BHU UET LLB 2017 Question Paper
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Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 450
1. Crown prince of which of the following countries was the Chief Guest at the Republic Day Parade of India in 2017
(1) Iraq
(2) Iran
(3) Abu Dhabi
(4) Yemen
2. Who of the following is Chairman of Banks Board Bureau of India?
(1) Mr. Anil Baijal
(2) Mr. Vinod Rai
(3) Mr. Deveadra Maharshi
(4) Mr. R. K. Singh
3. Who of the following Indian cricketers scored 150 runs in his comeback match against England in Cuttack, India in 2017?
(1) Sanjay Manjrekar
(2) Yuvraj Singh
(3) MahendraS.Dhoni
(4) Irfan Pathan
4. Who gave the slogan ‘Make America Great Again’ ?
(1) Bill Clinton
(2) Donald J. Trump
(3) Rarak Obama
(4) J. F. Kennedy
5. How many satellites were launched by ISRO on 15th February 2017, which became a history?
(1) 102
(2) 103
(3) 104
(4) 105
6. To which of the following Indian States, sport ‘Jallikattu’ belongs?
(1) Andhra Pradesh
(2) Tamil Nadu
(3) Kerala
(4) Karnataka
7. ‘BRIC’ which was the organisation of 4 nations namely Brazil, Russia. India and China, has now become 5 nations organisation. Which is the fifth nation included in it?
(1) South Korea
(2) South Africa
(3) Singapore
(4) Spain
8. Who of the following recited Gayatri Mantra before the Pakistan’s Prime Minister recently ?
(1) Malini
(2) Hema
(3) Naroda Malini
(4) Afrin
9. Trivendra Singh Rawat is the 9th Chief Minister of which of the following States ?
(1) Chhaltisgarh
(2) Jharkhand
(3) Uttarakhand
(4) Manipur
10. Sound can travel through
(1) Gases only
(2) Solids only
(3) Liquids only
(4) Solids, liquids and gases
11. Who of the following was the Chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Constitution of India ?
(1) Dr. Sacchidanand Sinha
(2) Dr. Rajendra Prasad
(3) Dr. B. R. Ambedkar
(4) Dr. P. Sitaramayya
12. How many Ind’m languages have found piaee in the Constitution of India at present ?
(1) 15
(2) 20
(3) 22
(4) 24
13. The term of office of President of India is five years from the date he
(1) Files nomination
(2) Declared elected
(3) Enters upon his office
(4) Court uphelds his election
14. 3rd January is celebrated as:
(1) Kisan Divas
(2) world post day
(3) Fathers Day
(4) Fundamental Duty Day
15. The Panchyati Raj institutions are constituted through
(1) Nomination
(2) Direct election
(3) Indirect election
(4) Nomination and indirect election
16. The federal system of India has been borrowed from the Constitution of
(1) U.S.A.
