DU LLB 2003 Question Paper

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DU LL.B. 2003 Question Paper

Time: 2 hours Total Marks: 700

1. Principle: The owner of immovable property is entitled to the column of airspace above the surface. However, the owner’s right to air and space above his land is restricted to such height as is necessary for the ordinary use and enjoyment of hislandand the structures on it.
Facts: Galaxy Cable TV Network Company is providing cable connections to their customers. One of the cable passes over the house of Mr. Vasanth Bhat. He is not a customer of the Network Company. The cable is neither attached to his house nor to any projection thereof. It is at a distance of 20 feet above the terrace of Mr. Bhat’s two storeyed house. Because of the cable. Mr. Bhat’s son Sachin is unable to fly a kite from the terrace. Mr. Bhat requested the Network Company to change the position of the cable. But the company did not bother to change it. One evening Mr. Bhat cut the cable and cleared the airspace above his house. The Network company suffered a loss of about Rs. 1000/-. They bring a legal action against Mr. Bhat for recovery of loss suffered. Decision:
a. The Network Company will succeed because the cable was not interfering with the ordinary use and enjoyment of Mr. Bhat’s property.
b. The Network Company will not succeed because Mr. Bhat has every right to ensure proper enjoyment of his property by removing objects causing trespass in the air above his property to a reasonable extent.
c. The Network Company will succeed because laying cables is widely practised in all cities like electricity and telephone wires.

2. Principle: When a person consents to the infliction of some hai m upon himself, he has no remedy in tort.
Facts: The plaintiff was at a motor car race being held on a track owned by the company. During the race there was a collision between two cars. One of which was thrown among spectator thereby injuring the plaintiff. Plaintiff filed a suit against the company.
a. Company is liable
b. Company is not liable
c. Company is not liable because plaintiff impliedly took the risk of injury.
d. Company is not liable because it owned no duty of care to the plaintiff.

3. Principle: Everybody is under a legal obligation to take reasonable care to avoid act or omission which he can foresee would injure his neighbour. The neighbour for this purpose is any person whom he should have in his mind as likely to be affected by his act.
Facts: Ram, while rushing to board of a moving train, pushed Shyam who was walking along with a heavy package, containing fire crackers. As a result, the package slipped from his hand and crackers exploded injuring a boy standing closely. A suit was filed against Ram, by the boy, claiming damages.
a. Ram is not liable, because he did not know anything about the contents of the package.
b. Ram is not liable, because Shyam should not have carried such a package in a crowded place like Railway Station.
c. Ram is liable, because Ram is under an obligation not to push Shyam.

4. Principle: A contract is an agreement enforceable by law.
Facts: Anita invited Beena to her house for dinner. Beena accepted the invitation but later did not go. On Beena’s failure to attend, Anita filed a suit against Beena for the price of non-consumed food. Can this agreement be enforced by law?
a. This agreement can not be enforced as it is just a social agreement.
b. This agreement can be enforced as Amita can recover the price of non-consumed food.
c. This agreement cannot be enforced as Beena did not accept the invitation in writing.

5. Principle: Theft is the dishonest moving of property with the intention of taking it out for the person’s possession without his consent.
Fact: A gives his woollen coat to a dry cleaner along with his wife’s sarees for the purpose of dry cleaning. He is told to collect the clothes after two days. When he comes after two days, he finds that he does not have enough money to pay the dry cleaner. But since due to the winter, he needs the coat desperately, he surreptitiously places the coat near his goods so that he can quietly take it without the knowledge of the dry cleaner.
a. A is guilty of theft.
b. A is not guilty of theft.
c. A is not guilty of theft but has to pay compensation to the dry cleaner.

6. Principle: A person is guilty of cheating, when he fraudulently induces another person to deliver the latter’s property to him.
Facts: ‘A’ falsely represented to B, a shop-owner that he was an officer from the Commercial Tax Department. While examining the accounts of the shop ‘A’ showed interest in buying a microwave oven on instalment basis. B readily agreed with the hope that he would get a favourable assess¬ment from A regarding his tax liability. A paid the first instalment and took the Microwave oven and disappeared form the scene. The police, however, managed to catch hold of A and prosecute him for cheating.
a. A committed cheating, because he induced B to part with the Microwave oven, posing as though that he was from the Commercial Taxes Department.
b. A committed cheating, because he did not pay the subsequent instalment.
c. A did not comitt cheating, because B handed over the article in order to get a favourable assessment from A.

7. Facts:
Catareena, a singer contracts with John, the manager of the theater, to sing at his theater for two nights in every week during the next two months, who engages to pay her 100 rupees for each night’s performance. On the 6th night, Catareena wilfully absents herself from the theater and John in consequence, rescinds the Contract. LP: A person who rightfully rescinds a contract is entitled to compensation for any damage which he has sustained through the non-fulfilment of the contract.
Decision: Is John entitled to claim compensation?
a. Yes, because he has suffered loss
b. No
c. Yes, because he has rightfully rescinded the contract.

