CLAT 2009 Question Paper

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Time: 2 hours Total Marks: 200

CLAT 2009 Question Paper
Section 1: English and Reading Comprehension

Instructions: (Questions 1-10) Read the given passage carefully and answer the questions that follow. Shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
(Total 10 marks)

There is a fairly universal sentiment that the use of nuclear weapons is clearly contrary to morality and that its production probably so, does not go far enough. These activities are not only opposed to morality but also to law if the legal objection can be added to the moral, the argument against the use and the manufacture of these weapons will considerably be reinforced. Now the time is ripe to evaluate the responsibility of scientists who knowingly use their expertise for the construction of such weapons, which has deleterious effect on mankind.
To this must be added the fact that more than 50 percent of the skilled scientific manpower in the world is now engaged in the armaments industry. How appropriate it is that all this valuable skill should be devoted to the manufacture of weapons of death in a world of poverty is a question that must touch the scientific conscience.
A meeting of biologists on the Long-Term Worldwide Biological consequences of nuclear war added frightening dimension to those forecasts. Its report suggested that the long biological effects resulting from climatic changes may at least be as serious as the immediate ones. Sub-freezing temperatures, low light levels, and high doses of ionizing and ultraviolet radiation extending for many months after a large-scale nuclear war could destroy the biological support system of civilization, at least in the Northern Hemisphere. Productivity in natural and agricultural ecosystems could be severely restricted for a year or more. Post war survivors would face starvation as well as freezing conditions in the dark and be exposed to near lethal doses of radiation. If, as now seems possible, the Southern Hemisphere were affected also, global disruption of the biosphere could ensue. In any event, there would be severe consequences, even in the areas not affected directly, because of the inter-dependence of the world economy. In either case the extinction of a large fraction of the earth’s animals, plants and micro-organism seems possible. The population size of Homo sapiens conceivably could be reduced to prehistoric levels or below, and extinction of the human species itself cannot be excluded.

1. Choose the word, which is most opposite in meaning of the word, printed in bold as used in the passage Deleterious.
(a) Beneficial
(b) Harmful
(c) Irreparable
(d) Non-cognizable.

2. The author’s most important objective of writing the above passage seems to
(a) Highlight the use of nuclear weapons as an effective population control measures.
(b) Illustrate the devastating effects of use of nuclear weapons on mankind.
(c) Duly highlight the supremacy of the nations which possess nuclear weapons.
(d) Summarise the long biological effects of use of nuclear weapons.

3. The scientists engaged in manufacturing destructive weapons are
(a) Very few in number
(b) Irresponsible and incompetent
(c) More than half of the total number
(d) Engaged in the armaments industry against their desire.

4. According to the passage, the argument on use and manufacture of nuclear weapons
(a) Does not stand the test of legality
(b) Possesses legal strength although it does not have moral standing
(c) Is acceptable only on moral grounds
(d) Becomes stronger if legal and moral considerations are combined.

5. The author of the passage seems to be of the view that
(a) Utilization of scientific skills in manufacture of weapons is appropriate.
(b) Manufacture of weapons of death would help eradication of poverty.
(c) Spending money on manufacture of weapons may be justifiable subject to the availability of funds.
(d) Utilization of valuable knowledge for manufacture of lethal weapons is inhuman.

6. Which of the following is one of the consequences of nuclear war?
(a) Fertility of land will last for a year or so.
(b) Post-war survivors being very few will have abundant food.
(c) Lights would be cooler and more comfortable.
(d) Southern Hemisphere would remain quite safe in the post-war period.

7. Which of the following best explains the word devoted, as used in the passage?
(a) Dedicated for a good cause
(b) Utilised for betterment
(c) Abused for destruction
(d) Underutilised

8. The biological consequences of nuclear war as given in the passage include all the following, except
(a) Fall in temperature below zero degree Celsius.
(b) Ultraviolet radiation
(c) High dose of ionizing
(d) Abundant food for smaller population

9. It appears from the passage that the use of nuclear weapons is considered against morality by
(a) Only such of those nations who cannot afford to manufacture and sell weapons
(b) Almost all the nations of the world
(c) Only the superpowers who can afford to manufacture and sell weapons
(d) Most of the scientists devote their valuable skills to manufacture nuclear weapons.

10. Which of the following statements I, II, III and IV is definitely true in the context of the passage?
(I) There is every likelihood of survival of the human species as a consequence of nuclear war.
(II) Nuclear war risks and harmful effects are highly exaggerated.
(III) The post war survivors would be exposed to the benefits of non-lethal radiation.
(IV) Living organisms in the areas which are not directly affected by nuclear war would also suffer.
(a) I
(b) III
(c) II
(d) IV

Instructions: (Questions 11-15) Three of the four words given in these questions are spelt wrong. Select the word that is spelt correct and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (One) mark.
(Total 5 marks)

(a) renaissance
(b) renaissance
(c) renaissance
(d) renaisence

(a) malaese
(b) melaize
(c) melaise
(d) malaise.

