BHU UET LLB 2018 Question Paper

BHU UET LLB 2018 Question Paper

Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 450

1. Which country is to host global world Environment Day-2018 (Wed-2018) celebrations?
(1) India
(2) China
(3) South Africa
(4) Brazil

2. Which one of the following are some important pollutants released by steel industry in India?
(a) Oxides of sulphur
(b) Oxides of nitrogen
(c) Carbon monoxide
(d) Carbon dioxide
Select the correct answer using the code given below :
(1) (a), (c) and (d) only
(2) (b) and (c) only
(3) (a) and (d) only
(4) (a), (b), (c) and (d)

3. Saffron is obtained from which among the following part of the plant?
(1) Stigma
(2) anther
(3) Stamen
(4) Pollen

4. Which among the following is not a ‘hereditary’ disease?
(1) Thalassemia
(2) Colour blindness
(3) Haemophilia
(4) Leukemia

5. Which one of the following metal is used for ‘amalgamation’?
(1) Copper
(2) Mercury
(3) Lead
(4) Aluminium

6. LPG is a hydrocarbon consisting of a mixture of :
(1) methane and butane
(2) propane and butane
(3) ethane and propane
(4) ethane and butane

7. In context with computers, what can be the uses of ‘cookies’?
(a) Maintain information
(b) Run a programme
(c) Deliver a virus
Choose the correct answer:
(1) only (a)
(2) (a) and (b)
(3) (b) and (c)
(4) (a), (b) and (c)

8. Deposition of which among the following in the joints, causes arthritis?
(1) Lactic acid
(2) Oxalic acid
(3) Acetic acid
(4) Uric acid

9. Which among the following is the edible part in rice?
(1) Fruit
(2) Cotyledons
(3) Endosperm
(4) Embryo

10. In the Windows XP, what does XP stands for?
(1) Extra-Powerful
(2) Experience
(3) Extended Platform
(4) Experienced Platform

11. In many countries with cold climates, the municipalities often sprinkle salt on icy roads in winter. Which among the following is the correct reason for this?
(1) The salt inhibits the formation of ice crystals.
(2) The salt lowers the freezing point of water.
(3) The salt raises the freezing point of water.
(4) The salt provides necessary friction to the tyres of the vehicles.

12. Dalton’s name is associated with which of the following terms?
(1) Electron
(2) Proton
(3) Atom
(4) Neutron

13. A gold ring which is 50% pure. Its purity can be alternatively shown as :
(1) 24 carat
(2) 22 carat
(3) 18 carat
(4) 12 carat

14. Which among the following is the main constituent of ‘Biogas’?
(1) Methane
(2) Propane
(3) Butane
(4) Ethane

15. Which State has topped the Health Index progressive report, which is recently released by NITI Aayog?
(1) Punjab
(2) Kerala
(3) Uttar Pradesh
(4) Tamil Nadu

16. Which Indian personality has been conferred the ‘Grand Collar of the State u Palestine’ ?
(1) Sushma Swaraj
(2) Lata Mangeshkar
(3) Narendra Modi
(4) Amitabh Bachchan

17. The ‘Sela Pass’ is located in which State?
(1) Sikkim
(2) Arunachal Pradesh
(3) Manipur
(4) Himachal Pradesh

18. Who established the ‘Tatvabodhini Sabha’?
(1) Debendranath Tagore
(2) Raja Ram Mohan Roy
(3) Rabindranath Tagore
(4) Keshab Chandra Sen

19. Who initiated the ‘Young Bengal Movement’?
(1) H. P. Blavatsky
(2) Henry Vivian Derozio
(3) William Jones
(4) A. O. Hume

20. Which of the following pair is incorrect?
(1) Swami Vivekananda—Ramkrishna Mission
(2) Jyotiba Phule—Satya Shodhak Samaj
(3) Gopal Krishna Gokhale—Adi Brahma Samaj
(4) Atmaram Pandurang—Prarthana Samaj

21. Which of the following State was not annexed by Dalhousie under the ‘Doctrin of Lapse Policy’?
(1) Jaitpur
(2) Satara
(3) Junagarh
(4) Sambalpur