8. Principle: If both the parties agree upon the same thing in the same sense, the parties are bound by their agreement.
Facts: Sanjay wrote to Hrithik offering to sell his horse for Rs. 20,000/-. Hrithik wrote back, “I agree to purchase your black horse for Rs. 20,000.”
a. The parties are bound by their agreement as they agree on the price and also on the goods for sale.
b. The parties are not bound by the agreement as the object is uncertain.
c. The parties are bound by their agreement as the colour of the horse is only a question of detail.

9. L.P.: Whoever causes death by doing an act with the Intention of causing death commits the offence of culpable homicide.
Facts: A, knows Z to be behind a bush. B does not know it. A, with an Intention to cause Z’s death Induces B to fire at the bush. B fires & kills Z.
a. B is guilty of culpable homicide & not A.
b. B is not guilty of any offence, but A is guilty of the offence of culpable homicide as he induced B to fire with the Intention of causing Z’s death.
c. None of the above

10. Facts:
Jack has a bad day at work, and is yelled at by all his superiors. On the way back from office, he gets stuck in a traffic jam, which adds to his stress. As Jack nears his home, a person tries to run across the road, owing to the stress, Jack runs into the person, grievously injuring him. He is prosecuted and he takes the defence that at the time of doing the act he was really stressed and was incapable of knowing what he was doing was wrong or contrary to law.
Principle: Nothing is an offence, which is done by a person, who at the time of doing it, by the reason of unsoundness of mind is incapable of knowing the nature of the act, or that what he is doing is either wrong or contrary to law.
a. Jack would not be liable, as he knows not what he did at the time of the incident
b. Jack would be liable as he is not of unsound mind and was capable of knowing the consequences of his act.
c. Jack would be liable as he took the stress he felt at office out on the pedestrian.
d. Jack would not be liable as the pedestrian should have waited until Jack had passed.

11. Facts: A constable see Julie carrying some goods. Seeing Julie behaving in a peculiar manner, the constable becomes suspicious, approaches her and asks to inspect the goods. Julie refuses and tries to leave the scene, but the constable persists and there is a scuffle. Julie is arrested and later released, since the goods are right. She sues the constable.
Principle: Nothing is an offence, which is done by a person who is justified by law, or who by reason or by mistake of fact and not by mistake of law in good faith believes himself to be justified by law in doing it.
a. The constable is liable since he should have obtained a search warrant before searching Julie.
b. The constable is liable since he should not have arrested Julie unless he had some reasonable basis to suspect that she was doing something wrong.
c. The constable is not liable since he would have immunity as a policeman.
d. The constable is not liable since he believed that he was legally justified in arresting Julie.

12. Facts: Raju’s son forges Raju’s signature on some documents and presents them to the bank. The bank accepts them, but after realising that the signatures are forged, threaten Raju’s son with criminal action. To avoid this, Raju agrees to mortgage his property to the bank so that the bank may win the best branch competition. Raju now claims that this mortgage agreement is voidable because it has been entered into because of undue influence. Decide.
Principle: A contract is induced by undue influence where one party being in a position to dominate the will of another, uses that position to dominate the will of the other party to induce him to enter into the contract. A contract entered into because of undue influence is voidable.
a. The agreement is valid because it was Raju’s son and not the bank who was responsible for the entire situation.
b. The agreement is voidable because Raju’s son deserves to go to jail, and Raju should not have intervened in the matter.
c. The agreement is voidable because the bank has exercised undue influence.
d. The agreement is not voidable because the bank’s threat was not to Raju but to his son.

13. Facts: Harry goes to the local police station to lodge a complaint. However the constables of the police station are fast asleep. Despite all his attempts to wake them up, they remain asleep. He, therefore decides to complain to the higher authorities, and on his way out he picks up a pair of handcuffs to show the incompetence of the police. He is prosecuted for theft.
Principle: Whoever, intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without the person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
a. Harry would not be liable since he did not have any dishonest intention.
b. Harry would not be liable since the constables were careless when they should have been alert.
c. Harry would be 1iable since he took property that was not his, without the owner’s consent
d. Harry would be liable as he should have made better attempts to wake up the constable rather than complain.

14. Principle: No Person should be condemned unheard.
Facts: There was a complaint against a Government servant that he had accepted bribe from a person of showing favour of him. A show cause notice was issued to the Government servant asking him show cause why disciplinary proceedings should not be initiated against him. He submitted a representation in reply to the show cause notice. The officer in-charge then submitted his report to the disciplinary authority to the effect that the charge was proved. The Government servant was then dismissed from service. He contents that he was not given an opportunity of being heard. Decide.
a. Govt, servant can be removed as he had been given an opportunity of being heard.
b. He can’t be removed because a show cause notice is not sufficient opportunity of being heard.

15. Legal Principle: The court has power to issue an injuction to prohibit a child marriage from being performed.
Facts: A marriage is performed between A and B. A is of 14 yrs. of age and B is 17 yrs. of age. X a public spirited person filed a suit to declare the said marriage void. Is the suit maintainable?
a. No, because court has power to issue injuction and not to declare marriage as valid and void
b. No, because the marriage is performed with the consent of their parents.
c. Yes, because the policy of the law is to prevent the child marriages.
d. None of the above.

