CLAT 2008 Question Paper

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Time: 2 hours Total Marks: 200

CLAT 2008 Question Paper
Section 1 – English and Reading Comprehension

Instructions: Read the given passage carefully and attempt the questions that follow and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Example: If the appropriate answer is (a), shade the appropriate oval on the OMR sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (Total 10 marks)

MY LOVE OF NATURE, goes right back to my childhood, to the times when I stayed on my grandparents’ farm in Suffolk. My father was in the armed forces, so we were always moving and didn’t have a home base for any length of time, but I loved going there. I think it was my grandmother who encouraged me more than anyone: she taught me the names of wild flowers and got me interested in looking at the countryside, so it seemed obvious to go on to do Zoology at University.
I didn’t get my first camera until after I’d graduated, when I was due to go diving in Norway and needed a method of recording the sea creatures I would find there. My father didn’t know anything about photography, but he bought me an Exacta, which was really quite a good camera for the time, and I went off to take my first pictures of sea anemones and starfish.
I became keen very quickly, and learned how to develop and print; obviously I didn’t have much money in those days, so I did more black and white photography than colour, but it was all still using the camera very much as a tool to record what I found both by diving and on the shore. I had no ambition at all to be a photographer then, or even for some years afterwards.
Unlike many of the wildlife photographers of the time, I trained as a scientist and therefore my way of expressing myself is very different. I’ve tried from the beginning to produce pictures which are always biologically correct. There are people who will alter things deliberately: you don’t pick up sea creatures from the middle of the shore and take them down to attractive pools at the bottom of the shore without knowing you’re doing it. In so doing you’re actually falsifying the sort of seaweeds they live on and so on, which may seem unimportant, but it is actually changing the natural surroundings to make them prettier. Unfortunately, many of the people who select pictures are looking for attractive images and, at the end of the day, whether it’s truthful or not doesn’t really matter to them.
It’s important to think about the animal first, and there are many occasions when I’ve not taken a picture because it would have been too disturbing. Nothing is so important that you have to get that shot; of course, there are cases when it would be very sad if you didn’t, but it’s not the end of the world. There can be a lot of ignorance in people’s behaviour towards wild animals and it’s a problem that more and more people are going to wild places: while some animals may get used to cars, they won’t get used to people suddenly rushing up to them. The sheer pressure of people, coupled with the fact that there are increasingly fewer places where no-one else has photographed, means that over the years, life has become much more difficult for the professional wildlife photographer.
Nevertheless, wildlife photographs play a very important part in educating people about what is out there and what needs conserving. Although photography can be an enjoyable pastime, as it is to many people, it is also something that plays a very important part in educating young and old alike. Of the qualities it takes to make a good wildlife photographer, patience is perhaps the most obvious – you just have to be prepared to sit it out. I’m actually more patient now because I write more than ever before, and as long as I’ve got a bit of paper and a pencil, I don’t feel I’m wasting my time. And because I photograph such a wide range of things, even if the main target doesn’t appear I can probably find something else to concentrate on instead.

1. The writer decided to go to university and study Zoology because
a) she wanted to improve her life in the countryside
b) she was persuaded to do so by her grandmother
c) she was keen on the natural world
d) she wanted to stop moving around all the time.

2. Why did she get her first camera?
a) she needed to be able to look back at what she had seen
b) she wanted to find out if she enjoyed photography
c) her father thought it was a good idea for her to have one
d) she wanted to learn how to use one and develop her own prints.

3. She did more black and white photography than colour because
a) she did not like colour photograph
b) she did not have a good camera
c) she wanted quality photograph
d) she didn’t have much money in those days.

4. How is she different from some of the other wildlife photographers she meets?
a) she tries to make her photographs as attractive as possible
b) she takes photographs which record accurate natural conditions
c) she likes to photograph plants as well as wildlife
d) she knows the best places to find wildlife

5. Which does ‘them’ refer to in the 8th line in paragraph 3?
a) sea creatures
b) attractive pools
c) seaweeds
d) natural surroundings

What the writer means by ‘ignorance in people’s behaviour’ is
a) altering things deliberately
b) people suddenly rushing up to animals
c) people taking photographs of wild animals
d) people not thinking about the animals in the first place

7. The writer now finds it more difficult to photograph wild animals because
a) there are fewer of them
b) they have become more nervous of people
c) it is harder to find suitable places
d) they have become frightened of cars

8. Wildlife photography is important because it can make people realise that
a) photography is an enjoyable hobby
b) we learn little about wildlife at school
c) it is worthwhile visiting the countryside
d) wildlife photographs educate people about wild animals

9. Why is she more patient now?
a) she does other things while waiting
b) she has got used to waiting
c) she can concentrate better than she used to
d) she knows the result will be worth it

10. Which of the following describes the writer?
a) proud
b) sensitive
c) aggressive
d) disappointed

Instructions: Three of the four words given below are spelt wrongly. Select the word that is spelt correctly and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.

Marks: Each question carries 1 (One) mark. (Total 5 marks)

a) Acquintence
b) Acquaintance
c) Acquaintance
d) Acquaintance

a) Neglegense
b) Negligence
c) Negligence
d) Negligence

a) Grievance
b) Grievance
c) Grievance
d) Grievence

a) Hierarchical
b) Hierarchical
c) Hierarchical
d) Heirerchical

a) Garanter
b) Garantor
c) Guaranter
d) Guarantor

Instructions: Select the best option from the four alternatives given and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (Total 10 marks)

16. They live on a busy road……..a lot of noise from the traffic.
a) It must be
b) It must have
c) There must have
d) There must be

17. The more electricity you use,
a) your bill will be higher
b) will be higher your bill
c) the higher your bill will be
d) higher your bill will be

18. Ben likes walking………
a) Every morning he walks to work
b) He walks to work every morning
c) He walks every morning to work
d) He every morning walks to work

19. It’s two years…….Sophy.
a) that I don’t see
b) that I haven’t seen
c) since I didn’t see
d) since I last saw

20. What was the problem? Why……..leave early?
a) have you to
b) did you have to
c) must you
d) you had to

21. Nobody believed Arun at first, but he…….to be right.
a) worked out
b) came out
c) found out
d) turned out

22. We can’t……….making a decision. We have to decide now.
a) put away
b) put over
c) put off
d) put out

23. The accident was my fault, so I had to pay for the damage……..the other car.
a) of
b) for
c) to
d) on

24. I really object………..people smoking in my house.
a) to
b) about
c) for
d) on

25. A contract may be…….if the court finds there has been misinterpretation of the facts.
a) restrained
b) rescinded
c) compelled
d) conferred

Instructions: The five paragraphs given below have all had their constituent sentences jumbled. Read each jumbled passage carefully and then pick the option in which the best sequence is shown and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (Total 5 marks)