(a) irelevant
(b) irrelevent
(c) irrelevant
(d) irrellevant

(a) survilance
(b) surveillance
(c) surveilance
(d) surveilliance

(a) gaiety
(b) gaietty
(c) gaeity
(d) gaitty

Instructions: (Questions 16-20) Given below are a few foreign language phrases that are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (One) mark.
(Total 5 marks)

16. Mala fide
(a) in good faith
(b) in bad faith
(c) without any faith
(d) with full faith.

17. Pro rata
(a) at the rate of
(b) at quoted rate
(c) in proportion
(d) beyond all proportion.

18. Vice versa
(a) in verse
(b) versatile verse
(c) in consonance with
(d) the other way round.

19. Ab initio
(a) from the very beginning
(b) high initiative
(c) things done later
(d) without initiative.

20. Alibi
(a) every where
(b) else where
(c) no where
(d) without any excuse.

Instructions: (Questions 21-25) Some idioms given below are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the idioms and
shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (One) mark.
(Total 5 marks)

21. To give the game away
(a) To lose the game
(b) To give a walk-over in a game
(c) To reveal the secret
(d) To play the game badly

22. To cool one’s heels
(a) To close the chapter
(b) To walk on the heels
(c) To kick someone with the heels
(d) To wait and rest for some time.

23. To bury the hatchet
(a) To fight with the hatchet
(b) To forget the enmity
(c) To bury the treasure under ground
(d) To pick up enmity

24. Gift of the gab
(a) Gift for hard work
(b) Gift undeserved
(c) Gift of being a good conversationalist
(d) Gift from unknown person

Instructions: (Questions 26-35) Given below are sentences with a blank in each sentence. Choose the right answer to fill in the blank by shading your answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (One) mark.
(Total 10 marks)

26. Some people believe that in emotional maturity men are inferior ______ women.
(a) Than
(b) To
(c) From
(d) Against.

27. My father was annoyed ______ me.
(a) Towards
(b) Against
(c) With
(d) Upon.

28. Some orthodox persons are averse ______ drinking liquor.
(a) Against
(b) For
(c) Towards
(d) To

29. The Cinema Hall was on fire and the Cinema owner had to send ______ the Fire Brigade.
(a) For
(b) Through
(c) Off
(d) In

30. He was not listening ______ I was saying.
(a) That
(b) Which
(c) To what
(d) What.

31. Drinking country liquor at marriage is a custom ______ certain tribes.
(a) In
(b) Among
(c) Between
(d) With

32. The struggle for justice brings _______ the best of moral qualities of men.
(a) Forward
(b) About
(c) In
(d) Out

33. If he _______ a horse he would fly.
(a) Was
(b) Were
(c) Is
(d) Goes.

34. Mohan has a bad habit of ……… at an odd hour.
(a) Turning up
(b) Turning in
(c) Turning over
(d) Turning off.

35. He must refrain……. immoral conducts.
(a) Off
(b) Through
(c) From
(d) Against.

Instructions: (Questions 36-40) The constituent sentences of a passage have been jumbled up. Read jumbled sentences carefully and then choose the option which shows the best sequence of sentences of the passage and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (One) mark.
(Total 5 marks)

(i) The Collector said that the Dams should receive
(ii) To ensure uninterrupted
(iii) Water up to a particular level
(iv) Supply of water for irrigation
The best sequence is:
(a) ii, i, iv, iii
(b) i, iii, ii, iv
(c) iv, i, iii, ii
(d) ii, iv, i, iii.

(i) He loved to distribute them among small kids.
(ii)He wore a long, loose shirt with many pockets
(iii)And in doing so his eyes brightened.
(iv) The pockets of his shirt bulged with toffees and chocolates.
The best sequence is:
(a) ii, i, iii, iv
(b) i, iv, ii, iii
(c) iv, i, iii, ii
(d) ii, iv, i, iii.

(i) As we all know, a legislation
(ii) Needs the assent of the President
(iii) Passed by the Houses of Parliament
(iv) To become law.
The best sequence is:
(a) i, iii, ii, iv
(b) i, iv, ii, iii
(c) iv, i, iii, ii
(d) ii, iv, i, iii.

(i) The farmers grow food for the whole country
(ii) And therefore it is our duty to improve their lot.
(iii) Yet these fellows are exploited by the rich.
(iv) Hence they are the most useful members of the society.
The best sequence is:
(a) ii, i, iv, iii
(b) i, iv, ii, iii
(c) i, iv, iii, ii
(d) ii, iv, i, iii.

40. (i) The ripples looked enchanting in the light of the Sun.
(ii) We went to the pond.
(iii) We flung stones to create ripples.
(iv) We stood knee-deep in the muddy water of the pond.
The best sequence is:
(a) ii, i, iv, iii
(b) ii, iv, iii, i
(c) iv, i, iii, ii
(d) iv, ii, i, iii. 