16. Principle-1: Master is liable for the act of the employee/servant.
Principle-2: The husband or the wife are not responsible for any commission of wrong on each other.
Fact: H is a manager of a Hotel belonging to X. Because of the negligence of H, a folding chair fell from the first floor to the ground floor injuring the Receptionist of the Hotel, named W who is the wife of H. W asks for compensation from X and H.
a. Both X and H are responsible to compensate W
b. X is only responsible to compensate W.
c. H is only responsible to compensate W.
d. No one is responsible to compensate W.

17. Principle: When a person represents to another something as a true fact knowing fully well that it is not true, he is guilty of fraud. The person subjected to fraud may avoid an agreement.
Facts: A presents a horse for sale. The horse is kept on display so that anyone interested could examine it. The horse has a cracked hoof and it is cleverly concealed by the owner. B tells A “If you do not deny it, I shall assume that the horse is sound.” A keeps silent. B purchases the horse.
a. B can avoid the agreement on discovery of the defect.
b. B cannot avoid the agreement, as the horse was on display and he could have satisfied himself of its soundness by personal examination.
c. B cannot avoid the agreement as A did not make any representation to mislead him. He merely kept silence so that B could find things out by himself.

18. Who issues a chargesheet?
a. Magistrate
b. Court
c. Police
d. Superintendent of Police.

19. Accused’ means .
a. Plaintiff
b. Defendant
c. Alleged wrongdoer
d. Who has committed the crime.

20. Making a wrong statement in an affidavit is
a. Offence
b. No offence
c. Perjury
d. Counter claim

21. Law prescribes minimum age for marriage of a Hindu Male. This is .
a. 15 years
b. 18 years
c. 21 years
d. 25 years

22. The rule by which a person is liable for the act of another is called
a. Absolute liability
b. Vicarious liability
c. Strict Liability
d. Rule of other’s liability

23. Extradition’ is
a. Surrender of a criminal
b. Surrendering a fugitive to other country
c. A process of transferring witnesses from one country’ to other
d. Transfer of a case to international court.

Who headed the Delimitation Commission-2002 of the Government?
a. J. Kuldip Singh
b. J. S.K. Mahajan
c. J. Venkatachalaiya
d. J. Rajendra Babu

25. Competition Act. 2002 replaced the following existing law .
a. Arbitration Act, 1940
b. SEBI Act, 1992
c. Foreign Exchange Regulation Act
d. MRTP Act, 1969.

26. ‘Freedom of Information Act’ was enacted in .
a. 2000
b. 1999
c. 2001
d. 2002

27. The writ which requires a person to be produced before court or nearest magistrate within 24 hours of arrest is .
a. Mandamus
b. Habeas Corpus
c. Quo warranto
d. have the body

28. Crime of unlawfully damaging or destroying other’s property by fire is called
a. arson
b. sedition
c. treason
d. mischief

29. To pass from inside the someone’s house without his consent is called .
a. passage
b. trespass
c. easement
d. none of these

30. The rule of having only one wife is called
a. monoandry
b. bigamy
c. polyandry
d. monogamy

31. The principle of having more than one wife is called
a. polygamy
b. bigamy
c. polyandry
d. monogamy

32. ‘Mens Rea’ is a concept in criminal law. What does it mean?
a. Criminal intention
b. guilty mind is necessary for a criminal act
c. A man’s wrong act
d. mental state of criminal

33. Damage means
a. Compensation
b. Loss of some goods
c. Harm
d. Legal injury

34. Who stands the opposite of plaintiff?
a. defendant
b. accused
c. police
d. prosecution

35. Which of the following courses is not being taught in Delhi University’s Law Faculty at present?
a. LL.M
b. LL.D
c. MCL
d. DCL

36. What does ‘affidavit’ mean?
a. Disclosed facts
b. Voluntary declaration of facts before court
c. A petition for divorce
d. Confession of a guilt

37. ‘Negligence’ is a specific tort. It means .
a. A tort
b. Breach of the duty of care causing damage to someone
c. A failure to do an act for which one is
d. Interference in someone else’s rights.

38. Which body regulates legal education in the country?
a. UGC
b. Universities themselves
c. Bar Council of India
d. Council for Indian Legal Education (CILE)

39. ‘ Vishakha v. State of Rajasthan’ is a famous recent case. It deals with .
a. Rape
b. Murder
c. Sexual harassment at workplace
d. Unnatural offences

40. One against whom a case is filed is
a. Plaintiff
b. Defendant
c. Accused
d. Wrongdoer

41. Who issues warrant?
a. a magistrate
b. a judge
c. the court
d. police

42. Abettor is a person who________________
a. commits a crime
b. participates in a crime
c. aids or encourages in committing a crime
d. witness to a crime

43. An ‘Accessory’ is
a. A secondary thing
b. A person aiding or contributing in crime
c. A person involved in criminal conspiracy
d. A criminal

44. Police takes you in custody. It forcefully makes you to say something against yourself. This act is
a. self-incrimination
b. double jeopardy
c. forceful confession
d. inculpatory statement

45. Transfer of a movable property takes place in
a. Lease
b. Sale
c. Mortgage
d. Hypothecation

46. Meaning of‘Intestate’is
a. Person dying without will.
b. Person who has never made his will.
c. Person unable to make a wifi.
d. Beneficiary of a will.