22. In which of the following State ‘Kuka Movement’ was initiated?
(1) Rajputana
(2) Punjab
(3) Bengal
(4) Bihar

23. Which of the following pair is incorrect?
(1) Bengal Gazette—James Augustus Hikki
(2) Banga Durshan—Bankim Chandra Chatterjee
(3) Kesari—Bal Gangadhar Tilak
(4) Hindu—Dada Bhai Naoroji

24. Which of the following pair is correct?
(1) First Congress Convention—Calcutta
(2) Second Congress Convention—Madras
(3) Third Congress Convention—Nagpur
(4) Fourth Congress Convention—Allahabad

25. Chronological sequence in which the following events are correct?
(1) Partition of Bengal, Creation of Muslim League, Surat Congress Convention Congress-League Pact
(2) Creation of Muslim League, Surat Congress Convention, Partition of Bengal. Congress-League Pact
(3) Partition of Bengal, Surat Congress Convention, Creation of Muslim League. Congress-League Pact
(4) Surat Congress Convention, Creation of Muslim League, Partition of Bengal. Congress-League Pact

26. Montegue-Chelmsford Reform is also known as :
(1) Indian Council Act, 1892
(2) Indian Council Act, 1909
(3) Government of India Act, 1919
(4) Government of India Act, 1935

27. The words ‘Satyameva Jayate’ inscribed below our national emblem have been taken from :
(1) Puran
(2) Jataka
(3) Mandaka Upanishad
(4) Mahabharat

28. Which one of the following is the author of the book Key Note?
(1) Jawaharlal Nehru
(2) J. R. D. Tata
(3) J. N. Dixit
(4) Arundhati Roy

29. The largest amount of energy the Earth receives from the Sun is in the form of
(1) X-rays and Gamma rays
(2) Infra-red rays and heat
(3) Ultraviolet rays and X-rays
(4) Gamma rays and visible rays

30. In which one of the following cities, the headquarters of World Trade Organisation is located?
(1) Tokyo
(2) New York
(3) Berlin
(4) Geneva

31. Legal Principle : Marrying once again during the subsistence of earlier marriage is an offence punishable under law.
Facts : Mr. Kumar and Ms. Anita are married for the last 4 years. Ms. Anita met with an accident and was admitted to the hospital in an unconscious condition. Now 50 days have lapsed and her unconscious condition continues. The doctors say that her survival would be difficult. Mr. Kumar and Ms. Anita have a young kid aged 8 months, whom they love very much. As there is no body to take care of the child, Mr. Kumar asked his friend Ms. Urmila to take care of the kid. She imposed a condition that she would take care of the kid only if he marries her. Under these circumstances Mr. Kumar married Ms. Urmila.
(1) Ms. Urmila forced Mr. Kumar to marry her. So Mr. Kumar has no- committed any offence.
(2) Mr. Kumar was helpless under the given circumstances. So he has not committed any offence.
(3) Mr. Kumar by marrying Ms. Urmila has committed an offence.
(4) Mr. Kumar has not committed any offence as the doctors in the hospital have said that Ms. Anita’s survival is difficult.

32. Legal Principle : An act of God is an operation of natural forces so unexpected that, no human foresight or skill could reasonably be expected to anticipate it.
Facts : The Young Boys Association was celebrating its 10th anniversary and arranged for a concert by a leading musical group. The event was organized in one of the best auditoria and all the tickets were sold out. On the day of event, an earthquake destroyed many buildings including the auditorium. People who had purchased the tickets asked for refund from the Young Boys Association as show could not take place.
(1) The Young Boys Association must refund the cost of tickets.
(2) The Management of the auditorium must refund the cost of tickets.
(3) The Young Boys Association or any else need not refund the cost of tickets as if was an Act of God.
(4) The ticket holders can demand the show to be organized at a later point of lime.

33. Legal Principle : No remedy for the injury caused by an act, to which one has voluntarily consented.
Facts : In an exhibition cricket match organised by a club, Kohil hit a full toss delivery of Hans over the fence for a six. The ball fell on the head of Shome, a spectator and severely injured him. Shome had purchased a ticket costing Rs 1,000 to watch the match. Shome and the Club Manager are sworn enemies.
(1) Shome can recover the costs of his medical expenses from Kohil.
(2) Shome can recover the cost of his medical expenses from Hans.
(3) Shome can recover the cost of his medical expenses from the Club Manager.
(4) Nobody would be liable to pay anything to Shome.