26. UNIT I
i. The Supertag scanner could revolutionise the way people shop, virtually eradicating supermarket queues.
ii. The face of retailing will change even more rapidly when the fibre optic networks being built by cable TV companies begin to be more widely used.
iii. The scanner would have a double benefit for supermarkets – removing the bottleneck which causes frustration to most customers and reducing the number of checkout staff.
iv. An electronic scanner which can read the entire contents of a supermarket trolley at a glance has just been developed.
The best sequence is:
a) ii, i, iii, iv
b) iv, i, iii, ii
c) iv, iii, ii, i
d) iii, i, iv, ii

i. Of course, modem postal services now are much more sophisticated and faster, relying as they do on motor vehicles and planes for delivery.
ii. Indeed, the ancient Egyptians had a system for sending letters from about 2000 BC, as did the Zhou dynasty in China a thousand years later.
iii. Letters, were, and are, sent by some form of postal service, the history of which goes back a long way.
iv. For centuries, the only form of written correspondence was the letter.
The best sequence is:
a) ii, i, iii, iv
b) iv, i, iii, ii
c) iv, iii, ii, i
d) iii, i, iv, ii

i. Converting money into several currencies in the course of one trip can also be quite expensive, given that banks and bureaux de change charge commission on the transaction.
ii. Trying to work out the value of the various notes and coins can be quite a strain, particularly if you are visiting more than one country.
iii. Travel can be very exciting, but it can also be rather complicated.
iv. One of these complications is, undoubtedly, foreign currency.
The best sequence is:
a) ii, i, iii, iv
b) iv, i, iii, ii
c) iv, iii, ii, i
d) iii, iv, ii, i

i. She was right about three – curiosity, freckles, and doubt – but wrong about love.
ii. “Four of the things I’d be better without: Love, curiosity, freckles, and doubt.”
iii. Love is indispensable in life.
iv. So wrote Dorothy Parker, the American writer.
The best sequence is:
a) ii, iv, i, iii
b) ii, i, iii, iv
c) ii, i, iv, iii
d) iii, iv, i, ii

i. This clearly indicates that the brains of men and women are organised differently in the way they process speech.
ii. Difference in the way men and women process language is of special interest to brain researchers.
iii. However, women are more likely than men to suffer aphasia when the front part of the brain is damaged.
iv. It has been known that aphasia – a kind of speech disorder – is more common in men than in women when the left side of the brain is damaged in an accident or after a stroke.
The best sequence is:
a) ii, i, iv, iii
b) iv, i, iii, ii
c) iv, iii, ii, i
d) ii, iv, iii, i

Instructions: Given below are five list of words followed by some choices. In each case, choose the alternative that you can combine with every word in that particular list to form a familiar word phrase and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (Total 5 marks)

31. Down, aside, about, forth
a) set
b) fly
c) bum
d) take

32. Over, about, after, at
a) cross
b) lay
c) here
d) go

33. Forward, across, around, upon
a) straight
b) come
c) fast
d) mark

34. In, down, for, out
a) pray
b) try
c) grow
d) stand

35. Away, through, up, down
a) stray
b) come
c) break
d) speak

Instructions: Given below are a few foreign language phrases that are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning for each of the phrases and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 1 (one) mark. (Total 5 marks)

36. Prima facie
a) the most important
b) that which comes first
c) at first view
d) the face that is young

37. Sine die
a) without setting a fixed day
b) by voice vote
c) applying mathematical concepts to solve a difficult problem
d) signing legal documents before death

38. Bona fide
a) identification card
b) without doubt
c) in good faith
d) indispensable condition

39. Status quo
a) legally valid
b) present condition
c) social position
d) side remarks

40. De jure
a) here and there
b) as per law
c) small details
d) in the same place

CLAT 2008 Question Paper

Instructions: From the four answers, shade the most appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries ½ (half) mark. (Total 50 marks)

41. The Supreme Court of India upheld the decision to implement the quota for other backward classes (OBCs) in higher educational institutions. The court, however, excluded the “creamy layer” from being a beneficiary. The reason is
a) Creamy layer is not an OBC; it is a forward caste
b) Creamy layer is politically powerful
c) It can compete with others on equal footing
d) The inclusion of creamy layer would be unjust

42. Hegde fund is a fund
a) used for absorbing inflation
b) used for cushioning health risks
c) applied to minimize the risk financial market transactions
d) applied for absorbing the risk in commodity trading

43. What does strong Rupee as against the dollar mean to India?
a) There is a Balance of Payments surplus
b) Indian economy is globally respected
c) It is a sign of economic buoyancy
d) Income from exports is falling

44. Name the latest State which declared independence in 2011 (Modified)
a) Serbia
b) South Sudan
c) Kurdistan
d) Tibet

45. Name the Finance Minister who presented the highest number of Budgets in the Parliament so far.
a) P.Chidambaram
b) Morarji Desai
c) Manmohan Singh
d) T.T. Krishnamachari

46. Who is the Chairman of 14th Finance Commission constituted in 2012? (Modified)
a) Y.V. Reddy
b) C. Rangarajan
c) Ashok Lahiri
d) K.C. Pant

47. Indo-U.S. nuclear deal was opposed in Parliament mainly because
a) all Indian nuclear reactors would fall under American supervision
b) Nuclear energy sector will be dominated by American corporations
c) Nuclear relations between India and the U.S.A will be governed by the Hyde Act
d) The USA will dictate Indian policies

48. The Indian industrialist who bought Tipu Sultan’s sword in an auction in London was
a) Vijay Mallya
b) Anil Ambani
c) Amar Singh
d) Lakshmi Mittal

49. The contentious Baglihar dam is built on the river
a) Indus
b) Jhelum
c) Chenab
d) Satluj

50. Which country has its richest man as the head of the Government?
a) The USA
b) Italy
c) Saudi Arabia
d) Russia

51. Who is the person known as the Father of Modem Indian Retail Trade?
a) Mukhesh Ambani
b) Kishore Biyani
c) Aditya Birla
d) Anil Ambani

52. The largest software service company in Asia is
c) Tata Consultancy Service
d) Satyam Computers

53. Taikonaut means
a) a character in comic strips
b) a character in Russian opera
c) astronaut in China
d) a delicious Japanese dish

54. The CEO of Microsoft Corporation is
a) Bill Gates
b) Warren Buffett
c) Steve Ballmer
d) John Wallace

55. The country which stands for Gross National Happiness in contradistinction to Gross National Product
a) Sweden
b) Switzerland
c) Bhutan
d) Finland

56. The highest paid head of the government in the world at present is in (Option Modified)
a) The USA
b) Russian Federation
c) Australia
d) Japan

57. The current impasse in Doha Round of Negotiations is centred around
a) access to cheaper drugs
b) access to markets of developed countries
c) agricultural subsidies provided by developed countries
d) removal of non-tariff barriers

58. The phenomenon called “Equinox” is due to the
a) rotation of the Earth on its own axis
b) revolution of the Earth on its inclined axis
c) oblate-spheroid shape of the Earth
d) gravitational pull of the planet

59. The Director-General of the World Trade Organization is
a) Renalto Ruggiero
b) Roberto Azevedo
c) Arthur Dunkell
d) Oliver Long