47. An act done beyond authority is
a. Intra vires
b. Super authority act
c. Ultra vires
d. abnormal act

‘Embezzlement’ means
a. Theft of Government Property
b. Fraudulent taking of some property of the company/firm
c. Extorting money from a person
d. Theft of any property

49. A convict is a person
a. Found guilty of crime
b. Found guilty of crime and is serving a sentence therefore
c. A jailed criminal
d. An accused

50. A court issues a to enforce attendance of some witness.
a. Warrant
b. Summon
c. Order
d. Guidelines

51. A writ of mandamus
a. directs a public authority to do its duty.
b. direct police authority to produce detained person
c. asks a person wrongful ly employed to vacate public office
d. directs an inferior court to act intra vires

52. A divorce between a Muslim Husband and wife is called
a. Talaq-ul-Sunnat
b. Taiaq
c. Talq-e-Sada
d. Divorce

53. FIR stand for
a. Fact Information Report
b. Further Information Report
c. Frequent Information Report
d. First Information Report.

54. Ignorance of law is
a. not an excuse in Indian Law
b. is an excuse in Indian Law
c. no such legal principle is followed in Indian Law
d. partly an excuse in Indian Law

55. An accused below the age of 18 years for committing an offence can be tried under:
a. Indian Penal Code (45 of 1860)
b. Juvenile Justice (Care and Protection of Children) Act, 2000
c. both (a) and (b)
d. being a minor, he is not be punished.

56. Magisterial
a. wretched
b. scant
c. dignified
d. remissness

57. Corroborate
a. contradict
b. confirm
c. discredit
d. dissimilar

58. Provoke
a. influence
b. decline
c. discourage
d. instigate

59. Interpret
a. to cause
b. exonerate
c. explain
d. exaggerate

60. Confess
a. admit
b. refuse
c. hide
d. transfer

61. Accuse
a. exonerate
b. impeach
c. to blame
d. to cause

62. Deceit
a. favourable
b. harmful
c. dishonesty
d. honesty

63. Infringe
a. obey
b. transgress
c. review
d. disobey

64. Rational
a. irrational
b. sane
c. prompt
d. active

65. He applogized __________not keeping the appointment
a. for
b. on
c. in
d. about

66. After the examination he________ disposed his books
a. off
b. with
c. of
d. away

67. He____ the crowd by leaving through the back door
a. missed
b. neglected
c. avoided
d. prevented

68. The minister gave an Iftar party as a goodwill _____
a. image
b. attitude
c. gesture
d. mission

69. Candidates who do not with the regulations will be disqualified.
a. comply
b. assent
c. perform
d. consent

70. From the___________ of the talks it was obvious that the deal would fall through.
a. outcome
b. outbreak
c. onset
d. outset

71. Those articles are______ from customs duty
a. discounted
b. dispensed
c. acquitted
d. exempted

72. The new term for old people nowadays is_______ citizens.
a. senior
b. geriatric
c. elderly
d. senile

73. They _______to say anything without consulting their lawyer
a. denied
b. refused
c. rejected
d. neglected

74. All the students _____him as their leader.
a. observed
b. found
c. acknowledged
d. praised

75. The pleasant trees and flowers_______ me of my rural childhood
a. recollected
b. reminded
c. remembered
d. commemorated

76. The grad was punished _________dereliction of duty.
a. of
b. over
c. for
d. from

77. People should be trained to throw their empty packets in the_____ bins.
a. junk
b. scrap
c. litter
d. dirt

78. Be careful that you don’t get___ by a bee among the flowers.
a. pricked
b. bitten
c. struck
d. stung

79. He was in no to listen to reason.
a. attitude
b. shape
c. feeling
d. mood

Direction: Following the passage, there are questions with four suggested answers. Shade the best answer.
Now, why should the shark, whose favorite meal is other fish, be dangerous to man? The answer lies perhaps in his being simply greedy and living in a world where speed is essential if you are to catch your dinner. There is little time, attacking at such speed, to identify your prey. And part of the explanation for the shark’s greed is that, unlike most other fish, he is not equipped with an air sack that automatically enables him to equalize his buoyancy so that he can rest at any depth whatever. If a shark stops swimming he sinks. Nature has endowed him with a faulty digestive process so that only about half of what he eats can be assimilated. Add all this up and you have an awesome combination of cartilage and sinews, capable of great speed, armed usually with a mouthful of razor-edged teeth, and requiring an immense intake of food to simply go on existing.
No wonder that a human being clumsily splashing on the surface is as welcome to the shark as a wounded fish, an old tin can, or even a piece of floating wood. It all helps to stoke up the boilers. Some claim that sharks are guided by their sense of smell: others that their sight is better than it was once thought to be. But the truth is that the shark has another highly developed sensing mechanism, known as the lateral line. This is a kind of receptive area running parallel with the spine and able to pick up vibrations as radars do. By trial and error the shark establishes through the use of this mechanism, the pattern of what is food and what is not.
Some species of shark are less sensitive than others. The Mako for instance, has been known to attack a wounded fish or some other prey with such savage speed as to drive himself aground or, mistaking a boat for something that can be eaten, he has left quantities of teeth embedded in the hard wood. Other species appear in the water as if by magic, but cautiously circle round, trying to identify the object. This is the moment when a swimmer has some chance to frighten off the shark by some unusual behaviour. Splashing, shouting, – almost anything is worth trying when you know for certain that when the shark makes up its mind to attack, there is practically no hope of escape. Dusk, or night-time is particularly dangerous for a swimmer. Like most fish, the shark feeds mainly between sundown and sunrise. When there is little or no visibility, he is likely to leave identification to his lateral line with possibly unfortunate
results for a swimmer.
When food is about, the shark often develops a hysterical feeding frenzy. I have seen sharks feeding on a school of sardines, turn on one another, tearing great chunks out of their neighbours. Once a shark is wounded others will join in the feast. The sea becomes a flaying, frothy mass of red-tinged water, torn with flapping fins and tails. It is not the moment for a quiet swim.