34. Legal Principle : When at the desire of the promisor, the promise promises w do some act, such promise is called consideration for the promise.
Facts : A arranges his Birthday Party at his home, and his friend B promises to cook a special dish for the guests. On the day of the party, A finds that B neither came to his party nor did he cooked the special dish. A sues B for the breach contract. Will A succeed in his action?
(1) A will succeed because his friend has failed to keep his promise.
(2) A will succeed because his reputation was affected due to his irresponsible behaviour.
(3) A will not succeed because there is no consideration for his friends promise to bring the special dish.
(4) Both (1) and (2)

35. Legal Principle : The Constitution of India guarantees freedom of speech anc. expression to all the citizens subject to the power of the Stale to make a law and impose restrictions on this freedom in the interest of sovereignty and integrity of India, the security of State, friendly relations with foreign States, public order, decency or morality, or in relation to contempt of court, defamation, incitement of an offence.
Facts : Joy TV, a Hong Kong based Satellite TV Company introduces a new channel called as ‘Channel XXX’ which can be viewed in India is means for adults since it telecasts only adult films. The Government of India passes a low and bans viewing of this channel and other similar channels in India. It also makes reception and circulation of such programmes by cable TV operators throughout India because they were expecting massive viewership tor Channel XXX. the Cable TV Operators’ Federation in New Delhi filed a writ petition in the Supreme Court challenging the validity of the new law as contrary to freedom speech and expression. What could be the main argument on behalf of the government to justify their action?
(1) The Government has all power to allow or to stop the telecasting of a new channel in the country.
(2) State can impose reasonable restriction in the interest of decency or morality, on telecast of a channel showing adult films.
(3) Freedom of speech and expression does not include freedom to air adult films.
(4) State can impose reasonable restriction to maintain public order.

36. Legal Principle : Nothing is an offence, which is done by a person who is bound by law to do it..
Facts: A, a Police Officer, without warrant, apprehends Z, who has committed murder.
(1) A is guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement.
(2) A is not guilty of the offence of wrongful confinement.
(3) A may he guilty of the offence of wrongful restraint.
(4) A cannot apprehend Z without a warrant issued by a court of Jaw.

37. Legal Principle : Indian Parliament has enacted a law in 1994, prohibiting commercial dealing in human organ.
Facts : A, a poor man in dire need of money to pay off his dues to the lenders, A approaches Z, a doctor, to operate on him to remove one of his kidneys for money. Whether A has committed any offence?
(1) Yes, removal of kidney for money is illegal.
(2) Yes, removing kidney for money to save the life of another.
(3) No, Z performed the operation with A’s consent and fully explained him the risks involved.
(4) No, as act was done for /Vs benefit so that he could pay off the money lenders.

38. Legal Principle : Services rendered to a patient by a doctor (except A ,u n free of charge) by way of consultation, diagnosis and treatment fall in the definition of ‘service’ under the Consumer Protection Act.
Facts : ‘A’ was the only child of his parents. Once he had high fever and his parents called a doctor at home. Doctor charged for this visit and lather made the payment. This doctor used to work at n reputed hospital in Delhi. The doctor administered certain medicines and asked the nurse to stay with him far night and administer to him a chloroquine injection. This injection was generally not suitable for young children. The nurse, without prior lest followed instructions of the doctor and gave the injection. As a result of an allergy reaction, the child died. The parents sued the nurse and the doctor.
(1) Doctor was rendering a ‘service’; hence liable to pay compensation.
(2) Doctor was not liable as he came to their home to give personal treatment and was not in the hospital.
(3) This is not a service; hence not liable.
(4) Only the nurse is liable.

39. Legal Principle : When one person signifies to another his willingness to do or to abstain from doing anything, with a view to obtaining the assent of that other to such act or abstinence, he is said to make a proposal. The expression u! willingness/desire results in a valid proposal only when it is made/addressed to some person(s).
Facts : X makes the following statement in an uninhabited hail : “I wish to sell my mobile phone for Rs 1,000”.
Which of the following derivations is correct?
(1) X made a statement that resulted in a promise.
(2) X made a statement that resulted m a proposal.
(3) X made a statement that did not result in any proposal.
(4) X made a statement that resulted in an agreement.