60. Capital account convertibility signifies
a) guaranteeing the right to investment to foreigners
b) ensuring the right of buyers to make international payments
c) ensuring free international movement of capital
d) ensuring the right of an individual to invest in foreign capital markets

61. The purpose of Kyoto Protocol is
a) to promote tourism
b) to contribute to sustainable development
c) to promote renewable sources of energy
d) to put a limit on greenhouse gas emissions by states

62. What do carbon credits signify?
a) Credits given in the course of carbon products sales
b) Entitlements to emit certain quantity of green house gases
c) Permissible amount of Carbon dioxide in the atmosphere
d) The extent of carbon required to ensure sustainable development

63. The practice of selling goods in a foreign country at a price below their domestic selling price is called
a) discrimination
b) dumping
c) double pricing
d) predatory pricing

64. Which of the following is considered as bulwark of personal freedom?
a) Mandamus
b) Habeas Corpus
c) Certiorari
d) Quo Warranto

65. Vande Mataram is composed by
a) Rabindranath Tagore
b) Sharatchandra Chatterji
c) Bankimchandra Chatterjee
d) Surendranath Banerji

66. How many minutes for each degree of longitude does the local time of any place vary from the Greenwich Time?
a) Four minutes
b) Two minutes
c) Eight minutes
d) Ten minutes

67. Article 1 of Indian Constitution defines India as
a) Federal State
b) Unitary State
c) Union of States
d) Quasi-Federal State

68. Which is the highest body that approves Five Year Plans in India?
a) Parliament
b) Planning Commission
c) National Development
d) Council of Ministers Council

69. The economist who for the first time scientifically determined national income in India
a) Dr. D.R. Gadgil
b) Dr. V.K.R.V. Rao
c) Dr. Manmohan Singh
d) Dr. Y.V. Alagh

70. Which of the following is the largest peninsula in the world?
a) Indian Peninsula
b) Arabian Peninsula
c) Malay Peninsula
d) Chinese Peninsula

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71. The person responsible for economic model for Indian Planning
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) P.C. Mahalanobis
c) Tarlok Singh
d) V.T. Krishnamachari

72. Social Forestry aims at
a) Ensuring fuel and forest produces to weaker sections
b) Medicinal and fruit plantation
c) Large scale afforestation
d) Scientific forestry

73. The Great Barrier Reef refers to
a) Coral formation
b) Tidal waves
c) Hill range
d) Man-made walls

74. A nautical mile is equal to
a) 1852 metres
b) 2000 metres
c) 1575 metres
d) 2050 metres

75. Which of the following is concerned with land forms?
a) Geology
b) Geomorphology
c) Ecology
d) Geography

76. The country known as the Land of Midnight Sun
a) Sweden
b) Norway
c) Finland
d) Denmark

77. The monk who spread Buddhism in Tibet and Far-East
a) Ananda
b) Nagarjuna
c) Padmasambava
d) Mahendra

78. TRIPs, forming part of the World Trade Organization is intended
a) to provide for stronger patent protection
b) to promote transnational corporate interests
c) to harmonize IPR regime internationally
d) to replace World Intellectual Property Organization

79. Carbon dating method is used to determine the age of
a) Rocks
b) Fossils
c) Trees
d) Ancient monuments

80. The Managing Director of Delhi Metropolitan Railway Corporation (Options Modified)
a) Chairman of Indian Railway Board
b) Lt. Governor of Delhi
c) Mangu Singh
d) Sheila Dikshit

81. 18 carat gold signifies
a) 18 parts of gold and 82 parts of other metal
b) 18 parts of gold and 6 parts of other metal
c) 82 parts of gold and 18 parts of other metal
d) None of the above

82. Durban Road map adopted in December 2011 provides for (Modified)
a) Treaty of greenhouse gas emission limits
b) launching of an adaptation fund
c) amendment to UN Framework Convention on Climate Change
d) special and differential treatment for developing countries

83. Enriched uranium, used in a nuclear reactor, is
a) uranium freed of all impurities
b) uranium treated with radiation
c) uranium mixed with isotopes
d) uranium alloy with aluminium

84. The scientist responsible for developing atomic energy in India
a) C.V. Raman
b) H.J. Bhabha
c) H.K. Sethna
d) Vikram Sarabhai

85. Salwa Judum practised in certain places in India refers to
a) witchcraft
b) arming civilians to fight militants
c) training civilians in the use of fire arms
d) training civilians to be home guards

86. Who won Ramon Magsaysay award in 2013 (Modified)
a) Arun Roy
b) Habiba Sarabi
c) Medha Patkar
d) Ruth Manorama

87. The person who won Jawaharlal Nehru award in 2009 (Modified)
a) Angela Merkel
b) Hugo Chavez
c) Aung San Suu Ki
d) Fidel Castro

88. Free Trade Area means
a) the area where anything can be bought and sold
b) countries between whom trade barriers have been substantially reduced
c) countries which have common external tariff
d) countries which have common currency

89. Affirmative action in Indian context signifies
a) providing security to weaker sections
b) welfare measures to alleviate the sufferings of poor people
c) providing positive opportunities to deprived sections
d) giving incentives to start industries

90. Special Economic zones are
a) the places where industries can operate without any control
b) the places where in any person can start any industry
c) the places where industries get certain tax advantages
d) the places wherein the national labour laws do not apply

91. The space shuttle which successfully carried Sunita Williams to space in 2012 (Modified)
a) Challenger
b) Atlantis
c) Soyuz TMA 04M
d) Columbus

92. The leader who led the country in atoning for the past wrongs
a) John Howard
b) Desmond Tutu
c) Kevin Rudd
d) Jimmy Carter

93. Gandhiji expounded his economic ideas in
a) Hind Swaraj
b) My Experiments with Truth
c) Unto the Last
d) Economics of Permanence

94. Bio-fuels have become controversial because
a) they increase environmental pollution
b) they slow down industrialization
c) they reduce food cultivation
d) they lead to degeneration of soil

95. Evergreening of patents means
a) granting patents in perpetuity
b) granting patents for 100 years
c) granting protection to incremental inventions having no substantial significance
d) patenting of green technology

96. By signing which pact with Gandhiji did Ambedkar give up his demand for separate electorates?
a) Poona Pact
b) Aligarh Pact
c) Deccan Pact
d) Delhi Pact

97. India earns maximum foreign exchange from the export of
a) Garments
b) Jute
c) Gems and Jewelleries
d) Light engineering goods

98. Sunita Williams, renowned astronaut of Indian origin, spent a record of………….days in space
a) 195
b) 185
c) 200
d) 160

99. The second biggest greenhouse gas emitter (after the USA) in the world is
a) Russia
b) Germany
c) China
d) Japan

100. The author of the management principle – ‘In a hierarchy, every employee tends to rise to his level of incompetence’
a) Prof. Ducker
b) Prof. J. Peter
c) Prof. C.H. Prahlad
d) Prof. Schmitthoff