80. A shark is not like most other fish because
a. it can rest only in deep water.
b. it cannot rest.
c. it is greedier
d. it feeds at night.

81. Why does the shark eat enormous quantities of food?
a. It is a big fish and needs a lot of food.
b. It swims so fast that it catches a lot of food.
c. It only digests half the food it eats.
d. It doesn’t know what it is eating so it eats

82. Why does the shark attack men?
a. It swims so fast it does not always recognize what it is attacking.
b. It swims blindly and attacks because it is a violent creature.
c. Man is his favourite food.
d. Man is easier to catch than other fish.

83. What does the shark’s ‘lateral line’ help it to do?
a. See better than was once thought
b. Identify its food.
c. Avoid trial and error in attack.
d. Find the position of its prey.

84. The writer says that sometimes sharks
a. prefer eating themselves to other fish.
b. have a feeding party.
c. go wild if there is plenty of food.
d. love eating sardines.

Following the passage, there are questions with four suggested answers. Shade the best answer.
Easter Island is the loneliest place in the world. The nearest solid land the inhabitants can see is in the moon and planets. They have to travel farther than any other people to see that there really is land still closer. Therefore they live nearest to the stars and know more names of stars than of towns and countries in our world.
On this remote island, east of the sun and west of the moon, mankind once had one of its most curious ideas. No one knows who had it, and no one knows why. For it happened before Columbus led white men to America, and in doing so, opened the gates for voyages of exploration out into the great unknown Pacific. While our own race believed that the world ended at Gibraltar, there were other great navigators who knew better. In advance of their time they plowed unknown seas in the immense floating vacuum off the desolate coast of South America. Far out in it they found land, the loneliest little island in the world. They landed there, whetted their stone adzes and set about one of the most remarkable engineering projects of ancient times. They did not build fortresses or castles, or dams and wharves. They made gigantic stone figures in man’s likeness, as tall as houses and as heavy as railway trucks, they dragged them in great numbers cross country and set them up erect on huge stone terraces all over the island.
How did they manage this before the mechanical age? No one knows. But there stood the figures they had desired, towering into the sky, while the people fell. They buried their dead at the feet of the colossi they themselves had created. They
raised columns and buried themselves. Then one day the blows of the adze fell silent. They fell silent suddenly for the tools were left lying and many of the figures were only half finished. The mysterious sculptors disappeared into the dark mists of antiquity.
What happened?
I bent over my writing table for the thousandth time and let my eyes sail over the large scale chart of the Pacific. I was beginning to know this ocean now. There in the wild valleys of the Marquesas group of islands, just south of the Equator, I had lived for a year in native fashion and learned to see Nature with Polynesian eyes. There too I had heard for the first time old Tei Tetua’s stories of the man-god Tiki. And down in the Society Islands, among the palms of Tahiti, the great chief Teriieroo had once been my teacher. He had adopted me as his own son and taught me to respect his own race as my own And there, on the coral reef in the Tuamotu group, we had landed with the Kon-Tiki raft and learned that the salt sea had its inexorable treadmill, the route from South America out to those distant islands. However lonely the islands were, they all lay within the natural range of the Indians’ old balsa rafts.

85. Easter Island is the loneliest inhabited place in the world’ because
a. it has a very small population
b. it has no links with the outside world.
c. the inhabitants liked living in the dark mists of the past. ‘
d. for hundreds of miles there is no other land

86. The writer says that one of the results of Columbus’s discovery of America was that it
a. made men aware of the existence of the pacific Ocean
b. started the search for archaeological relics in the islands
c. permitted the Incas to venture forth in their crafts.
d. began to encourage men to explore a new world.

87. The early inhabitants of Easter island used adzes for
a. making terraces
b. carving stone
c. sharpening tools
d. digging soil.

88. The writer seems to have visited all the South Sea islands except the
a. Tuamotu group
b. Marquesas group
c. Galapagos Islands
d. Society Islands

89. The writer says that the lonely islands were all within range of
a. land
b. stars
c. their boats
d. South America

DU LLB 2003 Question Paper

90. Who distributes election symbols?
a. Chief Electoral Officer
b. Election Commission
c. Political Parties of National Level
d. Home Ministry

91. In which schedule law relating to 69% reservation is saved ?
a. IX
b. X
c. XI
d. XII

92. Who was responsible for introduction of Public Interest Litigation (P1L) in the country?
a. Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer
b. Justice P.N. Bhagwati
c. Justice Krishnaswamy
d. Justice R.S. Pathak

93. Who administers oath to the Governor?
a. Speaker of Assembly
b. Chief Justice of High Court
c. President
d. None of these

94. Who removes UPSC Chairman?
a. President
b. President on recommendation of Union Govt
c. President on recommendation of Supreme Court
d. Union Cabinet

95. A judge of the High Court is appointed by _____
a. President
b. President on advice of Chief Justice of India
c. Chief Justice of India in consultation with CJ of High Court
d. President on advice of CJI and CJ of High Court.