40. Legal Principle : Legal aid is a right and not a charity.
Facts : A person facing a criminal charge in a criminal trial pleads that he is unable to engage an advocate for reasons of poverty and that he should be provided with a lawyer at State expenses to defend him.
(1) State is bound to provide him a lawyer as it is a matter of his right.
(2) State may refuse to pay the expenses of lawyer to a criminal.
(3) State may deny on the ground of unavailability of lawyer or lack of finance.
(4) State may provide him a lawyer on the condition that he will return to the Government the fee payable to the advocate within a reasonable period.

41. Legal Principle : Justice must not only be done, but also be seen to be done.
Facts : A Judge is a shareholder in a Company, which is a party to a ease before him. The integrity of the Judge is above suspicion. Both the opposing counsels affirm their faith in the impartiality of the Judge. The case is at the stage of final arguments. The Judge, however, recluses himself from the case, on the ground of his shareholding.
Which of the following is the most appropriate statement in the light of the Principle cited here?
(1) The Judge should have continued hearing the ease since he was an honest Judge.
(2) The Judge should have continued hearing since the counsels of both the parties have requested him to do so and, had thus agreed to adjudication by him.
(3) Had the Judge continued to hear the case, its outcome might have appeared to be prejudiced, even though it would not have been so.
(4) The Judge could have lost objectivity in the case and therefore reclused from it.

42. Legal Principle : It is settled principle that an occupier should not do a dangerous act without adequate warning.
Facts : ‘A’ was cutting a large tree on his land. Some boys were playing nearby. ‘A’ paid no attention and the tree fell, one of the boys was hit by a branch and suffered injury.
(1) The boy was illegally present and cannot claim protection of law.
(2) A was liable as he did not give warning of the danger likely to arise by the falling tree although he knew that the boy was present.
(3) A is not liable as there is no duty to warm a person present illegally mi un- occupier’s premises.
(4) A was carrying out his lawful profession on his own and anyone came there at his peril. Hence, A is not liable.

43. A woman in India on whom the rape is committed is called :
(1) prosecutrix
(2) prostitute
(3) fallen
(4) woman of easy virtue

44. Mr. A, a witness in a case gave a statement in a court for which he knows it to be false. He committed the offence of
(1) peril
(2) false evidence
(3) perjury
(4) mistake in Jaw

45. Sometimes, an accused seeks pardon from the court and offers to give evidence against all others involved in a crime. He is called
(1) Witness
(2) Clone
(3) Approver
(4) Plaintiff

46. A ‘deponent’ means
(1) a person who makes a statement under oath
(2) a person who signs an FIR
(3) a person who files a plaint
(4) a person who is a defaulter of certain Government dues

47. ‘The law of place’ is termed as :
(1) National Law
(2) Lex Loci
(3) Jus Remedium
(4) Judge made Law-

48. The Committee formed to suggest solution to curb ragging on the campus in the Educational Institutions is named as
(1) Y. K. Sabharwal Committee
(2) Universal College Committee
(3) Tehelka Committee
(4) R. K. Raghavan Committee

49. The Union Government on the recommendation of the_____ under the Chairmanship of_____ has decided to decriminalize Section____ of Indian Penal Code.
(1) 20th Law Commission, Justice A. P. Shah and Section 309
(2) 20th Law Commission, Justice M. P. Shah and Section 307
(3) Supreme Court of India, Justice H. L. Dattu and Section 309
(4) Planning Commission, Law Minister, Section 309

50. Name the Commission which organised State on the basis of Languages
(1) Fazl Ali Commission
(2) Dharam Vir Commission
(3) Ashok Mehta Commission
(4) Sanathan Commission

51. An ‘encumbrance’ in legal parlance is a
(1) liability on property
(2) grant of property
(3) gift of property
(4) restriction on property

52. The present UN Secretary—General Antonio Guterres is from
(1) Portugal
(2) North Korea
(3) China
(4) Mongolia

53. Which of the following Asian Languages are UN Official Languages?
(1) Hindi and Japanese
(2) Chinese and Hindi
(3) Japanese and Arabic
(4) Chinese and Arabic

