BHU UET LLB 2010 Question Paper

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BHU UET LLB 2010 Question Paper


Time: 2 Hours Total Marks: 450

1. The entry port for trade between the Indus trading centres and Mesopotamia was
(1) Elam
(2) Oman
(3) Bahrain
(4) Aghanistan

2. The Veda which is partly a prose work is
(1) Atharvaveda
(2) Samaveda
(3) Yajurveda
(4) Rigveda

3. The Four-Fold Division of society is expressly mentioned in
(1) Satapatha Brahmana
(2) Purusa-Sukta of Rigveda
(3) Yajurveda
(4) Hiranyagarbha Sukta

4. Which of the following is not among the ‘Tri Ratnas’ or gems of Jainism?
(1) Full Knowledge
(2) Action
(3) Liberation
(4) Belief in God

5. In the Second Battle of Panipat, Hemu. the Hindu General who led the Afghan forces against the Mughals, was the General of
(1) Sher Shah
(2) Muhammad Adil Shah
(3) Islam Shah
(4) Sikander Shah

6. What was the original name of Tansen?
(1) Makaranda Pande
(2) Baz Bahadur
(3) Lal Kalwant
(4) Ramtanu Pande

7. Who was the founder of ‘Drain Theory’ which among others, exposed the constant drain of wealth from India to England?
(1) S. N. Banerjee
(2) Dadabhai Naoroji
(3) Gopal Krishna Gokhale
(4) M. K. Gandhi

8. Which of the following Commissions/Committees on Education is considered as the Magna Carta of English Education in India?
(1) Woods’ Dispatch
(2) Raleigh Commission
(3) Saddler Commission
(4) Hunter Commission

9. Railways were introduced in India when the Governor-General of India was
(1) Curzon
(2) Dalhousie
(3) Hardinge
(4) Ripon

10. The Arya Samajists struck deep roots among the
(1) Landless labourers
(2) Harijans
(3) Bureaucracy
(4) Trading Community

11. The Drafting Committee of the Constitution did not have as its member
(1) K. M. Munshi
(2) N. Gopalaswami Ayyangar
(3) Alladi Krishnaswami
(4) Sardar Patel

12. Regarding India’s Constitution we may say it is
(1) more rigid than flexible
(2) very rigid
(3) more flexible than rigid
(4) very flexible

13. We the people of India having solemnly resolved to constitute India into a Sovereign, Socialist, Secular, Democratic Republic and to secure to all citizens,” From this statement we can conclude
(1) Sovereignty lies with the executive of the country
(2) Sovereignty lies with the President
(3) Sovereignty lies with the people of India
(4) Sovereignty lies with the elected representatives of the people of India

14. The territorial extents of Indian State and Union Territories are prescribed in the
(1) First Schedule
(2) Fourth Schedule
(3) Second Schedule
(4) Seventh Schedule

15. Who is empowered to suspend the operation of Fundamental Rights?
(1) Parliament
(2) President
(3) Supreme Court
(4) Prime Minister

16. Which Fundamental Right cannot be suspended even during an emergency under Article 352 of the Constitution?
(1) Right to Equality
(2) Right to Freedom of Speech and Expression
(3) Right of Life
(4) Right to Constitutional Remedies

17. The Fundamental Rights have the sanction of
(1) the Supreme Court
(2) the Constitution
(3) majority opinion
(4) the Government

18. Habeas corpus means
(1) an order from a court to free a person who had been illegally detained by the police or any other person
(2) an order from a superior court calling up the record of a proceeding in an inferior court for review
(3) an order from the superior court to an official to show his right to the office
(4) an order from a higher court to stop proceedings in a certain case

19. The writ of prohibition is issued by the Supreme Court or a High Court against
(1) judicial or quasi-judicial authorities
(2) administrative and judicial authorities
(3) administrative authorities only
(4) administrative authorities and Government

20. Which of the following is not included in the list of Fundamental Duties (Article 51-A)in the Constitution?
(1) To safeguard public property and to abjure violence
(2) Secularism
(3) To uphold and protect the sovereignty, unity and integrity of India
(4) To abide by the Constitution and respect its ideals

21. Which of the following describes the nature of the Directive Principles?
(1) They are positive instructions to do certain things
(2) They are negative injunctions regarding certain things
(3) They are both negative and positive
(4) They are justiciable

22. The Constitution is silent in the ‘Directive Principles’ about
(1) living wages for workers
(2) compulsory primary education
(3) legal aid to the poor
(4) adult education

23. A uniform Civil Code has been recommended in the Directive Principles to ensure
(1) Economic Equality
(2) (2) National Security
(3) National Integration
(4) Support for weaker sections of society