96. When the seats of President and Vice-president become vacant at the same time, who takes charge of the post of president.
a. Speaker of Lok Sabha
b. Leader of opposition
c. Chief Justice of India
d. None

97. Who presides over joint sitting of both houses of parliament?
a. Speaker of Lok Sabha
b. President of India
c. Chairman of Rajya Sabha
d. Minister of Parliamentary Affairs

98. Who determines about the disqualification of a member of parliament?
a. Election commission
b. Speaker of Lok Sabha
c. President
d. Supreme Court

99. Who is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha______
a. Vice-President
b. Leader of opposition
c. Minister of Law and Justice
d. None

100. If a Superior court thinks over a law made by legislature, this is called_ _______
a. Legal review
b. Judicial review
c. Court’s power to review legislative action
d. Juridical analysis of law

101. President writes his letter of resignation to _______
a. Vice-president
b. Chief Justice of India
c. Speaker of Lok Sabha
d. The parliament

102. In how many hours a person is to be presented before court after arrest?
a. 10 Hours
b. 24 Hours
c. 48 Hours
d. 72 Hours

103. Which article of the constitution contained in Part IV is least used article in the governance of the country?
a. Art. 51
b. Art. 44
c. Art. 51A
d. Art. 43A

104. President can issue an ordinance which shall remain in force .______
a. for 6 months
b. till the session of parliament begins
c. 14 days
d. upto 6 weeks after the session of parliament starts

105. ‘Indira Sawhney v. Union of India’ case is known as ______?
a. Mandal judgement
b. Sexual harassment case
c. Emergency case
d. None

106. To provide highest possible transparency in the functioning of the Supreme Court, which provision has been made?
a. Judges are allowed to use their will
b. Judges are provided with special emoluments alongwith salary.
c. Constitution empowers them to do anything
d. No political interference in judicial matters

President nominates two persons to the parliament. They should belong to ________
a. Minority Community
b. Anglo-Indian Community
c. Parsi Community
d. Budh,and Jain Community

108. President is a member of _______
a. Lok Sabha
b. Parliament
c. Rajya Sabha
d. Legislature

109. Which part of the constitution contains the provisions relating to Directive principles of state policy?
a. Part I
b. Part II
c. Part III
d. Part IV

110. A Judge of Supreme Court can be removed by ?
a. President’s order
b. Impeachment proceeding passed by Lok Sabha & Rajya Sabha
c. Proved misbehaviour or incapacity
d. Chief Justice of India

111. Rajya Sabha can withhold money bill for a period of
a. 14 days
b. 21 days
c. 1 month
d. Can’t withhold

112. The Law declared by the Supreme Court of India is binding upon all the courts subordinate to it in India
a. under article 141 of the Constitution of India
b. under article 139 of the Constitution of India
c. under article 132 of the Constitution of India
d. None of these.

113. Who among the following personalities was the Chairperson to review the working of the Constitution
a. Ram Jethmalani
b. Justice Venkatachaliah
c. Pramod Mahajan
d. L.K. Advani

114. The right to education under article 21A was inserted in the Constitution of India by
a. Constitution (Eighty-fourth Amendment) Act, 2001
b. Constitution (Eighty-fifth Amendment) Act, 2001
c. Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
d. It was original article in the Constitution of India.

115. Which one of the following is considered as the Guardian of the Constitution of India?
a. President of India
b. Lok Sabha
c. Supreme Court
d. Chief Justice of India

116. Planning in India derives its objectives from the
a. Directive Principles of State Policy
b. Preamble of the Constitution
c. Report of the Comptroller and Auditor General
d. Report of the Governors of the States

117. India is called a “Republic” because
a. the Union Ministers are accountable to Lok Sabha
b. the sovereignty vests in people of India
c. the Union Ministers hold office only during the pleasure of the President
d. the President, is head of the State, in India

118. The State shall provide free and compulsory education to all children of the age of six to fourteen years:
a. under article 21
b. under article 32
c. under article 21A
d. under article 14

119. A political party is officially accorded the status of an opposition party in Lok Sabha, only if it secures at least
a. 4 per cent of the seats
b. 10 per cent of the seats
c. 5 per cent of the seats
d. 15 per cent of the seats

120. The State shall endeavour to provide early childhood care and education for all children until they complete the age of six years: This provision is made in the Constitution 86th Amendment in
a. article 45 of the Constitution
b. article 245 of the Constitution
c. article 345 of the Constitution
d. article 145 of the Constitution

121. The Supreme Court of India reviews its own Judgment or Pronouncement under
a. Article 137
b. Article 132
c. Article 139
d. Article 141

122. Economic Justice, an important objective of the Constitution of India, is embeded in the
a. Preamble
b. Preamble and Directive Principles
c. Directive Principles
d. Fundamental Rights

123. According to the Constitution of India, concentration of wealth violates
a. the Directive Principles
b. the concept of the Welfare State
c. the spirit of the Constitution
d. the right to freedom.