101. The World Trade Organization was earlier known as

102. The “wailing wall” is associated with
a) Christians
b) Bahais
c) Jews
d) Shias

103. An Education Minister who got Bharata Ratna in India
a) G.B. Pant
b) M.C. Chagla
c) Abul Kalam Azad
d) Humayun Kabir

104. Why is Ozone Layer important?
a) It absorbs greenhouse gases
b) It protects Earth from ultraviolet radiation
c) It maintains Earth’s temperature
d) It is a buffer against extra-terrestrial hazard’s

105. The World’s largest river is
a) Brahmaputra
b) Amazon
c) Nile
d) Mississippi

106. Tsunami is caused by
a) plate tectonics
b) underwater ridges
c) underwater volcanic activity
d) pressure from Earth’s core

107. The Chipko movement is associated with
a) preventing the felling of trees
b) afforestation
c) transparency in public life
d) sustainable development

108. The first Great Indian Empire was
a) Magadhan Empire
b) Kuru Empire
c) Paridava Empire
d) Gandhara Empire

109. The first President of Indian National Congress
a) A.O. Hume
b) W.C. Bonnerjee
c) Dadabhai Nauroji
d) Phirozeshah Mehta

110. The King who gave permission to establish East India Company in India
a) Jahangir
b) Aurangzeb
c) Shahjahan
d) Shershah

111. The person who conceptualized the idea of Pakistan
a) M.A. Jinnah
b) Hakim Azmal Khan
c) Mohammad Iqbal
d) Liaquat Ali Khan

112. Khilafat movement was organized
a) for getting Muslim Homeland
b) as a protest against British suppression of Turks
c) to preserve Turkish Empire with Khilafat as temporal head
d) as a protest against communal politics

113. The pattern of Centre-State relations in India can be traced back to
a) The U.S. Constitution
b) The Government of India Act, 1935
c) Motilal Nehru Committee Report
d) Ambedkar’s vision

114. Indian who played a very important role in World Communist Movement
a) Jyoti Basu
b) M.N, Roy
c) A.K. Gopalan
d) Prakash Karat

115. Who was the first recipient of Jnanapith award?
a) Amrita Pritam
b) Dinkar
c) D.V. Gundappa
d) G. Shankara Kurup

116. Name the winner of 2013 Nobel Prize for Literature (Modified)
a) Alice Munro
b) V.S. Naipaul
c) Doras Lessing
d) Salman Rushdie

117. Plea bargaining is
a) permissible in India
b) illegal in India
c) mandatory in India
d) allowed subject to the permission of the court

118. The person appointed by two parties to settle a dispute is known as
a) Judge
b) Arbitrator
c) Solicitor
d) Conciliator

119. Right to travel is a fundamental right under
a) Article 19 of the Constitution
b) Article 21 of the Constitution
c) Article 14 of the Constitution
d) None of the above

120. Genetically modified seeds have become controversial mainly because of
a) adverse impact on human health
b) adverse impact on flora around
c) adverse impact on ozone layer
d) emission of greenhouse gases

121. Legal aid for an accused is
a) fundamental right
b) legal right
c) Directive Principles of State Policy
d) Discretion of State

122. The members of Constituent Assembly who framed the Constitution were
a) directly elected by the people
b) indirectly elected
c) nominated
d) appointed by political parties

123. Ambedkar acted in Constituent Assembly as
a) President of the Assembly
b) Chairman of the Drafting Committee
c) the leading spokesman of weaker sections
d) a strong defender of fundamental rights

124. In India, international treaties are ratified by
a) Parliament
b) President
c) Prime Minister
d) The Union Cabinet

125. It is a constitutional requirement that the Parliament shall meet at least
a) twice in a year
b) thrice in a year
c) once in a year
d) None of the above

126. Governor of a State can be removed by
a) impeachment by State Legislature
b) the President
c) by the State Cabinet
d) the Union Government at the request of the Chief Minister

127. Sovereignty under the Constitution belongs to
a) the Parliament
b) the people
c) the Supreme Court
d) the President along with Parliament

128. The Supreme Court upheld Mandal Commission Report in
a) Bommai v. Union of India
b) Indira Sawhney v. Union of India
c) Unnikrishnan v. Union of India
d) Maneka Gandhi v. Union of India

129. Under our Constitution, right to property is
a) fundamental right
b) basic structure of the Constitution
c) Constitutional right
d) a mere legal right

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130. The Chairman of Sixth Pay Commission
a) Justice B.N. Srikrishna
b) Justice Ratnavel Pandian
c) Justice Jagannatha Shetty
d) Justice A.K. Majumdar

131. Right to education emanates from
a) right to culture and education under Articles 29 and 30
b) right to equality under Article 14
c) freedom of speech and expression under Article 19
d) right to life and personal liberty under Article 21

132. International Court of Justice is
a) an independent international institution
b) a principal organ of the U.N.O.
c) a subsidiary organ of the U.N.O.
d) a European Institution

133. The Liberhan Commission which received repeated extensions has been inquiring into
a) Godhra riots
b) Mumbai riots
c) Demolition of Babri Masjid
d) Killing of Sikhs in Delhi

134. The Monopolies and Restrictive Trade Practices Act was repealed by
a) Competition Act
b) Consumer Protection Act
c) Foreign Trade (Development and Regulation) Act
d) Liberalization Policy of the Government

135. Only Judge against whom a motion of impeachment was introduced into Parliament
a) Justice Subba Rao
b) Justice Ramaswami
c) Justice Mahajan
d) Justice Viraswami

136. The Mallimath Committee Report deals with
a) judicial delays in India
b) criminal justice administration
c) stock market reforms
d) review of Constitutional system

137. The first Woman Chief Justice of High Court in India
a) Leila Mukherji
b) Leila Seth
c) Fatima Bibi
d) Ruma Pal

138. Lok Adalats have been created under
a) Legal Services Authority Act
b) Arbitration and Conciliation Act
c) Administration of Justice Act
d) None of the above

139. Recent Nepal elections are globally significant because
a) Communists came to power through ballot box for the first time in the world
b) Monarchy was defeated by democratic forces
c) A militant movement joined the mainstream
d) Secularism triumphed over theocracy

140. The Third World leader who has been defying the U.S.A.
a) Fidel Castro
b) Hugo Chavez
c) Robert Mughabe
d) Hu Jintao

CLAT 2008 Question Paper

Instructions: From the four answers given, shade the appropriate answer in the space for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 2 (two) marks. (Total 20 marks)

141. Raju earns twice as much in March as in each of the other months of the year. What part of his annual earnings he earns in that month?
a) 1/5
b) 5/7
c) 2/13
d) 1/10

142. Sanjay sold his watch for Rs. 1140 and thereby loses 5%. In order to gain 5% he has to sell the watch for
a) Rs. 1254
b) Rs. 1260
c) Rs. 1197
d) Rs. 1311

143. A mixture of 40 litres of milk and water contains 10% of water. How much water is to be added to the mixture so that the water may be 20% in the new mixture.
a) 5 litres
b) 4 litres
c) 6.5 litres
d) 7.5 litres