24. The Constitutional Head of the Executive of the Union is
(1) the President
(2) the Prime Minister and Council of Ministers together
(3) the Prime Minister
(4) the Chief Justice of India

25. The President can be removed from his office before the expiry of his normal term only on the recommendation of
(1) the Supreme Court
(2) the Chief Justice of India
(3) Council of Ministers
(4) the two Houses of Parliament

26. How is the Vice-President of India elected?
(1) By an electoral college consisting of the elected members of Lok Sabha
(2) By an electoral college consisting of the elected members of both Houses of Parliament and the State Assemblies
(3) By an electoral college consisting of the members of both Houses of Parliament
(4) By the people directly

27. The Vice-President of India is
(1) a member of either House of Parliament
(2) a member of Rajya Sabha
(3) a separate wing of the Parliament
(4) not a member of Parliament

28. The President can dismiss a member of the Council of Ministers
(1) on his own
(2) on the recommendation of the Prime Minister
(3) only under emergency conditions
(4) with the consent of the Speaker

29. Our Parliamentary System is based on
(1) universal adult franchise
(2) proportional representation
(3) male franchise
(4) male, female and child franchise

30. The sole power to control the expenditure of the Government rests with
(1) the Parliament
(2) the Prime Minister
(3) the Lok Sabha
(4) the Finance Minister

31. Questions of disqualification of a member of Parliament have to be decided by
(1) the President, according to the opinion of the Election Commission
(2) the Speaker or the Chairman of the respective House in consultation with the Election Commission
(3) Supreme Court
(4) the Election Commission, in consultation with the Speaker of Lok Sabha

32. The Lok Sabha and the Rajya Sabha sit jointly when
(1) they feel it necessary
(2) there is a disagreement between the two Houses
(3) the President summons both the Houses
(4) two years have lapsed after the last meeting

33. The members of Rajya Sabha are elected for
(1) Life
(2) three years
(3) six years
(4) two years

34. The normal term of a Governor’s office is
(1) 3 years
(2) 5 years
(3) 6 years
(4) dependent on the tenure of the State Legislature

35. Who holds the power of Judicial Review in India?
(1) The President
(2) The Prime Minister
(3) The High Courts and Supreme Court
(4) The Parliament

36. The authority to restrict or extend the jurisdiction of the State High Courts rests with
(1) the President of India
(2) the Governor
(3) the Supreme Court
(4) the State Legislature

37. The Constitution of India
(1) divided powers between Centre and States in three lists
(2) divided powers between Centre and States in two lists
(3) listed the powers of Centre but left the undefined powers to the State
(4) specified the powers of the States and left the residuary powers with the Centre

38. The proposals for amendment of the Constitution can be initiated by
(1) the people alone
(2) the State Legislature
(3) State Legislatures as well as the Parliament
(4) Parliament alone

39. The Panchayati Raj Institutions in India get their funds mainly from
(1) voluntary contributions
(2) property tax
(3) local taxes
(4) Government grants

40. The members of UPSE hold office
(1) for a term of six years or till they attain the age of 65 years
(2) for a term of five years irrespective of the upper age limit
(3) for a term of six years or till they attain the age of 62 years
(4) during the pleasure of the President

Directions: The following questions are based on letter sequences with some letters missing. Choose the correct alternative to fill the gap in each case.

41. a _ b c _ a b _ c c a a _ bee _ a b
(1) abc c a
(2) aacbc
(3) bacab
(4) b ebb a

42. a bbaa baa baab aab
(1) a b a b
(2) baba
(3) abbb
(4) b b a a

43. ab_a_dcacb_acd_
(1) cd b b d
(2) dabdb
(3) cdbbd
(4) c d b d b

Directions: In the following questions there are four groups of letters in which three are alike in some way. Choose the group which is different.

44.
(1) DBZ
(2) QOM
(3) USQ
(4) JLN

45.
(1) CHEAT
(2) ALERTED
(3) CREATE
(4) REPEAT

46.
(1) KLLM
(2) TUUW
(3) XYYZ
(4) OPPQ

47.
(1) ACEGI
(2) SUWYA
(3) BDFHJ
(4) WNPR

48.
(1) RESURRECT
(2) SUCCEED
(3) STUTTER
(4) CUNNING

Directions: Given questions are two sets of words having the same relationship. Find out the right choice for the question mark.