CLAT 2009 Question Paper
Section 2: General Knowledge and Current Affairs

Instructions: (Questions 41-90) Out of the four answers, shade the correct answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark
(Total 50 marks)

41. Capital market means
(a) Mutual Funds
(b) Money Market
(c) Securities Market
(d) Banking Business.

42. From which river would the National River Project be started?
(a) Yamuna
(b) Gomti
(c) Ganga
(d) Krishna.

43. “The Audacity of Hope” is a book written by
(a) Bill Clinton
(b) Barack Obama
(c) George Bush
(d) Bill Gates.

44. ‘WPI’ is used as an acronym for
(a) World Price Index
(b) World Price Indicators
(c) Wholesale Price Index
(d) Wholesale Price Indicators.

45. If the tax rate increases with the higher level of income, it shall be called
(a) Progressive Tax
(b) Proportional Tax
(c) Lump sum Tax
(d) Regressive Tax.

46. Who is the Director of “Chak De India”?
(a) Shimit Amin
(b) Yash Chopra
(c) Shahrukh Khan
(d) Ram Gopal Verma.

47. What is the full form of the scanning technique CAT?
(a) Complete Anatomical Trepanning
(b) Computerized Automatic Therapy
(c) Computerized Axial Tomography
(d) Complete Axial Transmission.

48. Who got the World Food Prize in 2013?
(a) Kofi Annan
(b) Man Mohan Singh
(c) Hillary Clinton
(d) Robert T. Fraley.

49. ISO 9000 is a
(a) Quality Standard Mark
(b) Space Project
(c) Trade Technique
(d) Loan Security.

50. What is’AGMARK’?
(a) Name of Brand
(b) A Marketing Research Organisation
(c) Eggs supplied by Government-run co-operative
(d) Agriculture marketing for agro products

51. The Headquarters of Indian Space Research Organisation is at
(a) Trivandrum
(b) New Delhi
(c) Bangalore
(d) Ahmedabad.

52. “Saras” is the name of
(a) An Aircraft
(b) A Tank
(c) A Missile
(d) A Submarine. 

53. First woman Prime-Minister in the World was from
(a) Sri Lanka
(b) Bhutan
(c) India
(d) Nepal.

54. Who was felicitated with ‘Nishan-e- Pakistan’? (Modified)
(a) Shatrughan Sinha
(b) Maulana Azad
(c) Moreriji Desai
(d) Khan Abdul Gaffar Khan.

55. Which State provided separate reservation for Muslims and Christians in the State Backward Classes List in 2007?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Bihar
(d) Kerala.

56. Which of the following dances is not a classical dance?
(a) Kathakali
(b) Garba
(c) Odissi
(d) Manipuri.

57. Sulabh International is an organisation which provides
(a) Health Services in Rural Areas
(b) Good Sanitation at Cheap Rates
(c) Low Cost Accommodation
(d) Low Cost Credit.

58. Who among the following was honoured with ‘Officer of the Legion of Honour’ award by French Government in July 2008?
(a) Dev Anand
(b) Yash Chopra
(c) B.R. Chopra
(d) Mrinal Sen.

59. The largest gland in the human body is
(a) Liver
(b) Pancreas
(c) Thyroid
(d) Endocrine.

60. The Railway Budget for 2013-2014 has declared the year 2013 as the year of
(a) Freight Corridors
(b) Passenger Comfort
(c) Staff Welfare
(d) Computerization of Reservations.

61. In the world of Hindi Cinema, who was affectionately called as ‘Dada Moni’?
(a) Balraj Sahni
(b) Prithviraj Kapoor
(c) Ashok Kumar
(d) Utpal Dutt.

62. Outstanding Parliamentarian Award (2012) was presented in 2012 to
(a) P. Chidambram
(b) Sarad Pawar
(c) Sharad Yadav
(d) Sushma Swaraj.

63. World’s longest sea bridge has taken shape in 2007 in
(a) China
(b) Japan
(c) Singapore
(d) U.S.A.

64. Who among the following became Citigroup’s Investment Banking head?
(a) L.N. Mittal
(b) A.K. Subramaniyam
(c) Vineet Seth
(d) Micheal Corbat

65. The Green Revolution in India has been identified with
(a) Dr. Man Mohan Singh
(b) Dr. Montek Singh Ahluwalia
(c) Mr. Rajendra Singh ‘waterman’
(d) Dr. M.S. Swaminathan.

66. Indian Judge in the UN Law of the Sea Tribunal is (Option Modified)
(a) Dr. P.S. Rao
(b) Gao Zhiquq
(c) Mr. Justice Jagannath Rao
(d) Mr. Justice Rajendra Babu.