(2) Australia
(3) Canada
(4) France
17. Who founded the Communist legal theory?
(1) Marx and Engels
(2) Maine
(3) Blackstone
(4) Austin
18. Which of the following Prime Ministers never faced Parliament during his tenure?
(1) Chandra Shekhar
(2) Lal Bahadur Shastri
(3) Charan Singh
(4) I.K. Gujral
19. Which of the following bodies is presided over by a non-member?
(1) Legislative CounciI
(2) Legislative Assembly
(3) Rajya Sabha
(4) Lok Sabha
20. Which one of the following does not find place in the Constitution of India?
(1) Finance Commission
(2) Niti Aayog
(3) Election Commission
(4) Public Service Commission
21. Which Of the following Steps was taken by the British Authorities in India in 1829?
(1) Outlawing the practice of Sati
(2) Enabling Hindu widow remarriage
(3) Prohibiting female infanticide
(4) Land reform
22. Which of the following disease is caused by virus and transmitted by mosquito
(1) Plague
(2) Typhus
(3) Yellow fever
(4) Filarisis
23. Which of the following Harappan sites Is known for rice cultivation?
(1) Kot Diji
(2) Kalibangan
(3) Lothal
(4) Bhanwali
24. Which of the following tools were used by the people of the Mesolithic age V
(1) Iron tools
(2) Copper tools
(3) Small stone tools
(4) Quartzite
25. Who of the following was the ruler when Megasthanes visited India?
(1) Chandragupta Maurya
(2) Ashok
(3) Harsh
(4) Chandragupta II
26. To which of the following ‘Milind panha’ is related?
(1) Sanskrit play
(2) Political treatise
(3) Religious conversation
(4) Chronicle
27. ’Pillar edicts’ came into existence in India during the regime of which of the following rulers
(1) Ajatshatru
(2) Padmanand
(3) Ashok
(4) Pushyamitra
28. Who of the following made a successful attempt to free himself from the control of the ‘Ulemas’?
(1) Jalaluddin Akbar
(2) Alauddin Khalji
(3) Balban
(4) Firoz Shah Tuglak
29. In whose time European paintings got place in the Court?
(1) Aurangzeb
(2) Shahjahan
(3) Jahangir
(4) Akbar
30. Which of the following has the highest energy?
I. Blue light
II. Green light
III. Red light
IV. Yellow light
Choose the correct options:
(1) Only I
(2) Only II
(3) Only III
(4) Only IV
31. Who propounded the legal theory called ‘Utilitarian Individualism’?
(1) Austin
(2) Salmond
(3) Taylor
(4) Bentham
32. Where were the 2016 Summer Olympics held?
(I) Beijing
(2) Rio de Janeiro, Brazil
(3) London
(4) Delhi
33. Who of (he following is the founder of the National Indian Association?
(1) A. O. Hume
(2) Mary Carpenter
(3) Mahatma Gandhi
(4) Pherozshah Mehta
34. Who of the following was the Head of Administration in India at the time of partition of Bengal?
(1) Lord Wavell
(2) Lord Linlithgow
(3) Curzon
(4) William Bentick
35. Which of the following got support from both Muslims and Hindus?
(1) Quit India Movement
(2) Khilafat Movement
(3) Anti-partition Movement
(4) Champaran Satyagraha
36. Common cold is not cured by antibiotics because it is
(1) Caused by Gram negative bacterium
(2) Not an infectious disease
(3) Caused by virus
(4) Caused by Gram positive bacterium
37. Who of the following is the founder of ‘Servants of India Society’?
(I) Lala Lajpat Rai
(2) Mahatma Gandhi
(3) GK. Gokhale
(4) Dayanand Saraswati
38. Where is Indian Institute of Sugarcane Research situated?
(1) Lucknow
(2) Kanpur
(3) Gorakhpur
(4) Allahabad
39. Which of the following is the National Tree of India?
(1) Mango Tree
(2) AshokTree
(3) Banyan Tree
(4) Peepal Tree
40. Who is the present Chief Justice of India?
(1) Jagdish Singh Khehar
(2) Rajendra Mal Lodha
(3) T. S.Thakur
(4) H.L.Daltu
41. How many mega biodiversity countries are in the world?
(1) 8
(2) 10
(3) 12
(4) 14
42. Who is known as father of White Revolution in India?
(1) Dr. M. S. Swaminathan
(2) Dr. William Gade
(3) Dr. V. Kurien
(4) Dr. Manmohan Singh
43. Where the distribution of powers between the Union and States are provided in the Constitution of India?
(1) 2nd Schedule
(2) 4rth Schedule
(3) 7th Schedule
(4) 9th Schedule
44. In which of the following it is provided that India is a Union of States?
(1) The Government of India Act 1935
(2) The Independence Act 1947
(3) Constitution of India
(4) Land Law
45. Who of the following is not a citizen of India ?
(1) Who is born in the territory of India
(2) Either of whose parents was born in the territory of India
(3) Was ordinarily resident in India for not less than five years at the commence of the Constitution