54. The First Woman Judge in the ICJ (International Court of Justice) is
(1) Sandra Williams
(2) Dame Rosalyn Higgins
(3) Fatima Bivi
(4) Gyan Sudha Mishra

55. Find the incorrect match
Group—A – Group—B
(1) K. K. Venugopal – Solicitor-General of India
(2) Ravi Shankar Prasad – Law Minister of India
(3) H. L. Dattu – Chairperson, NHRC
(4) Dipak Misra – Chief Justice of India

56. Who is (he Chief Election Commissioner?
(1) H.S. Brahm
(2) Om Prakash Singh Rawat
(3) Achal Kumar Jyoti
(4) R. Balakrishnan

57. The test of creamy layer in reservation policy in India is not applicable to :
(1) SC
(2) ST
(3) OBC
(4) Both (1) and (2)

58. Schedule IX of Indian Constitution :
(1) provides immunity to the laws listed in it
(2) enables legislations to claim protection from attack under the Constitution
(3) deals with protection to land reform legislation only
(4) provides immunity to legislations listed in it but now they are liable to judicial review

59. Creation of a new State requires_____ majority for Constitutional Amendment.
(1) simple
(2) two-third
(3) three-fourth
(4) two-third plus ratification by half of all States

60. A retired Jude of a High Court cannot:
(1) practise in the Supreme Court
(2) practise in any High Court in India
(3) practise in the High Court from where he has retired
(4) practise in any court in India

61. Central Vigilance Commissioner shall hold office for a term of ___ years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
(1) 4
(2) 3
(3) 2
(4) 1

62. Which one of the following decided to set up a website, which will compare rho World’s Constitutions by themes online “to arm drafters with a better tool lot Constitution design and writing”?
(1) UN
(2) Google
(3) Microsoft
(4) Amnesty International

63. A woman is changing her clothes in a trial room, A is peeping through window What offence is committed by A ?
(1) Rape
(2) Sexual assault
(3) Voyeurism
(4) Stalking

64. X, a doctor, informs his patient Y that he is suffering from cancer. Hearing this Y dies of heart failure. X has committed
(1) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(2) no offence because he X communicated in faith
(3) the offence of killing Y because X knew that Y could die after hearing the news
(4) the murder of Y

65. For providing affordable access to justice to the citizens of India at the grassroots level, at their doorsteps, a body was established by an Act of the Parliament that came into force on 2nd October, 2009. What this Statutory Body is called?
(1) Nyaya Panchayat
(2) Gram Nyayalaya
(3) Gram Panchayat
(4) Mobile Court

66. The Right to Privacy is a Fundamental Right decided by the Supreme Court in -2017. Identify the case
(1) Justice K. S. Puttaswamy vs. Union of India
(2) Govind vs. Stare of MP
(3) Madhukar Narayan vs. State of Maharashtra
(4) Mr. X vs. Hospital Z

67. The judgment of International Court of Justice is signed by :
(1) the President and Registrar of the Court
(2) all the Judges who heard the case
(3) only I he President of the Court
(4) only the Registrar of the Court

68. Which of the following is not true?
(1) Use of computer to perpetrate acts civil or criminal wrong is computer crime.
(2) Theft of computer hardware or software amounts to computer crime.
(3) Use of special knowledge about computer technology for an offence is computer crime.
(4) None of the above

69. Which of the following is appropriate authority to make law to regulate the right of citizenship?
(1) Parliament
(2) State Legislature
(3) President
(4) Chief Election Commissioner

70. Constitution of India abolishes untouchability and the right against it is enforceable against :
(1) the State
(2) private party
(3) Both the above
(4) persons of another cast

71. A persons arrested and detained in custody shall be produced before the nearest Magistrate within:
(1) 12 hours of such arrest
(2) 24 hours of such arrest
(3) 48 hours of such arrest
(4) a reasonable period of time as police deems fit

72. Environment means :
(1) air, water, land, forest
(2) air, water, plants, mines and minerals
(3) air, water, animals, plants, micro organism, living creature and their inter-relationship
(4) air, water, animals, plants and micro-organism

73. ‘A’ shows revolver to a dead body and removes valuables from that dead body. Which offence has ‘A’ committed?
(1) Theft
(2) Robbery
(3) Criminal mis-appropriation
(4) None of the above