67. The Ozone Layer thins down as a result of a chain chemical reaction that separates from the layer
(a) Oxygen
(b) Chlorine
(c) Nitrogen
(d) Hydrogen.

68. Joint SAARC University of eight SAARC Nations has been established in
(a) Colombo
(b) Dhaka
(c) Kathmandu
(d) New Delhi.

69. Which country recently produced the world’s first cloned rabbit using a biological process that takes cells from a foetus?
(a) U.K.
(b) China
(c) U.S.A.
(d) Germany.

70. Which one of the following Vitamins is responsible for blood clotting?
(a) Vitamin A
(b) Vitamin E
(c) Vitamin C
(d) Vitamin K.

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71. What is the meaning of ‘Gilt Edged Market’?
(a) Market in Government securities
(b) Market of smuggled goods
(c) Market of auctioned goods
(d) Market of Gold products.

72. Who is the Central Chief Information Commissioner of India?
(a) Prof. Ansari
(b) Mrs. Padma Subramanian
(c) Ms. Sushma Singh
(d) Dr. O.P. Kejariwal.

73. The youngest recipient of Padma Shri so far is
(a) Sachin Tendulkar
(b) Shobana Chandrakumar
(c) Vishwanathan Anand
(d) Billy Arjan Singh.

74. Who is the Director of the film “Elizabeth: The Golden Age Cast”?
(a) Rama Nand Sagar
(b) Ram Gopal Verma
(c) Karan Johar
(d) Shekhar Kapur.

75. The territorial waters of India extend up to?
(a) 12 Nautical Miles
(b) 6 Km
(c) 10 Nautical Miles
(d) 15 Nautical Miles.

76. ‘Samjhouta Express’ runs between the Railway Stations of
(a) New Delhi – Wagah
(b) New Delhi – Lahore
(c) Amritsar – Lahore
(d) New Delhi – Islamabad.

77. Blue revolution refers to
(a) Forest Development
(b) Fishing
(c) Poultry Farming
(d) Horticulture.

78. Dr. A.P.J. Abdul Kalam has been appointed as Chancellor of
(a) IIM Mumbai
(b) IIT Kanpur
(c) IIM Ahmedabad
(d) IIST Thiruvananthapuram.

79. In which State “Kanya Vidyadhan Yojna” is operational?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Rajasthan
(d) Haryana.

80. Who emerged the fastest woman of the world at London Olympics 2012?
(a) Sheron Sumpson
(b) Kerron Stewart
(c) Shelly-Ann
(d) Elina Basiena.

81. Savannah grasslands are found in
(a) North America
(b) Africa
(c) Australia
(d) East Asia.

82. Which State has launched the “Aarogya Sri” a health Insurance Scheme for families below poverty line?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Uttar Pradesh
(c) Maharashtra
(d) Kerala.

83. The first nuclear reactor of India is named
(a) Rohini
(b) Vaishali
(c) Apsara
(d) Kamini.

84. In May 2007 Air Sahara acquired by Jet Airways is being operated as a separate airline under the name of
(a) Jet Lite
(b) Jet Sahara
(c) Air Jet Line
(d) Jet Sahara Lite.

85. Suez Canal connects
(a) Mediterranean Sea and Red Sea
(b) Mediterranean Sea and Black Sea
(c) Baltic Sea and Red Sea
(d) Baltic Sea and Black Sea

86. Government has launched E – Passport Scheme and first E – Passport was issued to
(a) Mr. Arjun Singh
(b) Mrs. Sonia Gandhi
(c) Dr. Man Mohan Singh
(d) Mrs. Pratibha Patil.

87. The Hindu outfit ‘Hindraf’ has been banned in
(a) Pakistan
(b) Thailand
(c) Malaysia
(d) Bangladesh

88. Which organization was headed by Indian Environmentalists R.K. Pachauri, a Nobel Laureate? (Question Modified)
(a) International Environment Panel
(b) International Panel on Climate Change
(c) International Pollution Control Panel
(d) International Panel on Global Warming.

89. Kandhamal, the worst affected town by sectarian violence in September-October 2008 is situated in
(a) Orissa
(b) Gujarat
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka.

90. World “No Tobacco Day” is observed on
(a) January 10
(b) June 1
(c) May 31
(d) March 5.

CLAT 2009 Question Paper
Section 3: Elementary Mathematics (Numerical Ability)

Instructions: (Questions 91-110) From the four answers given, shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark
(Total 20 marks)

91. The average monthly income of a person in a certain family of 5 members is Rs. 1000. What will be monthly average income of one person in the same family if the income of one person increased by Rs. 12,000 per year?
(a) Rs. 1200
(b) Rs. 1600
(c) Rs. 2000
(d) Rs. 3400.

92. A dishonest shopkeeper uses a weight of 800 gm for a kg and professes to sell his good at cost price. His profit is
(a) 20%
(b) 21%
(c) 24%
(d) 25%.