(4) After March 1,1947 migrated to Pakistan
46. Which of the following are considered as constituents of food?
I. Protein, carbohydrates, and fats
II. Vitamins
III. Minerals
IV. Water
(1) I,II,IV
(2) Only I,III
(3) Only II,III
(4) I,II,III,IV
47. The scientific study of law (Jurisprudence) first started among____
(1) Romans
(2) Greeks
(3) Europians
(4) Arabs
48. The Right to property belongs to which of the following category
(1) Fundamental Right
(2) Constitutional Righr
(3) Statutory Right
(4) Customa ry Right
49. Who propounded the theory ‘law and state are the same’ ?
(1) Kelsen
(2) Maine
(3) Blackstone
(4) Robert
50. Who of the following presides over the joint sitting of both Houses of Parliament?
(1) President
(2) Vice President
(3) Speaker Lok Sabha
(4) Prime Minister
51. The ‘Rule of Law’ as propounded by A. V. Dicey as how many components?
(1) 1
(2) 2
(3) 3
(4) 4
52. How many schedules arc there in the Constitution of India?
(1) 8
(2) 9
(3) 11
(4) 12
53. The concept of ‘co-parcenary’ is in vogue in which of the following
(1) Muslims
(2) Hindus
(3) Christians
(4) Parsee
54. For the commission of a crime which of the following is the most important component?
(1) Motive
(2) Intention
(3) Preparation
(4) Brawl
Direction: (Question No, 55 to 65) Given below are Legal Principle followed by a Factual situation. Apply the principle to it and select the most appropriate answer for questions among the four choices given.
55. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: If, as a result of carelessness, one injures another, he is legally liable to the injured victim for resulting damages, unless the victim’s own carelessness also contributes to causing the accident.’
FACTUAL SITUATION : A carelessly left an iron pole protruding across a public road. 200 meters from that spot was a traffic signal indicating the speed limit to be at 30 kmph. B, riding & scooter at 60 kmph, noticed the protrusion from a distance, but still could not avoid it, collided with the pole and was injured In an action by B against A.
(1) B will succeed because A was careless,
(2) B will succeed because A could have avoided the mishap by putting up a warning
(3) B will lose as he was driving very fast.
(4) B will lose for some other reason.
56. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person shall not be guilty of contempt of Court on the ground that he has published (whether by words, spoken or written, or by signs, or by visible representations, or otherwise) any matter which interferes or tends to interfere with or obstructs or tends to obstruct, the course of justice in connection with any civil or criminal proceeding pending at that time of publication, if at that time he had no reasonable grounds for believing that the proceeding was pending.
FACTS ; Mr. ‘X delivered a lecture at local Rotary club in favour of an accused who is prosecuted for assaulting a police officer He saw that the accused is a victim of prevailing corruption in the judiciary and he knows that the accused is going to be punished Court for being honest. Mr. ‘X’ is charged for committing contempt of Court.
(1) Mr. ‘X’ has not committed contempt of Court
(2) Mr. ‘X’ has committed contempt of Court
(3) Mr. ‘X’ has the Court
(4) Mr. ‘X’ shall be acquitted because he is an honest man
57. Principle : In order to be eligible to appear in the semester examination, a student is required to attend, under all circumstances, at least 70% of the total classes held in that semester as per University rules.
FACTS ; Sunil, an economically poor but a very brilliant student of L.L.B. final semester while going to his University by cycle received some leg injuries in road accident. Consequently Sunil could not attend his classes for one week as he was advised rest by his doctor for that period. Due to this absence from the University, Sunil failed to have 70% attendance essential to appear in the examination and therefore, he was debarred from appearing in the examination by the University authorities. Sunil challenges this decision in the court of law.
(1) Sunil will succeed in the court of law as the accident was beyond his control.
(2) Sunil will definitely get favour of the court on humanitarian ground as he comes from a economically poor family and may not afford to take re-admission.
(3) Sunil will not succeed as he could very easily fulfil eligibility criteria tor appearing in die examination by being reasonably regular in the class throughout the semester.
(4) Sunil will succeed as requirement of 70% attendance may be declared arbitrary and therefore, unreasonable by the court of law.
58. Principle: All citizens shall have the fundamental right to carry on any occupation, trade or business. But reasonable restrictions on the exercise of such rights can be imposed by law in the interest of the general public.
FACTS: A large number of persons had been carrying on the business of dyeing and printing in Rajkot area for the last 25 years providing employment to about 30,000 families. From these business places untreated dirty water was being discharged on the roads thereby causing damage to the public health. A notice, therefore was given to close this business till necessary measures to protect public health as provided under the environmental statutes were taken by those businessmen.
(1) Notice cannot be justified as it will cause loss of employment to 30,000 families.
(2) Notice cannot be justified as it amounts to violation of the Fundamental right of the persons who have been carrying on the business for the last 25 years.
(3) The notice cannot be justified on the ground of damage as the persons in that area have been voluntarily residing for long and have become used to that environment.
(4) The notice can be justified as the right to reasonable restriction can be imposed by law in the interest of the public.