74. hoi stealing purse, X thrusts his hand into the pocket of Y but there is no purse m the pocket. X has committed
(1) attempt to commit theft
(2) no attempt to commit theft as its commission was absolutely impossible
(3) no attempt to commit theft as its commission was relatively impossible
(4) theft irrespective of fact whether purse was there or not

75. Ramesh instigates Somesh to kill Z. Somesh refuses to do so. Ramesh has committed the offence of
(1) attempt
(2) abetment
(3) criminal conspiracy
(4) no offence

76. Shyam puts on military uniform and pretends himself to be an Army Officer and dishonestly receives money for appointing M in Army. Which offence Shy am has committed?
(1) Extortion
(2) Cheating by personation
(3) Fraud
(4) Criminal Breach of Trust

77. A intended to kill X but kills Z by mistake. Which of the following statement is correct in this regard?
(1) A will not be held liable because he did not kill Z intentionally.
(2) A will be liable because of doctrine of transferred malice.
(3) A will not be held liable because the death was caused by mistake.
(4) A will not be liable because death was accidental.

78. Who was elected as Provisional Chairman of the Constituent Assembly.
(1) Sachchidananda Sinha
(2) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(3) Dr. K. M. Munshi
(4) Dr. B. R Ambedkar

79. The concept of Joint Sitting of both the Houses of Parliament has been borrowed under the Constitution of India from the Constitution of
(1) Soviet Union
(2) South Africa
(3) Australia
(4) Canada

80. The Anti-Defection Law came into existence by
(1) 42nd Constitutional Amendment
(2) 52nd Constitutional Amendment
(3) 92nd Constitutional Amendment
(4) 93rd Constitutional Amendment

Directions (Question No. 81 to 88) : Given below in bold are a few foreign language phrases that are commonly used. Choose the correct meaning from each of the phrases!’

81. Exceptis excipiendis means
(1) without exception
(2) with exceptions as appropriate
(3) without proper investigation
(4) with proper investigation

82. Carte blanche means
(1) absolute discretionary power
(2) limited freedom to consult someone
(3) working as a slave
(4) working as a servant

83. In situ means
(1) in the office
(2) in the lawn
(3) in the backyard
(4) in its original place

84. Weltanschauung means
(1) philosophy of politics
(2) philosophy of history
(3) philosophy of life
(4) economic base of living

85. Summum bonum means
(1) the ultimate wrong
(2) the ultimate good
(3) the supreme commander
(4) the highest mountain peak

86. Nulla bona means
(1) the debtor has no property for seizure
(2) the debtor has ample property for seizure
(3) the debtor’s relative has ample property for seizure
(4) the debtor is mentally not sound

87. Sine quo non stands for
(1) worthless fellow
(2) unqualified person
(3) verbose person
(4) indispensable person

88. Verbum satienti stands for
(1) a word is enough
(2) a word is not enough
(3) a quote is enough
(4) a sentence is not enough

89. Select the pair of words that expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair “Habits: Instincts”:
(1) Work : Play
(2) Training : Heredity
(3) Learning : Force
(4) Birds : Animals

90. Select the pair of words that expresses a relationship similar to that expressed in the pair “Mad : Insane” :
(1) Brave : Timid
(2) Healthy : Fat
(3) Red : Green
(4) Slim : Thin

91. Select the synonym of domain from the following
(1) main
(2) marketing
(3) fielding
(4) area

92. Which of the following is the synonym of fictitious ?
(1) Imaginary
(2) Flattering
(3) Damaging
(4) Fraudulent

93. Which of the following is the antonym of radiate ?
(1) Approach
(2) Absorb
(3) Cool
(4) Tarnish

94. Select the antonym of the word tacit from the following options
(1) involved
(2) inherent
(3) implied
(4) explicit

95. In the following sentence, the first and the last parts are numbered 1 and 6. The remaining parts of the sentence are split into four parts marked B, C, D and E. Rearrange the parts B, C, D and E to make a meaningful sentence :
1. In order to make the law
B. the State Government has issued
C. on child labour more stringent,
D. on child labour
E. a notification extending the age bar
6. from 14 to 18 years.
(1) CBED
(2) CDEB
(3) DEBC
(4) DECB