93. By selling 11 oranges for a rupee, a man loses 10%. How many oranges for a rupee should he sell to gain 10%?
(a) 9
(b) 10
(c) 8
(d) 5.

94. A person takes 3 hours to walk a certain distance and riding back. He could walk both ways in 5 hours. How long could it take to ride both ways.
(a) 1.5hr
(b) 1 hr
(c) 0.5 hr
(d) 2 hrs.

95. Change 1/8 into percentage
(a) 12.5%
(b) 15%
(c) 8%
(d) 25%.

96. 12.5% of 80 is equal to
(a) 8
(b) 20
(c) 10
(d) 40.

97. Which number should fill the blank space to complete the series:
1, 2, 4, 5, 7, 8, 10, 11, ….
(a) 12
(b) 13
(c) 14
(d) 15

98. The smallest of the fractions given below
(a) 9/10
(b) 11/12
(c) 23/28
(d) 32/33.

99. Three friends shared the cost of a television. If Amit, Bharat and Dinesh paid Rs. 3000, Rs. 1800 and Rs. 1200 respectively, then Dinesh paid what percent of the total cost? (Question modified)
(a) 10%
(b) 20%
(c) 30%
(d) 40%.

100. The average age of 29 boys of a class is equal to 14 years. When the age of the class teacher is included the average becomes 15 years. Find the age of the class teacher.
(a) 44 years
(b) 40 years
(c) 52 years
(d) 66 years.

101. It takes 8 people working at equal rates to finish a work in 96 days. How long will 6 workers take for the same work?
(a) 92 days
(b) 128 days
(c) 111 days
(d) 84 days.

102. Ram’s income is 20% less than Shyam’s. How much is Shyam’s income more than Ram’s in percentage terms?
(a) 20%
(b) 30%
(c) 25%
(d) 15%.

103. The monthly salary of A, B and C are in the ratio 2: 3: 5. If C’s monthly salary is Rs. 1,200 more than that of A, find B’s monthly salary.
(a) Rs. 2000
(b) Rs. 1000
(c) Rs. 1500
(d) Rs. 1200.

104. In a town there are 94500 people. 2/9 of them are foreigners, 6400 are immigrants and the rest are natives. How many are natives?
(a) 67100
(b) 27400
(c) 77600
(d) 88100.

105. Total salary of three persons A, B and C is Rs. 1,44,000. They spend 80%, 85% and 75% respectively. If their savings are in the ratio 8: 9: 20, find C’s salary.
(a) 48000
(b) 64000
(c) 40000
(d) 32000.

106. The population of a town is 155625. For every 1000 males there are 1075 females. If 40% of the males and 24% of the females are literate, find the percentage of literacy in the town.
(a) 33.7
(b) 32.7
(c) 31.7
(d) 30.7

107. 10 sheep and 5 pigs were brought for Rs. 6,000. If the average price of a sheep is Rs. 450, find the average price of pig.
(a) Rs. 380
(b) Rs. 410
(c) Rs. 340
(d) Rs. 300.

108. Ram weighs 25 kg more than Shyam. Their combined weight is 325 kg. How much does Shyam weigh?
(a) 150 kg
(b) 200 kg
(c) 125 kg
(d) 160 kg.

109. Find out the wrong number in the series:
3, 8, 15, 24, 34, 48, 63
(a) 24
(b) 34
(c) 15
(d) 63.

110. What is the location value of 7 in the figure 9872590?
(a) 72590
(b) 7
(c) 70000
(d) 7000.

CLAT 2009 Question Paper
Section 4: Legal Aptitude

Instructions: (Questions 111-155) From the four options given, shade the appropriate correct option in the space provided for it on the OMR Answer Sheet
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark
(Total 45 marks)

111. Which is the oldest Code of Law in India?
(a) Naradasmriti
(b) Manusmriti
(c) Vedasmriti
(d) Prasarsmriti.

112. Private international law is also called
(a) Civil Law
(b) Local laws
(c) Conflict of laws
(d) Common law.

113. A nominal sum given as a token for striking a sale is called
(a) Earnest money
(b) Advance
(c) Interest
(d) Solatium.

114. Joint heirs to a property are called
(a) Co-heirs
(b) Coparceners
(c) Successors
(d) Joint owners.

115. The right of a party to initiate an action and be heard before a Court of law is called
(a) Right in rem
(b) Right in personam
(c) Fundamental right
(d) Locus standi.

116. Indian Parliament is based on the principle of
(a) Bicameralism
(b) Universal Adult Franchise
(c) Dyarchy
(d) Federalism.

117. The Supreme Court held that evidence can be recorded by video-conferencing in the case
(a) State of Maharashtra v. Prafull B. Desai
(b) Pammjit Kaur v. State of Punjab
(c) Pappu Yadav v. State of Bihar
(d) Bachan Singh v. State of Punjab.