59. Principle: whosoever by his act or omission causes environmental pollution shall be held liable for any Joss caused by such pollution it shall be no defence in such cases that all due durgence or reasonable care was taken while carrying out the act or omission in question.
FACTS: Ashish is carrying on a chemical and fertilizer industry near the bank of river Ganga. In order to prevent and control any kind of harm to the environment, suitable waste treatment and disposal plants were installed in the factory’. Due to some sudden mechanical/technical problem, these plants ceased to work properly and therefore, caused environmental pollution, which ultimately caused substantial harm to the environment and to the people living around the factory. Victims of such pollution file a suit for suitable remedy.
(1) Victims cannot succeed as necessary precautions to prevent any harm were taken by Ashish.
(2) Victims cannot succeed as the mechanical/technical problem was sudden and, therefore, beyond the control of Ashish.
(3) Victims can succeed as it is the duty of Ashish to see that no harm is caused to the environment/people due to his activity under any circumstances.
(4) Victims could succeed if treatment/disposal plant were not installed in the factory.
60. Principle : An agreement to do an act impossible in itself cannot be enforced by a court of law.
FACTS: Sagar agrees with his girl friend Sunita to pluck Stars from the sky through this extraordinary will power, and bring them down on earth for her within a week. After the expiry of one week, Sunita filed a suit for damages against Sagar for the breach of contract as Sagar failed to perform his promise.
(1) Sunita can succeed in getting damages as Sagar has deceived her
(2) Sagar cannot be held liable as he honestly believes that his love for Sunita is true and therefore he will succeed in his endeavour.
(3) The court cannot entertain such suits as the act promised under the agree¬ment is impossible in itself.
(4) Sagar can be held liable for making an absurd promise.
61. Principle : Qui facit per alium facit per sc, i.e., he who does things through others does it himself.
FACTS: Nidhi, the owner of a car, asked her Mend Sumit to take tar ear and drive the same to her office. As the car was near her office, it hit a pedestrian Prakash OG account of Sumit’s negligent driving and injured him seriously. Now Prakash files a suit for damages against Nidhi.
(1) Nidhi is not liable as it was the negligence of Sumit
(2) Sumit is solely liable as Nidhi was not driving the car
(3) Nidhi is liable as Sumit was driving under her authority and foe her purpose
(4) Sumit will be exempted from liability under the principle of inevitable accident
62. LEGAL PRINCIPLE; A consumer is a person who buys any goods or services for a consideration and uses the goods for non-commercial purposes-. Exclusive use of the goods for the earning his livelihood, by means of self-employment is not considered as commercial use A consumer can ap-proach a consumer forum if there is a deficiency in goods or services,
FACTS : ‘A’ a taxi-driver received a car music system for free, from an electronics company through a draw of lots and installed the same in his taxi Sometime later, the music system stopped working. ‘A’ approached the electronics companies for a replacement but the company kept delaying. Can ‘A’ use the company in a consumer?
(1) Yes, ‘A’ is not using the music system for any commercial purpose, lie is just playing it in a taxi for earning his livelihood.
(2) Yes, there is a deficiency in goods since the music system became non-functional.
(3) No, W is using his taxi for ferrying passengers which is a commercial purpose. Hence he is not a consumer.
(4) No W is not a consumer since he has not paid any consideration of the music system.
63. LEGAL PRINCIPLE : Violation of a Legal Right, with or without damage. gives rise to a tort.
FACTUAL SITUATION: ‘A’ establishes a coaching class and charge 5000 per year as fees- A’s neighbour ‘B’ establishes another coaching class thereby erecting a competition. This forces A to reduce his fees to 3000 per year.
Question Can ‘A’ claim damages from 1B’ for the loss caused to him?
(1) Yes, he can as B has violated his Legal Right.
(2) No, A has reduced the fees on his own.
(3) Ho, because though there was damage there was no legal injury.
(4) None of the above.
64. PRINCIPLE: The fact that any person was born during the continuance of a valid marriage between his mother and any man or within two hundred and eighty days after its dissolution, the mother remaining unmarried, shall be conclusive proof that he is the legitimate son of that man, unless it can be shown that the parties to the marriage had no access to each other at any time when he could have been begotten.
FACTS: X and Y married on January 15, 2015, Y, the wife of X, never left her parental home and never went to her husband’s home. A boy was born to Y on July 15, 2015. For the Court.