124. The Constitution of India provides a status to Hindi as:
a. the official language of the Union
b. a language for inter-State communications
c. the national language of India
d. the language of communication between the Union and the States

125. The concept of “Hindutva’ is well interpreted by the Supreme Court in
a. the Minerva Mills case
b. the Babri Masjid case
c. the Golak Nath case
d. the Manohar Joshi case

126. The duties and functions assigned to the Attorney General of India are
a. to regulate State expenditure and accounts
b. to arbitrate in disputes between the Union and the States
c. to render legal advice to the Union Government
d. both (b) and (c).

127. A Member of Parliament can be disqualified on grounds of defection:
(1) if he voluntarily resigns from membership of the Party on whose ticket he contested the election
(2) if he votes or abstains from voting contrary to directions issued by the political party without prior permission
(3) if he takes a stand contrary to the stand of the Party
(4) if he joins a political party other than the one on whose ticket he contested the election and got elected:
a. 2, 3 and 4
b. 1,3 and 4
c. 1,2 and 4
d. 1, 2 and 3

128. Which of the following Schedule appended to the Constitution of India, contains the list of regional languages:
a. Eighth Schedule
b. Second Schedule
c. Fifth Schedule
d. Seventh Schedule

129. The source/sources from which money flow into the Consolidated Fund of India is/are:
a. revenues
b. repayment of loans
c. fresh loans
d. all the above

Study the following table carefully and answer the questions given below: (Q. No. 130-135)

DU LLB 2003

130. In which year was the disbursment of loans of the banks put together is least compared to the average disbursement of loans over the year?
a. 1982
b. 1983
c. 1984
d. 1985
e. 1996

131. What was the percentage increase of disbursement of loans of all banks together from 1984 to 1985?
a. 110
b. 14
c. 90 10/11
d. 10
e. None of these

132. In which year was the total disbursement of loans of banks A & B exactly equal to the total disbursement of banks D and E?
a. 1983
b. 1986
c. 1984
d. 1982
e. None of these

133. In which of the following banks did the disbursement of loans continuously increase over the years?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

134. If the minimum target in the preceding years was 20% of the total disbursement of loans? How many banks reached the target in 1983?
a. 1
b. 3
c. 2
d. 4
e. None of these

135. In which bank was disbursement more than 25% of the disbursement of all banks together in 1986?
a. A
b. B
c. C
d. D
e. E

Directions: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below it: (Q. No. 136-140) From amongst six boys A, B, C, D, E and F and five girls P, Q, R, S and T, a team of six is to be selected under the following conditions:
(1) A and D have to be together.
(2) C cannot go with S.
(3) S and T have to be together.
(4) B cannot be tamed with E.
(5) D cannot go with P.
(б) B and R have to be together.
(7) C and Q have to be together.

136. If there be five boys. in the team, the lone girl member is
a. P
b. Q
c. R
d. S

137. If, including P, the team has three girls, the members other than P are

138. If the team including C consists of four boys, the members of the team other than C are

139. In four members including E have to be boys, the members other than E are

If four members have to be girls, the members of the team are

Directions: The figures of Foreign trade for the financial year starting from 1995-1996 to 2001-2002 are as follows: (Q. No. 141-145)

141. Which of the following shows an increase each year
a. both are equal
b. trade deficit
c. exports
d. imports

142. The percentage increase in exports is maximum in the year
a. 1998-1999
b. 1999-2000
c. 2000-2001
d. 2001-2002

143. The ratio of imports in comparison to exports is maximum in the year
a. 1998-1999
b. 1997-1998
c. 1995-1996
d. 2000-2001

144. Total trade deficit for the last five years is
a. Rs. 32,332 lakhs
b. Rs. 33,332 lakhs
c. Rs. 43,972 lakhs
d. Rs. 22,332 lakhs

145. Difference between imports and exports is maximum in the year
a. 1996-1997
b. 1998-1999
c. 1999-2000
d. 2000-2001

a trial, an attorney is planning to call to the stand to testify six different witnesses – T, V, W, X, Y and Z. She will call each witness exactly one time, and the other in which she calls them is subject to the following conditions: (Q. no. 146-152) The fourth witness must be T. W and Y must both be called before V. X must be called before W.