118. When the master is held liable for the wrongful act of his servant, the liability is called
(a) Strict liability
(b) Vicarious liability
(c) Tortous liability
(d) Absolute liability.

119. The act of unlawfully entering into another’s property constitutes
(a) Trespass
(b) Restraint
(c) Appropriation
(d) Encroachment.

120. Which Parliamentary Committee in Indian system of democracy is chaired by a member of Opposition Party?

(a) Estimates Committee
(b) Joint Parliamentary Committee
(c) Public Accounts Committee
(d) Finance Committee.

121. Supreme Court held that Preamble as a basic feature of Constitution cannot be amended in the case of
(a) Golaknath v. State of Punjab
(b) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India
(c) S.R. Bommai v. Union of India
(d) Kesavananda Bharati v. State of Kerala.

122. In the year 2002 the Competition Act was enacted replacing
(a) Trade Marks Act
(b) Copy Right Act
(c) Contract Act
(d) MRTP Act.

123. A right to recover time barred debt is
(a) Universal right
(b) Perfect right
(c) Imperfect right
(d) Fundamental right.

124. The law relating to prisoners of war has been codified by
(a) Geneva Convention
(b) Vienna Convention
(c) Paris Convention
(d) None of the above.

125. Public holidays are declared under
(a) Criminal Procedure Code
(b) Civil Procedure Code
(c) Constitution of India
(d) Negotiable Instruments Act.

126. When a person is prosecuted for committing a criminal offence, the burden of proof is on
(a) Accused
(b) Prosecution
(c) Police
(d) Complainant.

127. Offence which can be compromised between the parties is known as
(a) Non-compoundable offence
(b) Cognizable offence
(c) Compoundable offence
(d) Non-cognizable offence.

128. Husband and wife have a right to each others company. The right is called
(a) Conjugal right
(b) Human right
(c) Civil right
(d) Fundamental right

129. A person ‘dying intestate’ means he
(a) Died without legal heirs
(b) Died without making a Will
(c) Died without any property
(d) Died without a son.

130. If a witness makes a statement in Court, knowing it to be false, he commits the offence of
(a) Forgery
(b) Falsehood
(c) Perjury
(d) Breach of trust.

131. A child born after father’s death is
(a) Posthumous
(b) Heir
(c) Intestate
(d) Bastard.

132. A formal instrument by which one person empowers another to represent him is known as
(a) Affidavit
(b) Power-of-attorney
(c) Will
(d) Declaration.

133. The temporary release of a prisoner is called
(a) Parole
(b) Amnesty
(c) Discharge
(d) Pardon.

134. The offence of inciting disaffection, hatred or contempt against Government is
(a) Perjury
(b) Forgery
(c) Sedition
(d) Revolt.

135. India became the member of United Nations in the Year
(a) 1956
(b) 1945
(c) 1946
(d) 1950.

136. A party to the suit is called
(a) Accused
(b) Plaintiff
(c) Litigant
(d) Complainant.

137. Who heads the four member Committee appointed to study the Centre-State relations especially the changes took place since Sarkaria Commission?
(a) Justice M.M. Punchi
(b) Justice Nanavati
(c) Justice Barucha
(d) Justice Kuldip Singh.

138. No one can be convicted twice for the same offence. This doctrine is called
(a) Burden of proof
(b) Double conviction
(c) Double jeopardy
(d) Corpus delicti.

139. A participant in commission of crime is popularly known as
(a) Respondent
(b) Under-trial
(c) Defendant
(d) Accomplice.

140. Which of the following is not payable to Central Government?
(a) Land revenue
(b) Customs duty
(c) Income tax
(d) Wealth tax.

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141. Where is the National Judicial Academy located?
(a) Kolkata
(b) Bhopal
(c) Delhi
(d) Mumbai.

142. Who have constitutional right to audience in all Indian Courts?
(a) President
(b) Chief Justice of India
(c) Attorney General
(d) Solicitor General.

143. Which of the following is not included in the Preamble to the Constitution?
(a) Morality
(b) Justice
(c) Sovereign
(d) Socialist.

144. ‘Court of Record’ is a Court which?
(a) Maintains records
(b) Preserves all its records
(c) Can punish for its contempt
(d) Is competent to issue writs.

145. A judge of the Supreme Court can be removed from office only on grounds of
(a) Gross inefficiency
(b) Delivering wrong judgments
(c) Senility
(d) Proven misbehaviour or incapacity.

146. Fiduciary relationship means a relationship based on
(a) Trust
(b) Money
(c) Contract
(d) Blood relation.

147. The Chairman of Tehelka Enquiry Commission is
(a) Justice Kripal
(b) Justice S.N.Phukan
(c) Justice Saharia
(d) Justice Liberhan.

148. The concept of judicial review has been borrowed from the Constitution of
(a) U.S.S.R.
(b) U.K.
(c) USA.
(d) Switzerland.