(1) There shall be a conclusive proof that the boy is the legitimate son of X.
(2) There shall be no conclusive proof that the boy is the legitimate son of X.
(3) There shall be a conclusive proof that the.boy is the illegitimate son of X.
(4) There shall be no evidence at all.
65. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Every person is entitled to freedom of conscience and to profess, practice and propagate his religion subject to public order, morality’ and health.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X, a Muslim sacrifices a cow on Bakra-Id believing it to be a part of his religious rites. However, there was a law of general prohibition on slaughter of cows. X, was prosecuted for slaughtering cow.
Answer:
(1) X cannot be prosecuted as killing of cow on Bakra-Id has the Muslim religious sanction.
(2) X can be prosecuted as the state has a right to regulated the freedom of the religion in the interested of the public order.
(3) X can be prosecuted in the interested of the public morality.
(4) X can be prosecuted, as the slaughtering of cow is cruelty to animals.
66. A by shooting at a fowl with intent to kill it, kills B who is behind a bush, while A is not knowing that he was there, Does A’s act amount to murder ?
(1) A is guilty of murder.
(2) A is guilty of culpable homicide not amounting to murder.
(3) A is not guilty of culpable homicide as he did not intend to kill B or cause death by doing an act that he knew was likely to cause death,
(4) A is guilty of killing the fowl under the Wildlife Protection Act and ulso for committing as offence affecting the human body, killing B.
67. A knowingly causes damage to the house of B and thereby has reduced the utility of the same. A has committed
(1) house trespass
(2) Mischief
(3) Criminal trespass
(4) Breach of trust
68. Which of the following confers best interest in property ?
(1) Licence
(2) Possession
(3) Ownership
(4) Trust
69. Decision of which of the following is binding on all Courts in India
(1) High Court
(2) Supreme Court
(3) Service Tribunal
(4) Tax Tribunal
70. The title of a property in favour of an individual is decided by which of the following Courts
(1) Criminal Court
(2) Civil Court
(3) Revenue Court
(4) Judicial Magistrate
71. Where a person voluntarily takes risk for sake of fun he is
(1) not entitled for legal protection
(2) entitled for legal protection
(3) liable to be punished
(4) entitled to be appreciated
72. How the interest of consumer is protected in India ?.
(1) by Criminal Law
(2) by Consumer Protection Law
(3) by Food Adulteration Law
(4) by Sale of Goods Law
73. In which of the following cases Government cannot be held liable ?
(1) For declaring war
(2) For imposing emergency
(3) For demonetisation
(4) For taking action against an employee
74. Which of the following laid the foundation of Federal system in India for administration?
(1) The Constitution of India
(2) The Government of India Act 1935
(3) The Government of India Act 1919
(4) The Charter of 1833
75. Which of the following is the outcome of Minto-Marle Reform ?
(1) The Government of India Act 1935
(2) The Independence Act 1947
(3) The Indian Councils Act 1909
(4) The Indian Councils Act 1892
76. In which of the following countries terrorist group ‘clue clux clan’ flourished ?
(1) Germany
(2) USA
(3) France
(4) Turkey
77. Who of the following is a ‘child’ in India ?
(1) Who has not completed 10 years
(2) Who has not completed 15 years
(3) Who has not completed 18 years
(4) Who has not completed 20 years
78. The National Human Right Commission is constituted under which of the following ?
(1) Constitution of India
(2) Indian Penal Code
(3) Human Right Act
(4) Criminal Procedure Code
79. A person who is not a member of a House of Legislature can become Minister and he can remain so far a period of
(1) 4 months
(2) 6 months
(3) 8 months
(4) 12 months
80. Annual Budget of the country is presented in Parliament under which of the following?
(1) Income Tax Act
(2) Constitution of India
(3) Wealth Tax Act
(4) Gift Tax Act
81. In a mixture of sand and iron of I kg iron is 20%. How much sand should be added so that the proportion of iron becomes 10%?
(1) 1.8 kg
(2) 800 gm
(3) 900 gm
(4) 1000 gm
82. Which of the following is the L.C.M of 24, 36, 43 & 63
(1) 972
(2) 23326
(3) 46656
(4) 11664
83. If 2 men or 5 women can finish a work in 6 hours then 6 men and 10 women will finish it in
(1) 2.4 hours
(2) 1.2 hours
(3) 3.25 hours
(4) 2.75 hours
84. The sum of the sides of a right-angled triangle is 36 cm. While its hypotenuse is 15 cm. So which of the following is the difference of two other sides of the triangle ?
