 15 take no language. How many students take both the languages?
(A) 5
(B) 10
(C ) 15
(D) None of these

149. In a family, father is 5 years older than mother and mother’s age now is thrice the age of the daughter. The daughter is now 10 years old. What was the age of the father when the daughter was born?
(A) 25
(B) 30
(C) 35
(D) 40

150. The average age of 5 members of a family is 20 years. The youngest member of the family is 4 years old. Average age of all the members of the family excluding the youngest member is:
(A) 24
(B) 30
(C) 32
(D) 40

151. The difference between two positive numbers is 10 and the ratio between them is 5:3. The product of the two numbers is:
(A) 375
(B) 325
(C) 275
(D) 125

152. A man buys an article and sells it at a loss of 10%. Had he bought it for 20% less and sold it for Rs 55 more, he would have made a profit of 40%. The cost price of the article is:
(A) Rs. 200
(B) Rs. 225
(C) Rs. 250
(D) Rs. 300

153. The cost prices of two types of tea are Rs 180 per kg. and Rs 200 per kg. respectively. On mixing them in the ratio of 5:3, the mixture is sold at Rs 210 per kg. In the whole transaction, the gain percentage is:
(A) 10%
(B) 11%
(C) 20%
(D) 12%

154. If it is true that ‘neither Rama is a brother of Krishna, nor is he a lecturer, then which one of the following statements is true?
(A) Rama is not a brother of Krishna, but he is a lecturer
(B) Rama is a brother of Krishna, but he is not a lecturer
(C) Rama is a brother of Krishna and he is a lecturer
(D) Rama is not a brother of Krishna and he is not a lecturer

155. Who wrote the book India Wins Freedom?
(A) M Hidayatulla
(B) MC Chhagla
(C) Abul Kalam Azad
(D) Fakruddin Ali Ahmed

156. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Ram, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal uncle”. How is the speaker related to Ram’s father?
(A) Sister-in-law
(B) Wife
(C) Sister
(D) None of these

157. If Attack is coded as “BUUBDL”, How is peace coded?

158. The fathers of five students A, B, C, D and E have different professions i.e. teaching, music, medicine, law and architecture. A’s father is not an architect but E’s father is a singer. B’s father teaches while C’s father practices medicine. D’s father is not a lawyer. Whose father is a lawyer?
(A) A’s
(B) B’s
(C) C’s
(D) E’s

DIRECTIONS: (Question Nos. 159 to 161) Read the following data and use it for answering the questions that follows:

Six people A, B, C, D, E and F live in a six-storey building, each on one floor. The following statements describe where they stay

1. B lives on floor 6
2. A is equally far from C and E
3. F is an engineer
4. D is two floors above F
5. C does not live next to an engineer

159. Which of the following is true?
(A) C lives on floor 4
(B) A is exactly between D and F
(C) E is on floor 5
(D) B is on floor 5

160. If statement 5 above is disregarded, which floor does A stay on?
(A) 5
(B) 4
(C) 3
(D) 1

161. Which of the following is not true?
(A) F is not next to D
(B) C is between B and D
(C) E lives on floor 2
(D) B is on floor 6

162. Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. How is the woman related to this man?
(A) Mother
(B) Aunt
(B) Sister
(D) Daughter

163. Each vowel of the word ADJECTIVE is substituted with the next letter of the English V alphabetical series, and each consonant is substituted with the letter preceding it. How many vowels are present in the new arrangement?
(A) None
(B) One
(C) Two
(D) Three

164. If ‘Apple’ is called ‘Orange’, ‘Orange’ is called ‘Peach’, Peach is called ‘Potato’, ‘Potato’ is r called ‘Banana’, ‘Banana’ is called ‘Papaya’ and ‘Papaya’ is called ‘Guava’, which of the following grows underground?
(A) Potato
(B) Guava
(C) Apple
(D) Banana

165. On Monday I told my friend that I would start for Kolkata day after tomorrow and reach there the day before the day that comes after the day after tomorrow. On which day would I reach Kolkata?
(A) Wednesday
(B) Thursday
(C) Friday
(D) Saturday

166. Singing is to Speaking as Poetry is to:
(A) Music
(B) Drama
(C) Friday
(D) Rhyme

167. Mr. A meets Mr. B. B is the father of a son C and a daughter D. E is the mother of A. C is married and has one son. E is the daughter-in law of B. How is A related to B?
(A) Uncle
(B) Grandson
(C) Son
(D) Nephew

168. If a person is standing at the sixth number in the queue from both ends the total persons in the queue are:
(A) 9
(B) 11
(C) 12
(D) 13

169. The time by my watch is 1:30. If hour hand points towards the west, which direction will minute hand point?
(A) north-east
(B) north-west
(C) south-east
(D) south-west

170. Clouds: Rain as
(A) Wind: Hurricane
(B) Thunder: Lightning
(C) Water: H20
(D) Sky: Universe

171. Make a meaningful word out of YOSILOCOG?
(A) Psychology
(B) Physiology
(C) Sociology
(D) Statehood

172. Coach : sportsman ::______: Arjun
(A) Bhisham Pitamah
(B) Yudhishthara
(C) Bhima
(D) Dronacharya

DIRECTIONS: (Question Nos. 173 to 175) Read the following data and use it for answering the questions below:

Four people A, B, C and D have together got Rs. 100 with them. A and B have got as much money as C and D put together. A has got more money than B. C has half as money as D has. A has Rs. 5 more than D.

173. Who has got the most money?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) Cannot be determined

174. How much does B have?
(A) 11.66
(B) 13.50
(C) 32.30
(D) 10.30

175. Who has got the second biggest sum?
(A) A
(B) B
(C) C
(D) D

Download DU LLB Past Year Papers with Full Solutions

We have compiled the DU LLB Papers (2003 onwards) into one neat, beautifully formatted bundle for you to download, view offline or print. You can download it by clicking below

Download DU LLB Question Papers & Solutions