144. A train 100 metres long running at 54 km/ hr takes 20 seconds to pass a bridge. The length of the bridge is
a) 50 mt
b) 150 mt
c) 200 mt
d) 620 mt

145. Sameer is as much younger to Mohan as he is older to Arun. If the sum of the ages of Mohan and Arun is 48, the age of Sameer is
a) 20 years
b) 24 years
c) 30 years
d) cannot be determined

146. A tank can be filled up by two pipes A and B in 2 hours and 3 hours respectively. A third pipe C can empty the full tank in 6 hours. If all the taps can be turned on at the same time, the tank will be full in
a) 1 hour
b) 40 minutes
c) 1 ½ hours
d) 3 hours

147. Of the three numbers, the first is one- third of the second and twice the third. The average of these numbers is 27. The largest of these numbers is
a) 18
b) 36
c) 54
d) 108

148. The length of a square is increased by 15% and breadth decreased by 15%. The area of the rectangle so formed
a) neither increases nor decreases
b) decreases by 2.25%
c) increases by 2.25%
d) decreases by 22.5%

149. The ratio of milk and water in 60 litres of adulterated milk is 2 : 1. If the ratio of milk and water is to be 1 : 2, then the amount of water to be added further is
a) 20 litres
b) 30 litres
c) 40 litres
d) 60 litres

150. A piece of cloth costs Rs. 70. If the piece is 4 meter longer and each meter costs Rs. 2 less, the cost remains unchanged. The length of the piece is
a) 8 mt
b) 9 mt
c) 10 mt
d) 12 mt

CLAT 2008 Question Paper

Instructions: Read carefully the questions and shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 2 (two) marks. (Total 50 marks)

151. A college received fifty applications for a certain course. In the qualifying examination, one-tenth of them secured marks in 90-95% range. Within remaining segment, three-fifths of them secured marks in 75-90% range. The rest secured below 75%. To get admission, the following restrictions hold good:
i. No student who has scored below 75% can seek admission to Physics course.
ii. No student is allowed to opt Physics without opting Mathematics.
iii. No student is allowed to opt Physics and Astrophysics simultaneously.
iv. To opt Mathematics or Astrophysics, a student should have scored at least 70% in the qualifying examination.

Which one of the following alternatives is possible?
a) Ninety percent of the applicants are admitted to Physics course.
b) Thirty-five percent of the applicants who are otherwise ineligible to join Physics course are admitted to Mathematics and Astrophysics course.
c) Students of Physics course outnumber those of Mathematics.
d) Whoever is eligible to study Mathematics is also eligible to study Physics.

152. A tourist can tour utmost four places out of A, B, C, D, E, F and G. Out of four, not more than two can come under holiday tour and at least two must come under business trip. The break up is as follows:
A, B, C and D – Business tour; E, F and G – Holiday tour

The following restrictions hold good.
A. If A is included, then both C and G are excluded.
B. If neither E nor F is included, then B or G or both of them can be included.
C. If G is included, then D cannot be included.

Which one of the following combinations is possible?
a) A, C, E and F
b) B, G and E
c) A, D and G
d) A, B and D

153. Under the same fact situation as above, suppose that the following restrictions hold good:
A. A can be included provided C is included.
B. E is included provided B or G is included but not both.
C. C can be included provided at least D or F is excluded.
Which one of the following is a certainty?
a) A, B, C, and E
b) A, C, D and F
c) B, C, D and E
d) A, B, C and F

154. Four members have to be nominated to a Committee and there are six candidates: A,B, C, D, E and F. The following restrictions hold good:
A. If A is nominated, then D does not find any place.
B. If B is nominated, then either E or F has to be nominated, but not both.
C. If C is nominated, then both D and E have to be nominated.
Which one of the following is an acceptable combination?
a) A, B, C and E
b) A, B, C and D
c) B, C, D and E
d) B, C, D and F

155. Political turmoil in a country is mainly caused by widespread violence and flawed economic policies of successive governments. If at all this has to be crushed, it can be achieved only by a dictatorial government which rules with iron hand. Therefore, the need of the hour is to elect a government which imposes fresh set of stringent legislations.
The alternatives suggested (not necessarily all), if true, considerably weaken the argument. However, one of them is most forceful. Identify the same.
a) It is not the imposition of new legislations which is required, but effective adherence to the existing legislations.
b) That government is the best government which governs least.
c) It is possible to overcome any evil by educating people.
d) Only dialogue in a free society can eradicate political turmoil.

156. Under the same fact situation as above, the alternatives suggested (not necessarily all), if true, significantly strengthen the argument. However, one of them is most forceful. Identify the same.
a) Espionage activities by enemy nations, which contribute to political turmoil, can be prevented only if the government is very strong.
b) The philosophy behind any economic policy, ‘push from bottom, press from top’ is to be followed to mitigate violence, and it is not observed.
c) Political turmoil is due to corrupt establishment.
d) Man is, by nature, a beast.

157. Exploitation of poor by rich can be stemmed only if the State exercises complete control over agriculture and industrial production. But State control is beset by two evils; corruption and delay. The net result is that if man tries to escape from one evil, then he is trapped by another. Suffering, hence, is inescapable.
The argument presented above seems to imply the following conclusions. Identify the one which is least dubious. Apply common sense.
a) If agriculture and industrial production can be abolished, we can free ourselves from all forms of evil
b) To avoid evil austere life shall be encouraged
c) The gap between poor and rich can be bridged by heavily taxing the rich and passing on the largesse to the poor
d) Man is, by nature, dishonest.

158. That the human soul is immaterial is an undisputed fact. Significantly, what is not matter is not spatial and consequently, it is not vulnerable to motion. Evidently, no motion no dissolution. What escapes from dissolution is also free from corruptibility.
Therefore, the human soul is immortal. In this argument, one premise is missing. Complete the argument by choosing from the following:
a) Nothing is free from dissolution
b) What is incorruptible is immortal
c) There is no motion
d) Matter does not exist.

159. Under the same fact situation as above, which one of the following, if true, affects seriously the argument presented above?
a) Matter is not bound by space
b) Matter is indestructible
c) Whatever exists is not necessarily affected by motion
d) What is not matter also is vulnerable to motion.

160. Protagonists of human rights vehemently oppose capital punishment. Their opposition stems mainly from three reasons. Firstly, man cannot terminate what he cannot generate. Secondly, the function of punishment is to reform the culprit. Thirdly, a culprit should be given an opportunity to repent. Admittedly, death penalty fails on all three counts. However, the defenders argue that a person is punished because he has to pay for his deeds. Reformation or repentance, according to them, is peripheral. Hence, death penalty is admissible.
Which one of the following is the focus of this debate?
a) Man’s rights and privileges
b) Nature and purpose of punishment
c) Prevention of crime
d) Mercy and revenge

161. Since Venus rotates slowly, Fred Whipple thought that like Mercury, Venus keeps one face always towards the Sun. If so, he said that the dark side would be very cold. However, he knew with the help of earlier study carried out by Petit and Nicholson that it was not the case. So, he concluded that the planet must rotate fairly often to keep the darker side warmer.
Which of the following is the original premise?
a) Slow rotation of Venus
b) Temperature of Venus
c) Frequent rotation of Venus
d) Equality of the rate of rotation and revolution.