(1) 4 Cm
(2) 3 cm
(3) 6 cm
(4) 7 cm
85. Which one of the following is the sum of numbers from 1 to 500 ?
(1) 1,00,000
(2) 399500
(3) 125250
(4) 499500
86. A man wrote fifty crore thirty five lakhs four thousand and filly six as 50354056. Find out the mistake and point out which of the following is the correct answer
(1) 503540056
(2) 503500456
(3) 503504056
(4) 5030504056
87. Find the greatest number of four digits which when divided by 12, 18 and 35 leaves 5 as remainder
(1) 8865
(2) 8825
(3) 8065
(4) 8850
88. In a class of 22 students, 21 students got an average of 44 marks. If the remaining students get 66 marks, the average marks of the whole class is
(1) 30
(2) 45
(3) 40
(4) 15
89. Which of the following is the average of first fifty natural numbers ?
(1) 28
(2) 20
(3) 25.5
(4) 12.5
90. The ages of A and B are in the ratio of 5 :4. If the sum of their present ages is 36,what is the present age ?
(1) 14
(2) 18
(3) 16
(4) 20
91. A train 120 m long crosses a pole in 10 seconds. What is the speed of the train?
(1) 35.5km/hr
(2) 43.2 km/hr
(3) 50 km/hr
(4) 60.3 km/hr
92. Which of the following is related to Green movement ?
(1) Agricultural production
(2) Environmental protection
(3) Standard of life
(4) Economic development
93. Which one of the following will not be a number of the series 1,8,27,64,125,….?
(1) 1000
(2) 256
(3) 512
(4) 729
94. find the wrong number in the series 7,28,63,124,215
(1) 7
(2) 28
(3) 124
(4) 215
95. Which fraction comes next in the sequence ½, ¾, 5/8, 7/16 …….?
(1) 12/35
(2) 11/34
(3) 9/32
(4) 10/17
96. In the series 357,363,369 …. what will be the 10th term
(1) 405
(2) 411
(3) 413
(4) 417
97. If x means+ , ÷ means -;+means x; and – means ÷,then
28×8÷8-4+2=?
(1) 80
(2) 25
(3) 24
(4) 5
98. Which would be the proper order of the following (in ascending Order) ?
(1) Trillion
(2) Thousand
(3) Billion
(4) Hundred
(5) Million
99. If the following items are arranged from general to particular which one would be the correct order
I. Animal
II. Feline
III. Leopard
IV. Mammal
V. Vertebrate
VI. Cat
(1) f e, b, c, a, d
(2) a, c, e, d, b, f
(3) a, e, d, b, c, f
(4) a, d, c, b, e, f
100. Which of the following would be the meaningful order of the following ?
Doctor, Fever* Medicine, Medical shop
(1) Medical shop, Doctor; Medicine, Fever
(2) Fever, Doctor, Medical shop, Medicine
(3) Doctor, Medical shop, Medicine, Fever
(4) Medicine, Doctor, Medical shop, Fever
101. In an examination a student scores 4 marks for every correct answer and looses 1 mark of every wrong answer. If the attempt all 75 question and secures 125 marks, the number of questions he attempts correctly is
(1) 35
(2) 40
(3) 42
(4) 46
102. Find the missing numeral in the number matrix given below:
(1) 4
(2) 8
(3) 12
(4) 16
Direction : (Questions 103 to 107): Read the .following statement and answer the questions which follow:
Six persons A, B, C, D, E, and F were playing a game . A’s father, mother and uncle were in the group. There were two women. B, the mother of A got more points than her husband. D got more points than E but less than F. Niece of E got lowest points. Father of A got more points than F but could not win the game.
103. Who stood second in the game ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
104. B was one of the ladies. Who was the other lady ?
(1) C
(2) D
(3) A
(4) E
105. Whose wife is B ?
(1) D
(2) C
(3) E
(4) F
106. Who won the game ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) F
(4) D
107. Who secured lowest points?
(1) B
(2) E
(3) A
(4) C
Direction :(Questions No. 108 to 112): Read the following statement and answer the questions which follow:
There are four friends A, B, G, D. One of them studies Biology and plays football and basketball. A and B study chemistry A plays table tennis. Both the Chemistry students play volleyball. D is the student of Physics. One chemistry student also plays cricket. The Physics student plays volleyball play two games, and study one subject each.