149. Every duty enforceable by law is called
(a) Accountability
(b) Obligation
(c) Burden
(d) Incidence.

150. The killing of a new born child by its parents is
(a) Malfeasance
(b) Infanticide
(c) Abortion
(d) Foeticide.

151. Offence of breaking a divine idol is
(a) Salus populi
(b) Crime
(c) Sacrilege
(d) Blasphemy

152. A person who goes under ground or evades the jurisdiction of the Court is known as
(a) Offender
(b) Under-ground
(c) Absentee
(d) Absconder.

153. What is a caveat?
(a) A warning
(b) An injunction
(c) Writ
(d) Certiorari

154. Muslim religious foundations are known as
(a) Din
(b) Wakfs
(c) Ulema
(d) Quzat.

155. Beyond what distance from the coast, is the sea known as “High Sea”?
(a) 20 miles
(b) 300 kms
(c) 200 miles
(d) 12 miles

CLAT 2009 Question Paper
Section 5: Logical Reasoning

Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark
(Total 45 marks)
Instructions: (Questions 156-165): Each question below consists of one Assertion (A) and one Reason (R). Examine them and shade the correct answers using the Code below on the OMR Answer Sheet.
(a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A,
(b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is true but R is false.
(d) A is false but R is true.

A: Area along the Equator records the highest temperature throughout the year.
B: On the equator, days and nights are equal for the largest part of the year.

A: Commercial fisheries have not developed in tropics.
R: The demand for marine food from low income population is low in the tropics.

A: Lightning thunder and heavy rain accompany volcanic activity.
R: Volcanoes throw water vapour and charged particles in the atmosphere.

A: Soils in some parts of Punjab, Haryana and Rajasthan are saline.
R: Evaporation exceeds precipitation.

A: The monsoons arrive suddenly in India in June.
R: The monsoonal low pressure trough is well-developed over India.

A: India built dams and reservoirs to manage water resources.
R: India had enough experience in canals.

A: The life expectancy in European countries is very high.
R: European countries have low mortality rate.

A: The nomadic herders slaughter their animals for meat.
R: Animals form the chief source of food and livelihood for nomadic herders.

A: Exploitation of equatorial rain forest of Amazon basin is not easy.
R: This region is very rich in several types of deadly animals and insects.

A: The Sea remains free from ice from British Columbia to Bering Sea.
R: Air moving off the comparatively warm waters of North Pacific Drift gives the coastal areas of British Columbia a warmer climate.

Instructions: (Questions 166-175): In each question below are given one statement and two assumptions I and II. Examine the statements and shade the correct assumption which is implicit in the statement on the OMR Answer Sheet using the following Code.
(a) If only assumption I is implicit.
(b) If only assumption II is implicit.
(c) If either I or II is implicit.
(d) If neither I nor II is implicit.

166. Statement: The patient’s condition would improve after operation.
I. The patient can be operated upon in this condition.
II. The patient cannot be operated upon in this condition

167. Statement: Detergents should be used to clean clothes.
I. Detergent form more lather.
II. Detergent helps to dislodge grease and dirt.

168. Statement: “As there is a great demand, every person seeking ticket of the programme will be given only five tickets”.
I. The organisers are not keen on selling the tickets.
II. No one is interested in getting more than five tickets.

169. Statement: Double your money in five months- An advertisement.
I. The assurance is not genuine.
II. People want their money to grow.

170. Statement: Films have become indispensable for the entertainment of people
I. Films are the only media of entertainment.
II. People enjoy films.

171. Statement: “To keep myself up-to-date, 1 always listen to 9.00 p.m. news on radio”. – A candidate tells the interview board.
I. The candidate does not read newspaper.
II. Recent news are broadcast only on radio.

172. Statement: Never before such a lucid book was available on the topic.
I: Some other books were available on this topic.
II. You can write lucid books on very few topics.

173. Statement: In case of any difficulty about this case, you may contact our company’s lawyer.
I. Each company has a lawyer of its own.
II. The company’s lawyer is thoroughly briefed about this case.

174. Statement: “Present day education is in shambles and the country is going to the dogs”.
I. A good education system is essential for the well being of a nation.
II. A good education alone is sufficient for the well being of a nation.

175. Statement: Children are influenced more by their teachers nowadays.
I. The children consider teachers as their models.
II. A large amount of children’s time is spent in school.

Instructions: (Questions 176-180) Each question below contains a Statement on relationship and a question regarding relationship based on the Statement. Shade the correct option on relationship on the OMR Answer Sheet.

176. Pointing to a photograph, a lady tells Ram, “I am the only daughter of this lady and her son is your maternal uncle”. How is the speaker related to Ram’s father?
(a) Sister-in-law
(b) Wife
(c) Either (a) or (b)
(d) Neither (a) nor (b).