162. Before formulating the laws of motion, Galileo distinguished between mathematical study and empirical study. He, first, theoretically derived the relation between distances and times for uniformly accelerating motion by letting the bn’.l roll a quarter, then half, then two- thirds and so on of the length of the groove and then measured the times on each occasion, which he repeated hundred times. He calculated, based on this study, that the distance travelled equalled the square of the time on all occasions.
Which one of the following characterizes Galileo’s method?
a) Speculation
b) Theoretical analysis
c) Generalization
d) Statistical analysis

163. Read carefully a brief summary of one of the investigations of Sherlock Holmes: “While investigating the murders of Stangerson and Enoch Drebber he got into conversation with fellow detectives which runs as follows: “The last link……….My case is complete…. Could you lay your hands upon those pills”. After he got those pills, Holmes cut one of them, dissolved it in water and placed it in front of the terrier. Contrary to his expectations, the animal survived. Though disappointed a bit, he thought for a while and then cut the other pill, dissolved it, added milk and placed before the animal. The moment it licked, the animal died. Those were the pills present at the scenes of crime.
Which one of the following aptly describes the method which this passage indicates?
a) Imagination
b) Experiment
c) Observation
d) Thought experiment

164. There has been much speculation concerning the origin of lunar craters. One hypothesis is that they are the results of the impact of heavy meteors on the surface of the moon while still soft. The most probable explanation is that they were produced by the gases liberated from the rocky matter. “While solidification was taking place these gases and water vapours steadily escaped through viscous surface, raising giant bubbles”. The reader can easily visualize the process that took place by watching frying of pancakes and noticing the formation of bubbles and craters on their surface.
Which one of the following actually helps us to determine the origin of lunar craters?
a) Analogy
b) Study of foreign body
c) Cause and effect relation
d) Speculation

165. ‘Perhaps the earliest work of Archimedes that we have is that on Plane Equilibrium. In this, some fundamental principles of mechanics are set forth as rigorous geometric propositions. The work opens with famous postulate ‘Equal weights at equal distances are in equilibrium; equal weights at unequal distances are not in equilibrium, but incline toward the weight at the greater distance’.
According to this passage, which factor or factors determine equilibrium?
a) weight
b) distance
c) weight and distance
d) equality of weights and distances

166. According to the above passage, which one of the following values can be assigned to the statement “inequal weights at equal distances are in disequilibrium”?
a) true
b) false
c) highly probable
d) highly improbable

167. According to the above passage, which one of the following values can be assigned to the statement “inequal weights at inequal distances are in disequilibrium”?
a) true
b) false
c) uncertain
d) unverifiable

168. Gregor Mendel in examining tea-plants found two sharply marked races, the tall and the short. He experimentally fertilized flowers of tall plants with pollen of short. The off spring were tall plants. He next let the flowers of this first generation be fertilized with their own pollen. In the following generation, shortness reappeared. Tallness and shortness were distributed not at random but in a definite, constant, and simple ratio: three dominant tails to one recessive short.
Which one of the following aptly describes the distribution of dominant and recessive characteristics?
a) systematic
b) equal interval
c) unpredictable
d) irregular interval

169. It is said that in his strongly worded reaction to quantum Physics, Einstein remarks “God does not play dice’ to which Bohr, another great physicist, reacted saying ‘Do not tell God what to do’. Bohr, earlier had argued that we can never know what the properties of an isolated quantum system are, though we can know the properties of macrocosmic objects.
Which one of the following is the focus of their debate?
a) the behaviour of God
b) probabilistic interpretation of the behaviour of quantum object
c) limits of human knowledge
d) irrelevance of microcosmic object

170. An efficient and diesel-independent public transport system is essential to the economic development of nation. Suppose that the government adopts a policy to that effect then there is another favourable result. The pollution of environment is reduced to a greater extent. But, then it has two-pronged backlash. The sale and consequently the production of two and four wheelers reduce to the minimum which in turn render a large number of people jobless. Cash flow to the treasury also is adversely affected. Such a step, therefore, is self-defeating unless the government evolves a counter-strategy to nullify the adverse effects.
Which one of the following accurately projects the opinion of an imaginary speaker or author, as the case may be, of this passage?
a) Abandon the idea of efficient and diesel-independent public transport system
b) Ensure sustained cash flow and create better job opportunities by inventing an alternate or more than one alternates
c) Public transport system shall be given up
d) Maintain production and sale at the same level by offering incentives.

171. A moot question to be considered is whether democratic form of government is a boon or bane, no matter what Lincoln might or might not have said. Rather his most (in?) famous adage, ‘by the people, for the people and of the people’ misses the most pertinent question; which attitude works behind when a person declares that he is a (or the right?) candidate to serve the people, and does not hesitate to contest and fight tooth and nail the election, an euphemism for battle with or without bullets. Admittedly, the covert attitude is different from overt attitude. Hardly any one contests the election unwillingly. A contestant is not persuaded by any one, but driven by his own passions and dubious motives. Contrast this picture with Socrates’ version; no honest man willingly takes up the job of ruler. If at all he accepts, he does so for fear of being ruled by one made up of inferior mettle. It is beyond even the wildest imagination, to expect an honest person to contest the election. Assuming that every statement is true, identify from among the given alternatives the one which strictly follows from the passage.
a) No assessment or appraisal of democracy is possible
b) Lincoln and Socrates are talking differently
c) Actually, Socrates scores over Lincoln on this issue
d) Rulers can be honest

172. According to the above passage, which one of the following correctly differentiates Lincoln’s and Socrates’ analyses?
a) the nature of democracy
b) merits and demerits of politicians
c) qualities of election
d) difference in mind set of respective men

173. Many environmentalists either adopt double standard or do not know what they are talking about. A protagonist of environment, for obvious reasons, ought not to bat for any type of progress because progress without meddling with nature is a myth. But none can live without scientific and technological advance which has singularly made progress possible. Furthermore, environment includes not just forest wealth and hills, but animal wealth also. An honest environmentalist is obliged to address the following questions. First, should man in the interest of hygiene, kill any living being be it an insect purported to be harmful or stray dogs? After all, this world does not belong to man alone. Which one of the following runs counter to the spirit of the passage?
a) In the interest of health and cleanliness, our surroundings must be free from disease-spreading bacteria
b) Non-violence as a moral principle extends to all living creatures
c) Vegetarian food is ideal to all men
d) Man should protect his environment because he has to live

174. Does our society need reservation in job? Before we defend reservation, we must consider some issues. Why do we need reservation? Obviously, reservation is required to lift the downtrodden and thereby achieve equality, How do you achieve this? Every individual, without exception, has a right to receive quality education. It is more so in the case of downtrodden people. Only a good- natured meritorious teacher can impart quality education. Suppose that a person who is neither good natured nor meritorious becomes a teacher thanks to reservation system then generations of students suffer.
Suppose that there is some merit in this argument. Then which of the following aptly describes the fall-out of this argument?
a) Reservation is individual – centric, but not group – centric
b) Reservation, in at least one field, is self-defeating
c) The argument is biased
d) Education is not required to uplift the downtrodden

175. Under the same fact situation as above, which one of the following helps you to circumvent the situation?
a) Replace education with money and make poor rich
b) To achieve equality encourage inter¬caste marriage
c) Only downtrodden people should form the government
d) Identify good, natured and meritorious people within downtrodden group to make them teachers.