108. How many subjects are studied and games played by the four friends ?
(1) 3,6
(2) 1,2
(3) 2,3
(4) 4,5
109. Who is a cricketer ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
110. Who is the Biology student ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
111. Who does not play volleyball?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
112. Who studies Chemistry and plays table tennis ?
(1) A
(2) B
(3) C
(4) D
113. Which is opposite of South East?
(1) South West
(2) North
(3) North West
(4) North East
114. Find the missing number:
13,32,24,43,35 (….) 46,65,57,76
(1) 45
(2) 52
(3) 54
(4) 55
115. Choose the group of letters which is different from others
(1) BD
(2) IK
(3) PN
(4) SU
116. You can keep your men satisfied if you are able to provide to them
(1) Discipline
(2) Comforts.
(3) Security of Job
(4) Warmth
117. If green means red, red means yellow, yellow means blue, blue means orange and orange means green, what is the colour of clear sky?
(1) Blue
(2) Red
(3) Yellow
(4) Green
118. A family consists Of grandmother, father, mother, four sons, and their wives and one son and two daughters to each of the sons. How many females are there in all?
(1) 24
(2) 18
(3) 16
(4) 14
119. Choose the pair in which the words are differently related
(1) Car: Road
(2) Ship: Sea
(3) Rocket: Space
(4) Aeroplane: Pilot
120. Which one of the following is out of context?
(1) Commander
(2) Commodore
(3) Brigadier
(4) Admiral
121. Which of the following represents the nature of a valid Hindu marriage?
(1) Contract
(2) Understanding
(3) Sacrament
(4) Partly understanding
122. By which Constitutional Amendment Act was the number of Lok Sabha seats increased from 525 to 545?
(1) The Twentieth Amendment Act, 1966
(2) The forty-second Amendment Act, 1976
(3) The Forty-fourth Amendment Act, 1978
(4) Thirty-first Constitution Amendment Act 1973
123. A lady wanted to buy a railway ticket but finding crowd near the ticket window at the station, asked Raju, who was near the window, to get a ticket for her and handed him money for the same. Raju took the money and instead of getting the ticket, ran away with it. What offence has been committed by Raju ?
(1) No offence.
(2) Criminal breach of trust.
(3) Criminal misappropriation,
(4) Theft.
124. Assertion (A): The essence of joint liability under Section 149 of the IPC is that the Criminal Act must have been done with a view to fulfil the common object of an unlawful assembly.
Reason (R): Any sudden and provocative act done by a member of an unlawful assembly would render the other members of that assembly liable.
(1) Roth A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(2) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(3) A is true but R is false.
(4) A is false but R is true.
125. The Veracity’ of his statement could not be proved. Here ‘veracity’ means
(1) Sincerity
(2) Seriousness
(3) Truthfulness
(4) Justifiability
126. Find the appropriate preposition to fill the gap out of the options given below: Every one of us will have to alone _____ his or her misdeeds.
(1) of
(2) about
(3) for
(4) by
127. Which of fee following is appropriate words to fill the gap ?
The chair would break if both of you
(1) will sit in it
(2) sit in it
(3) sat in it
(4) would sit in it
128. Which of the following is most suited to complete the sentence ?
Penury is the worst slavery and____ to death.
(1) would soon lead
(2) may sooner lead
(3) will soon lead
(4) will sooner lead
129. Find the one word substitute:
One who does a thing for pleasure and not as profession.