96. In the following sentence, the first and the last parts are numbered 1 and 6. The remaining parts of the sentence are split into four parts marked B, C, D and E. Rearrange the parts B, C, D and E to make a meaningful sentence:
1. There are certain plants and animals
B. into organic materials
C. known as decomposers
D. that go back into the soil
E. that break down dead plants and animals
6. and enhance its quality.
(1) CDBE
(2) CEBD
(3) DCBE
(4) DCEB

97. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition from the options given below :
There is no exception_____ this rule.
(1) at
(2) to
(3) on
(4) about

98. Fill in the blank with appropriate preposition from the options given below:
Your story is devoid_____ truth.
(1) of
(2) to
(3) on
(4) about

99. Identify the part of the following sentence that contains an error :
(1) The technician reminded /
(2) the office people to have a /
(3) throughly cleaning of the machine /
(4) after each use.

100. Identify the part of the following sentence that contains an error :
(1) It is not difficult to believe that a man /
(2) who has lived in this city for a long time /
(3) he will never be at home /
(4) anywhere else in the world.

101. A person who leaves his/her country’ to settle permanently in another is a /an
(1) Immigrant
(2) Emigrant
(3) Visitor
(4) Tourist

102. One who knows many languages is a
(1) Polymath
(2) Polyandrous
(3) Polyglot
(4) Polygamist

103. A speech made to oneself is called
(1) Dialogue
(2) Discussion
(3) Conferencing
(4) Soliloquy

Directions ((Question No. 104 to 106) : In each of the following sets, three words that are different meanings of the same word are given. Select the word from the answer choices. marked (1), (2), (3) and (4) under each set of words.

104. Extempore, impromptu, Unrehearsed
(1) Conditional
(2) Constant
(3) Exact
(4) Spontaneous

105. Boisterous, Clamorous, Vociferous
(1) Loud
(2) Clumsy
(3) Dangerous
(4) Quiet

106. Cheer, Encourage, Warm
(1) Exhilarate
(2) Fame
(3) Defame
(4) Courageous

107. Which of the following would be appropriate to complete the sentence?
The building needs repairing,____
(1) does it?
(2) is it?
(3) doesn’t it?
(4) isn’t it?

Directions (Question No. 108 to 110) : In each of the following sentences one word is in bold letters. Select the meaning of the word from the alternatives given below them.

108. His allegiance to the party was suspect from the very beginning.
(1) obedience
(2) servility
(3) loyalty
(4) passivity

109. Iraq attempted to annex Kuwait.
(1) destroy
(2) cross the border
(3) add to
(4) burn

110. These tribes generally have a nomadic way of life.
(1) simple
(2) wandering
(3) military
(4) warlike

111. In a class of 60 where boys are twice that of girls. Ms. Ramya ranked 17th from the top. If there are 9 boys ahead of Ms. Ramya, how many girls are after her in the rank?
(1) 26
(2) 12
(3) 10
(4) 33

Directions (Question No. 112 to 117) : 3 (three) of the following 4 (four), are alike in a certain way. Identify the one which does not belong to that group.

112. (1) Green (2) Red (3) Colour (4) Orange

113. (1) Rabbit (2) Crocodile (3) Earthworm (4) Snail

114. (1) Polo (2) Chess (3) Ludo (4) Carrom

115. (1) Sun (2) Universe (3) Moon (4) Star

116. (1) Cheese (2) Milk (3) Curd (4) Ghee

117. (1) Carrot (2) Radish (3) Potato (4) Turnip

118. What should come next in the following letter sequence?
AABABCABCDABCDEABCD
(1) A
(2) E
(3) C
(4) B

119. If following words : 1. Abandon, 2. Actuate, 3. Accumulate, 4. Acquit and 5. Achieve are arranged alphabetically in order, then which word will come in the last?
(1) Actuate
(2) Accumulate
(3) Acquit
(4) Achieve

120. 583 is related to 293 in the same way as 488 is related to :
(1) 291
(2) 378
(3) 487
(4) 581

121. In a certain code language Infinite’ means ‘Size’. What is the meaning of * Indefinite’ in that code language?
(1) Time
(2) Day
(3) Meaning
(4) Shape

122. A is B’s sister. C is B’s mother. D is C’s father. E is D’s mother. Then how is A related to D?
(1) Grandfather
(2) Grandmother
(3) Daughter
(4) Grand-daughter