CLAT 2008 Question Paper

Instructions: Each question contains some basic principles and fact situation in which these basic principles have to be applied. A list of probable decisions and reasons are given. You have to choose a decision with reasons specified by shading the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 3 (three) marks. (Total 30 marks)

1. On the death of husband, the widow shall inherit the property of her deceased husband along with children equally.
2. A widow cannot claim the property of the deceased if on the date when the question of succession opens, she has re-married.
3. A female acquiring property in any way has the absolute title to the property.

Apply the above three principles and decide the case of the following fact situation:

FACTS: When Sudhir died, he had 1/ 3rd share of the family property, which the three brothers Rudhir, Sudhir and Yasu inherited from their father, B.
Sudhir died on September 23rd, 2006 without having any issue. The widow of Sudhir, Ms. Win re-married on January 1, 2007.
Rudhir and Yasu refused ‘Win’ the share from Sudhir’s portion when Win claimed the entire property belonging to Sudhir on January 30, 2007.

Select your decision from the possible decisions given in list 1 and the appropriate reason from the indicated reasons given in list II given below:
List I – Decisions:
a) Win cannot inherit the property of Sudhir.
b) Win can inherit the property of Sudhir.
List II – Reasons:
i. Win does not belong to the family.
ii. Win was re-married.
iii. Her claim was on the date of Sudhir’s death.
iv. Her claim was submitted after she was re-married.
Your decision and reason
Shade the right decision with reason from the following
a) (a)(i)
b) (a)(ii)
c) (b)(iii)
d) (b)(iv)

1. If a person commits an act by which death is caused to another person and the act is done with the intention of causing death, that person is liable for murder.
2. A person has a right of self defence to the extent of causing death to another provided he apprehends death by the act of the latter.
FACTS: Shuva went to a hardware shop owned by Anup. Bargaining on some item led to altercation between the two and Shuva picked up a sharp object and hit at Anup. When Anup started bleeding, his wife Mridula intervened and she was also hit by Shuva and she became unconscious. Finding himself totally cornered, Anup delivered a severe blow to Shuva with a sharp object, Shuva died instantly.

Possible Decisions
a) Anup murdered Shuva.
b) Anup killed Shuva with the intention of killing to save himself and his wife.
c) Anup killed Shuva without any intention to do so just to save himself and his wife.
Probable Reasons for the decision
i. If a person kills another instantly on the spot, the intention to kill is obvious.
ii. Anup used force apprehending death of himself and his wife.
iii. Anup used disproportionate force.
iv. There was nothing to show that Shuva wanted to kill Anup or his wife.
Your decision with the reason
a) (a)(i)
b) (a)(iii)
c) (c)(ii)
d) (b)(i)

1. Consumable goods which are not fit for consumption are not marketable.
2. A consumer shall not suffer on account of unmarketable goods.
3. A seller is liable for knowingly selling unmarketable goods.
4. A manufacturer shall be liable for the quality of his products.
FACTS: Ram bought a Coca Cola bottle from Shama’s shop. Back at home, the server opened the bottle and poured the drink into the glasses of Ram and his friend Tom. As Tom started drinking, he felt irritation in his throat. Immediately, Ram and Tom took the sample to test and found nitric acid in the content. Ram filed a suit against Shama, Coca Cola company and the bottler, Kishen and Co.
Suggested Decisions
a) Ram cannot get compensation.
b) Tom can get compensation.
c) Both Ram and Tom can get compensation.
Suggested Reasons
i. Shama did not know the contents of sealed bottle.
ii. Ram did not actually suffer though he bought the bottle.
iii. Tom did not buy the bottle.
iv. Coca Cola company is responsible since it supplied the concentrate.
v. Kishen & Co, is responsible since it added water, sugar, etc., and sealed the bottle.
vi. Shama is responsible for selling the defective product.
Your decision with the reason
a) (a)(ii)
b) (b)(vi)
c) (c)(v)
d) (c)(iv)

1. If A is asked to do something by B, B is responsible for the act, not A.
2. If A, while acting for B commits a wrong, A is responsible for the wrong, not B.
3. If A is authorised to do something for, but in the name of A without disclosing B’s presence, both A and B may be held liable.
FACTS: Somu contracted with Amar whereunder Amar would buy a pumpset to be used in Somu’s farm. Such a pumpset was in short supply in the market. Gulab, a dealer, had such a pumpset and he refused to sell it to Amar. Amar threatened Gulab of serious consequences if he fails to part with the pumpset. Gulab filed a complaint against Amar.
Proposed Decisions
a) Amar alone is liable for the wrong though he acted for Somu.
b) Amar is not liable for the wrong, though he is bound by the contract with Somu.
c) Somu is bound by the contract and liable for the wrong.
d) Both Somu and Amar are liable for the wrong.
Suggested Reasons
i. Amar committed the wrong while acting for the benefit of Somu.
ii. Amar cannot do while acting for Somu something which he cannot do while acting for himself.
iii. Both Amar and Somu are liable since they are bound by the contract.
iv. Somu has to be responsible for the act of Amar committed for Somu’s benefit.
Your decision with the reason
a) (a)(i)
b) (a)(ii)
c) (c)(iii)
d) (d)(iv)

1. The owner of a land has absolute interest on the property including the contents over and under the property.
2. Water flowing below your land is not yours though you can use it.
3. Any construction on your land belongs to you.
4. All mineral resources below the land belongs to the State.
FACTS: There is a subterranean water flow under Suresh’s land surface. Suresh constructed a huge reservoir and drew all subterranean water to the reservoir. As a result, the wells of all adjacent property owners have gone dry. They demanded that either Suresh must demolish the reservoir or share the reservoir water with them.
Proposed Decisions
a) Suresh need not demolish the reservoir.
b) Suresh has to demolish the reservoir.
c) Suresh has to share the water with his neighbours.
d) The Government can take over the reservoir.
Possible Reasons
i. Water cannot be captured by one person for his personal use.
ii. The Government must ensure equitable distribution of water.
iii. Whatever is under Suresh’s land may be used by him.
iv. Suresh has to respect the rights of others regarding water.
Your decision with the reason
a) (a)(iii)
b) (b)(i)
c) (c)(iv)
d) (d)(ii)