(1) philanderer
(2) amateur
(3) empirical
(4) imposter
130. A person who does not believe in the existence of God is
(1) thiest
(2) athiest
(3) altruist
(4) agnostic
131. Which of the following is antonym of ‘Barbarian’ ?
(1) unrefined
(2) civilized
(3) foreigner
(4) uncultured
132. Which of the following is antonym of ‘sacrosanct’ ?
(1) surreptitious
(2) sanctimonious
(3) unholy
(4) sacramental
133. Which of the following is synonym of ‘Aborigines’ ?
(I) absolutions
(2) first design
(3) primitive inhabitants
(4) Concepts
134. Find the synonym of ‘claustrophobia’ from the following
(1) Fear of Ghosts
(2) Fear of closed spaces
(3) Lack of confidence
(4) Urge to steal
135. In this question six sentences are given the first and sixth are numbered as 1 and 6. But sentences 2 to 5 are n umbered as A, B, C and D. Select the correct sequence of these four sentences from the four options given below
1. Newton had a little dog named ’Diamond’.
A. One day after some work he went out of his room.
B. There was a heap of written papers containing the labour of his twenty years work lay on the table.
C. Diamond was asleep in the room near the fire.
D. While Newton was away Diamond got up and jumped on the table and knocked down the lighted candler.
6. The papers caught fire and were burnt to ashes.
(1) ABCD
(2) ACBD
(3) CBDA
(4) ABDC
136. Choose from the given words below which has the same meaning and can be used in the same context as the Bold part in both the sentences:
A. It is certainly a thing which tempts people.
B. I take exception to what he has just said.
(1) prototype
(2) rejection
(3) object
(4) Issue
137. Choose from the given words below which has the same meaning and can be used in the same context as the Bold part in both die sentences:
A. Marriage provides a happy bond between two souls.
B. The joining of the three towns into one paved the way for the rapid development of the new entity.
(1) Linkage
(2) Union
(3) Connection
(4) Adjustment
Directions: (Question No. 138 to 144): Given below in bold are a few foreign language phrases that are commonly used choose correct meaning for each of the phrases.
138. Corpus delicti
(1) Fake evidence of an offence
(2) Hearsay evidence of an offence
(3) Lack of evidence of an offence
(4) An evidence which constitute an offence
139. What is the closest meaning of the expression, ‘ex aquo et bono’?
(1) In equity and good conscience
(2) For the public good
(3) The thing speaks for itself
(4) In good faith
140. Ejusdem generis means
(1) Retired after long time
(2) Of the same kind or nature
(3) Formally holding the office
(4) Out of court
141. Quid pro quo means
(1) Evidence
(2) Favourable opinion
(3) Revenge
(4) something in return
142. Mutatis Mutandis
(1) With unnecessary changes
(2) With necessary changes
(3) Without any change
(4) With change
143. Ex gratia means
(1) Very grateful
(2) Payment made out generosity
(3) Extraordinary
(4) Before retirement
144. Pro bono publico means
(1) for private good
(2) for public good
(3) for Country’s good
(4) for elder person’s good
Directions: (Question No. 145 to 146): Given below are the jumbled sentences of a paragraph. The first and the last sentence of the jumbled paragraph are given in correct order. Arrange the middle sentence in the correct sequence.
145. (i) on one hand we are proud of being Indians
(ii) on the other hand we behave as if we were still at teh dawn of our civilization
(iii) murders of our own brothers and sisters is not the way to please Ram or Rahim
(iv) the citizens of the lend Where Buddha and Gandhi taught
(v) the principles of love and non violence
(vi) nor does it fetch us any prosperity
(1) ii, iii, iv, v
(2) iii, iv, v, ii
(3) iv, v, iii ,ii
(4) iv, v, ii, iii
146. (i) India’s message has always been one of love and peace
(ii) our Buddha was the light of Asia
(iii) it has been a source of light and wisdom to the rest of the world
(iv) Ashoka, moved by the borrors of Kalinga war, adopted fee message of non-violence
(v) the greatest apostle of non-violence recent years was Mahatma Gandhi
(vi) he shook the foundation of the British rule in India through non-violence
(1) ii, v, iii, iv
(2) iv, ii, iii, v
(3) v, iv, iii, ii
(4) iii, ii, iv, v
147. Lyric is to ode as
(1) Sky is to earth
(2) Bomb is to science
(3) Head is to legs
(4) Newspaper is to journalist
148. Select the lettered pair of words which arc related in the same way as the pair given in the beginning
Intimidate : Fear
(1) maintain : satisfaction
(2) astonish : wonder
(3) soothe : concern
(4) lion . : tame
149. A decision to set aside prosecution or punishment of certain offenders without the element of forgiveness is termed as
(1) Alliance
(2) Agreement
(3) Amnesty
(4) Annexation
150. In India questions relating to criminal activity is determined by
(1) Constitution of India
(2) Indian Penal Code
(3) Personal law
(4) Custom
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