146. Which of the following could be the order in which the attorney calls the six witnesses?
a. W, X, Y, T, Z, V
b. X, W, V, T, Y, Z
c. Y,X,W,T,Z,V
d. Z, T, X, W, Y, V
e. Z, X, W, T, V, Y

147. Which of the following must be true of the order in which the attorney calls the witnesses?
a. She calls V before T
b. She calls X before V
c. She calls Y before W
d. She calls Y before X
e. She calls Z before T

148. Which of the following could be true of the order in which the witnesses are called?
a. T is called sixth
b. V is called fourth
c. W is called first
d. X is called fifth
e. Y is called first

149. If the attorney calls Z last, which witness must be called fifth?
a. T
b. V
c. W
d. X
e. Y

150. If the attorney calls immediately after Y and immediately before Z, she must call V
a. first
b. second
c. third
d. fifth
e. sixth

151. The attorney calls any of the following witnesses immediately before T, EXCEPT
a. V
b. W
c. X
d. Y
e. Z

152. The attorney calls Z first, which of the following could be her fifth and sixth witnesses respectively?
a. T and X
b. V and W
c. X and V
d. Y and V
e. Y and X

153. Statement: The boy is too honest not to speak the truth.
Assumptions: 1. Very honest boy also tell lies. II. Dishonest boys also speak the truth.
a. if only assumption I is implicit;
b. if only assumption II is implicit;
c. if either I or II is implicit;
d. if neither I nor II is implicit;
e. if both I and II are implicit

154. Statement: “X air-conditioner – the largest- selling name with the largest range” – an advertisement
Assumptions: I. X air-conditioner is only one with wide variations.
11. There is a demand for air-conditioners in the market.
a. if only assumption I is implicit;
b. if only assumption II is implicit;
c. if either I or II is implicit;
d. if neither I nor II is implicit;
e. if both I and II are implicit

155. Statement: Opening a library in Rambli will be a wastage.
Assumtions: I. Inhabitants of Rambli are illiterate.
II. Inhabitants of Rambli are not interested in reading.
a. if only assumption I is implicit;
b. if only assumption II is implicit;
c. if either I or II is implicit;
d. if neither I nor II is implicit;
e. if both I and II are implicit

156. Statement: It is through participative management policy alone that indiscipline in our industries can be contained and a qualify of life ensured to the worker.
Assumptions: I. Quality of life in our industry is better.
II. Indiscipline results in a poor quality of life
a. if only assumption I is implicit;
b. if only assumption II is implicit;
c. if either I or II is implicit;
d. if neither I nor II is implicit;
e. if both I and II are implicit

157. Statement: Should a total ban be but on trapping wild animals?
Arguments: I. Yes. Trappers are making a lot of money.
II. No bans on hunting and trapping are not effective.
a. if only argument I is strong
b. if only argument II is strong;
c. if either I or II is strong;
d. if neither I nor II is strong; and
e. if both I and II strong.

158. Statement:
Should military service be made compulsory in our country?
Arguments: I. No, It is against the policy of non-violence.
II. Yes. Every citizen should protect his country
a. if only argument I is strong
b. if only argument II is strong;
c. if either I or II is strong;
d. if neither I nor II is strong; and
e. if both I and II strong.

159. Statement: Should all the remote parts of a country be connected by road?
Arguments: I. No, It will disturb peaceful simple life of the villagers.
II. Yes. It must be done immediately.
a. if only argument I is strong
b. if only argument II is strong;
c. if either I or II is strong;
d. if neither I nor II is strong; and
e. if both I and II strong.

160. Statement: Should government job in rural areas have more incentives?
Arguments: I. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.
II. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big towns. So, why offer extra incentives!
a. if only argument I is strong
b. if only argument II is strong;
c. if either I or II is strong;
d. if neither I nor II is strong; and
e. if both I and II strong.

161. Kitty Hawk is a _____
a. Sub Marine
b. Aircraft
c. Missile
d. Portland

162. Which country didn’t allow USA to use its land for war against Iraq?
a. Turkey
b. Kuwait
c. UAE
d. Pakistan

163. Who is the first chairman of newly constituted Forest Commission?
a. Justice B.N. Kripal
b. Justice A.S. Anand
c. Justice Bharucha
d. Jusitce Kuldip Singh

164. Which Indian received first Magsaysay Award?
a. J.M. Lyngdoh
b. Kiran Bedi
c. Acharya Vinoba Bhave
d. Moter’Theresa

165. Which movie got the Golden Lion – 2000 Award?
a. Monsoon Wedding
b. Lagan
c. Bend it like Beckham
d. Lord of the Rings

166. Kalinga Prize is related with ________
b. Peace
c. Administration
d. Warfare

167. Which one is not a member of G-8?
a. Germany
b. Italy
c. Spain
d. France

168. The NAM Summit – 2003 was held in _____
a. Kuaialampur
b. Johansberg
c. S. Africa
d. Almati

How many countries are members of NAM?
a. 8
b. 21
c. 55
d. 109

170. Raisina Hills are at _____
a. Delhi
b. Rajasthan
c. U.P.
d. Uttaranchal

171. Whose portrait was a matter of controversy when it was accorded place in the Parliament?
a. B.R. Ambedkar
b. Subhash Chandra Bose
c. VeerSavarkar
d. Guruji Golvalkar

172. Who is appointed as the head of POTA review committe?
a. Justice A. Saharia
b. Justice S.P. Bhaurcha
c. Justice R. Babu
d. Justice Patnaik

173. The non-test team which played semi-final of Cricket World Cup 2003 is _________
a. Sri Lanka
b. Zimbabwe
c. Kenya
d. Bangaladesh

174. Best Debut in Grammy Awards 2002 went to___
a. Norah Jones
b. Britney Spears
c. Dirty Vegas
d. John Mayer

175. Who took fastest 100 wickets in one day international?
a. Zaheer Khan
b. Srinath
c. Anil Kumble
d. Ajit Agarkar