1. An employer shall be liable for the wrongs committed by his employees in the course of employment.
2. Third parties must exercise reasonable care to find out whether a person is actually acting in the course of employment.
FACTS: Nandan was appointed by Syndicate Bank to collect small savings from its customers spread over in different places on daily basis. Nagamma, a housemaid, was one of such customers making use of Nandan’s service. Syndicate Bank, after a couple of years, terminated Nandan’s service. Nagamma, unaware of this fact, was handing over her savings to Nandan who misappropriated them. Nagamma realised this nearly after three months, when she went to the Bank to withdraw money. She filed a complaint against the Bank.
Possible Decisions
a) Syndicate Bank shall be liable to compensate Nagamma.
b) Syndicate Bank shall not be liable to compensate Nagamma.
c) Nagamma has to blame herself for her negligence.
Possible Reasons
i. Nandan was not acting in the course of employment after the termination of his service.
ii. A person cannot blame others for his own negligence.
iii. Nagamma was entitled to be informed by the Bank about Nandan.
iv. The Bank is entitled to expect its customers to know actual position.
Your decision with the reason
a) (b)(i)
b) (c)(ii)
c) (a)(iii)
d) (b)(iv)

1. A master shall be liable for the fraudulent acts of his servants committed in the course of employment.
2. Whether an act is committed in the course of employment has to be judged in the context of the case.
3. Both master and third parties must exercise reasonable care in this regard.
FACTS: Rama Bhai was an uneducated widow and she opened an S.B. account with Syndicate Bank with the help of her nephew by name Keshav who was at that time working as a clerk in the Bank. Keshav used to deposit the money of Rama Bhai from time to time and get the entries done in the passbook. After a year or so, Keshav was dismissed from the service by the Bank. Being unaware of this fact, Rama Bhai continued to hand over her savings to him and Keshav misappropriated them. Rama Bhai realised this only when Keshav disappeared from the scene one day and she sought compensation from the Bank.
Possible Decisions
a) Syndicate Bank shall be liable to compensate Rama Bhai.
b) Syndicate Bank shall not be liable to compensate Rama Bhai.
c) Rama Bhai cannot blame others for her negligence.
Possible Reasons
i. Keshav was not an employee of the Bank when the fraud was committed.
ii. The Bank was not aware of the special arrangement between Rama Bhai and Keshav.
iii. It is the Bank’s duty to take care of vulnerable customers.
iv. Rama Bhai should have checked about Keshav in her own interest.
Your decision with the reason
a. (a)(iii)
b. (c)(iv)
c. (b)(ii)
d. (b)(i)

1. A person is liable for negligence, if he fails to take care of his neighbour’s interest.
2. A neighbour is anyone whose interests should have been foreseeable by a reasonable man while carrying on his activities.
FACTS: A cricket match was going on in , a closed door stadium. A cricket fan who could not get into the stadium was watching the game by climbing up a nearby tree and sitting there. The cricket ball in the course of the game went out of the stadium and hit this person and injured him. He filed a suit against the organizers.
Possible Decisions
a) The organizers are liable to compensate the injured person.
b) The organizers are not liable to compensate the injured person.
c) The injured person should have avoided the place where he might be hit by the cricket ball.
Possible Reasons
i. The organizers are responsible for the people inside the stadium.
ii. The organizers could not have foreseen somebody watching the game by climbing up a tree.
iii. A person crazy about something must pay the price for that.
iv. The organizers shall be liable to everybody likely to watch the game.
Your decision with the reason
a. (a)(iv)
b. (a) (iii)
c. (b) (ii)
d. (c) (i)

1. When a person unlawfully interferes in the chattel of another person by which the latter is deprived of its use, the former commits the tort of conversion.
2. Nobody shall enrich himself at other’s expense.
FACTS: A patient suffering from stomach ailment approached a teaching hospital.
He was diagnosed as suffering from appendicitis and his appendix was removed. He became alright. The hospital, however, found some unique cells in the appendix and using the cell lines thereof, it developed drugs of enormous commercial value. When the erstwhile patient came to know about it, he claimed a share in the profit made by the hospital.
Possible Decisions
a) The hospital need not share its profits with the patient.
b) The hospital may share its profits on ex gratia basis.
c) The hospital shall share its profits with the patient.
Possible Reasons
i. The patient, far from being deprived of the use of his appendix, actually benefitted by its removal.
ii. The hospital instead of throwing away the appendix conducted further research on it on its own and the development of drug was the result of its own effort.
iii. The hospital could not have achieved its success without that appendix belonging to the patient.
iv. Everybody must care for and share with others.
Your decision with the reason
a. (a)(i)
b. (a) (ii)
c. (c) (iii)
d. (c) (iv)

1. Copying including attempt to copy in examinations is a serious offence.
2. One shall not take any unauthorised materials into the examination hall.
FACTS: Rohini, an examinee in PUC, was thoroughly checked while entering into the examination hall. She did not have anything other than authorised materials such as pen, instrument box, etc., with her. As she was writing her paper, an invigilator found close to her feet a bunch of chits. The invigilator on scrutiny found that the chits contained answers to the paper being written by Rohini. Rohini’s answers tallied with the answers in the chits. A charge of copying was levelled against Rohini.
Probable Decisions
a) Rohini shall be punished for copying.
b) Rohini cannot be punished for copying.
Probable Reasons
i. Something lying near the feet does not mean that the person is in possession of that thing.
ii. The fact that she was checked thoroughly while getting into the hall must be conclusive.
iii. Similarities between her answers and the answers in the chit indicate that she used those chits.
iv. After using those chits, she must have failed to dispose of them properly.
Your decision with the reason
a. (a)(iii)
b. (a) (iv)
c. (b) (iii)
d. (b) (i)

Instructions: From the four answers given, shade the appropriate answer in the space provided for it on the OMR answer sheet.
Marks: Each question carries 2 (two) marks. (Total 10 marks)

186. All contracts are agreements. All agreements are accepted offers. Which of the following derivation is correct?
a) All accepted offers are contracts
b) All agreements are contracts
c) All contracts are accepted offers
d) None of the above.

187. No minor can enter into a contract of work. Working in a shop can be done only by a contract.
Which of the following derivation is correct?
a) A minor cannot work in a shop
b) A shop cannot contract with a minor
c) There cannot be a contract to which minor is a party
d) None of the above.

188. All motor vehicles are required to have third party insurance. Any vehicle not using mechanical device is not a motor vehicle.
Which of the following is correct derivation from the above?
a) All Third Party Insurances relate to motor vehicles
b) Vehicles not using mechanical device need not have Third Party Insurance
c) All vehicles must have Third Party Insurance
d) None of the above.

189. A contract contravening public policy is void. There cannot be a general definition of public policy.
Which of the following is correct derivation from the above?
a) There cannot be a general definition of contract
b) Since public policy is uncertain, contract is also uncertain
c) The impact of public policy on contract is to be judged in individual cases
d) None of the above.

190. International Law is the law between sovereign states. A sovereign is the supreme authority not bound by legal constraints.
Which of the following is correct derivation from the above?
a) International law is not law binding on the sovereign states
b) International Law is only a positive morality
c) International Law is in the nature of pact between sovereign states
d) None of the above.

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