123. Pointing to a old man, Kailash said “His son is my son’s uncle”. How is the old man related to Kailash?
(1) Brother
(2) Uncle
(3) Father
(4) Grandfather

124. If Z =52 and ACT = 48, then BAT will be equal to :
(1) 39
(2) 41
(3) 44
(4) 46

125. If x stands for addition, ÷ stands for subtraction, + stands for multiplication and – stands for division, then 20 x 8 ÷ 8 – 4 + 2 = ?
(1) 80
(2) 25
(3) 24
(4) 5

126. Which of the following correctly illustrates the relationship among the classes—Cauliflower, Food, Vegetable?

127. What is the next figure in the following sequence?

128. In the sequence given below, find out the odd figure :

(1) [A] (2) [B] (3) [C] (4) [D]

129. Some relation exists in the 2 figures left of : : similar relation exists between 2 figures on right of: : of which one is missing. Find out the missing figure from the given figures (A), (B), (C) and (D):

(1) (A)
(2) (B)
(3) (C)
(4) (D)

130. Six persons A, B, C, D, E and F are standing in a circle. B is between F arid C; A is between E and D; F is to the left of D. Who is between A and F?
(1) B
(2) C
(3) D
(4) E

131. How many crosses will there be in box marked with ‘?’ ?

(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4

Directions (Question No. 132 to 136) : There is a certain relation between two given words on one side of: : and one word is given on another side of: : while another word is to be found from the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the given pair has. Select the best alternative.

132. Ornaments : Gold : : Needle :—–
(1) Stitch
(2) Prick
(3) Steel
(4) Thread

133. Sorrow : Death : : Happiness :—–
(1) Love
(2) Dance
(3) Cry
(4) Birth

134. Physician : Treatment : : Judge :——
(1) Court
(2) Judgement
(3) Lawyer
(4) Punishment

135. Calendar : Dates : : Dictionary : ——-
(1) Vocabulary
(2) Language
(3) Words
(4) Book

136. Circle : Circumference : : Square :——-
(1) Volume
(2) Area
(3) Diagonal
(4) Perimeter

137. Which of the following is the square of an odd number?
(1) 256
(2) 361
(3) 144
(4) 400

138. Which of the following will have 1 at its units place?
(1) 192
(2) 172
(3) 182
(4) 162

139. How many natural number lie between 182 and 192 ?
(1) 30
(2) 37
(3) 35
(4) 36

140. Which of the following is not a perfect square?
(1) 361
(2) 1156
(3) 1128
(4) 1681

141. A perfect square can never have the following digit at ones place
(1) 1
(2) 6
(3) 5
(4) 3

142. The value of √176 + √2401 is:
(1) 14
(2) 15
(3) 16
(4) 17

143. Given that √5625 = 75, then the value of √0.5625 + √56.25 is :
(1) 82.5
(2) 0.75
(3) 8.25
(4) 75.05

144. Perfect squares between 1 and 50 are:
(1) 5
(2) 6
(3) 7
(4) 8

145. The value of √248 + √52 + √144 is:
(1) 14
(2) 12
(3) 16
(4) 13

146. Rahul walks 12 m North from his house and turns West to walk 35 m to reach his friend’s house. While returning, he walks diagonally from his friends house to roach back to his house. What distance did he walk while returning?
(1) 36 m
(2) 37 m
(3) 38 m
(4) 39 m

147. If the perimeter of a square is equal to the radius of a circle whose area is 39424 cm2, what is the area of the square?
(1) 1225 cm2
(2) 784 cm2
(3) 441cm2
(4) 400 cm2

148. If the area of triangle ABC in the figure below is 24.50 cm2, then what will be the area of the circle in which this Δ is situated?

(1) 24.5 cm2
(2) 50.0 cm2
(3) 150.0 cm2
(4) 154.0 cm2

149. In a number series given below, what should come in place of question mark (?)
(1) 84
(2) 99
(3) 123
(4) 75

150. A shopkeeper sells 200 m of cloth for Rs 9,000 at a profit of Rs 5 per meter. What is the cost price of 1 m of cloth?
(1) Rs 45
(2) Rs 40
(3) Rs 35
(4) Rs 30