177. Introducing a man, a woman said, “He is the only son of my mother’s mother”. How is the woman related to the man?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Niece.

178. Shyam said, “This girl is the wife of the grandson of my mother”. Who is Shyam to the girl?
(a) Father
(b) Grandfather
(c) Husband
(d) Father-in-law.

179. Pointing to a man on the stage, Sunita said, “He is the brother of the daughter of the wife of my husband”. How is the man on the stage related to Sunita?
(a) Son
(b) Husband
(c) Cousin
(d) Nephew

180. Introducing a man to her husband, a woman said, “His brother’s father is the only son of my grandfather”. How is the woman related to his man?
(a) Mother
(b) Aunt
(c) Sister
(d) Daughter.

Instructions: (Questions 181-190) In each question below two words are paired which have certain relationships. After the double colon (::), another word is given and shade the correct option on the OMR Answer Sheet which pairs with this word taking into account the pair already given.

181. Legislation: Enactment:: Executive: ?
(a) Minister
(b) Officer
(c) Implementation
(d) Leader.

182. UP: Uttranchal:: Bihar: ?
(a) Jharkhand
(b) Chattisgarh
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Manipur.

183. Gold: Silver:: Cotton: ?
(a) Yarn
(b) Silk
(c) Fibre
(d) Synthetic.

184. Botany: Flora:: Zoology: ?
(a) Fauna
(b) Biology
(c) Fossils
(d) Pathology.

185. Cold wave: Winter:: Loo: ?
(a) Humidity
(b) Frostbite
(c) Summer
(d) Storm.

186. King: Royal:: Saint: ?
(a) Religious
(b) Red
(c) Priesthood
(d) Blue.

187. Sculptor: Statue:: Poet: ?
(a) Painter
(b) Singer
(c) Poem
(d) Writer.

188. Laugh: Happy:: Cry: ?
(a) Sad
(b) Bickering
(c) Frown
(d) Complain.

189. Black: Absence:: White: ?
(a) Red
(b) Presence
(c) Rainbow
(d) Crystal.

190. Governor: President:: Chief-Minister: ?
(a) Commissioner
(b) Attorney-General
(c) Justice
(d) Prime-Minister.

Instructions: (Questions 191-195) Each question below contains a Statement and two Courses of Action I and II. Assuming the statement to be true, decide which of the two suggested Course of Action logically follows and shade on the OMR Answer Sheet, using the Code given below.
(a) If only I follow.
(b) If only II follow.
(c) If either I or II follow.
(d) If neither I nor II follow.

191. Statement: One of the problems facing the food processing industry is the irregular supply of raw material. The
producers of raw materials are not getting a reasonable price.
Courses of Action:
I. The government should regulate the supply of raw material to other industries also.
II. The government should announce an attractive package to ensure regular supply of raw material for food processing industry.

192. Statement: The Officer-In-charge of a Company had a hunch that some money was missing from the safe.
Courses of Action:
I. He should get it recounted with the help of the staff and check it with the balance sheet.
II. He should inform the police.

193. Statement: If the retired Professors of the same Institutes are also invited to deliberate on restructuring of the organisation, their contribution may be beneficial to the Institute.
Courses of Action:
I. Management may seek opinion of the employees before calling retired Professors.
II. Management should involve experienced people for the systematic restructuring of the organisation.

194. Statement: The sale of a particular product has gone down considerably causing great concern to the company.
Courses of Action:
I. The company should make a proper study of rival products in the market.
II. The price of the product should be reduced and quality improved.

195. Statement: Mr. X, an active member of the Union, often insults his superiors in the office with his rude behaviour.
Courses of Action:
I. He should be transferred to some other department.
II. The matter should be referred to the Union.

Instructions: (Questions 196-200) Each question below contains a Statement and two Arguments I and II. Assume the statement to be true, shade the Argument which is strong on the OMR Answer Sheet using the Code below.
(a) If only argument I is strong.
(b) If only argument II is strong.
(c) If either argument I or II is strong.
(d) If neither argument I nor II strong.

196. Statement: Should a total ban be put on trapping wild animals?
I. Yes. Trappers are making a lot of money.
II. No. Bans on hunting and trapping are not effective.

197. Statement: Should school education be 1 made free in India?
I. Yes. This is the only way to improve the level of literacy.
II. No. It would add to the already heavy burden on the exchequer.

198. Statement: Should government jobs in rural areas have more incentives?
I. Yes. Incentives are essential for attracting government servants there.
II. No. Rural areas are already cheaper, healthier and less complex than big. So, why offer extra incentives!

199. Statement: Should luxury hotels be banned in India?
I: Yes. They are places from where international criminals operate.
II. No. Affluent foreign tourists will have no place to stay.

200. Statement: Should the political parties be banned?
I. Yes. It is necessary to teach a lesson to the politicians.
II. No. It will lead to an end of democracy.

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