49. Smile : Laugh : : ? : Hot
(1) Heat
(2) Sweet
(3) Fire
(4) Warm

50. Medicine : Cure : : Book : ?
(1) Educated
(2) Read
(3) Library
(4) Reader

51. ? : Hell : Bird : Nest
(1) Heaven
(2) God
(3) Sin
(4) Satan

52. Teeth : Tongue : : ? : Bottle
(1) Drink
(2) Crate
(3) Glass
(4) Plastic

53. ?: Tobacco : : Cup : Tea
(1) Cheroot
(2) Toxin
(3) Addiction
(4) Leaves

Directions: For each question below determine the relationship between the pair of capitalized words and then select the lettered pair of words which have a similar relationship to the first pair.

54. MORPHINE: SEDATES : :
(1) Drug: Addicts
(2) Liquor: Intoxicates
(3) Medicine: Soothes
(4) Oil: Smears

55. NUMERATOR: DENOMINATOR
(1) Fraction: Decimal
(2) Divisor: Quotient
(3) Top: Bottom
(4) Dividend: Divisor

56. CONDUCT: WATER: :
(1) Pump: oil
(2) Behaviour: Liquid
(3) Artery: blood
(4) Wire: sound

57. BREAD:OVEN : :
(1) Cermaics: kiln
(2) Silo: corn
(3) pottery wheel
(4) iron: finance

58. WATER: CONDUIT : :
(1) Electricity: magnet
(2) Elevator: shaft
(3) Shell: rifle
(4) Noise: cannon

Directions: Read the following and answer the questions given below.

Two union representatives and one management representative are seated together at an octagonal table with only one seat to aside of the table. No pair of either union or management representatives may be seated together. Two additional management representatives are seated.

59. Seated between the two union representatives are
(1) at most two management people
(2) only two management people
(3) no more than one management person
(4) three management people

60. Seated opposite the first management representative
(1) must be a union person
(2) may be a union person
(3) may be a management person
(4) must be a management person

61. If two more union representatives are seated without causing any changes of seats, then there is(are)
(1) no empty seat next to a union person
(2) no empty seat next to a management person
(3) two empty seats between union people
(4) at most one empty seat between union representatives

Directions: (Question No. 62-65) Read the following and answer the questions given below.

Five persons A, B, C, D and E were travelling in a car. There were two ladies in the group. Of the three who knew car driving, one was a lady. There was one couple, of which only the wife could drive the car. A is brother of D. B, wife of D, drove at the beginning. E drove at the end.

62. Which of the following is a pair of brothers?
(1) AB
(2) AD
(3) DE
(4) AE

63. Who was the other lady in. the group?
(1) E
(2) D
(3) C
(4) Data inadequate

64. In the case of which of the following pairs, can no relationship be established with anyone else in the group?
(1) AE
(2) BE
(3) CE
(4) DE

65. How was E related to A ?
(1) Brother
(2) Father
(3) Friend
(4) Data inadequate

66. India’s paper currency is controlled by the
(1) Ministry of Finance
(2) Government of India
(3) State Bank of India
(4) Reserve Bank of India

67. World Population Day is
(1) July, 4
(2) July, 11
(3) August, 4
(4) August, 11

68. Medha Patekar is a (an)
(1) Philosopher
(2) Scientist
(3) Environmentalist
(4) Journalist

69. Which of the following is concerned with the promotion of dance, drama and music?
(1) Lalit Kala Akademi
(2) Sahitya Akademi
(3) National School of Drama
(4) Sangeet Natak Akademi

70. Human Rights Day is observed on
(1) 4th June
(2) 10th December
(3) 24th October
(4) 6th August

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71. Ghauri is the name of
(1) a Hindu Goddess
(2) a cow appearing in Hindu Mythology
(3) Missile developed by Paldstao
(4) well-known pilgrimage centre in North India

72. What does UNESCO deal witb?
(1) International Post aod Telegraph
(2) International Refugees
(3) World Intellectual Property
(4) International Educational, Scientific and Cultural Matter%

73. Where is the International Court of Justice situated?
(1) Davos
(2) Hague
(3) New York
(4) Paris

74. The Headquarters of Red Cross is at
(1) Marakesh
(2) Geneva
(3) Davos
(4) Kolkata

75. Uniform Civil Code is envisaged in which Article of the Constitution of India?
(1) 42
(2) 43
(3) 44
(4) 45

76. Panchayati Raj’ is based on the ideology of
(1) democratic decentralization
(2) community cooperation and development
(3) people’s participation in Government
(4) cultivating political awareness in the rural masses

77. Headquarters of lLO is at
(1) Geneva
(2) London
(3) Karachi
(4) Moscow

78. Who said, “The King is the image of God himself”?
(1) Bosanquet
(2) Hobbes
(3) Kant
(4) Green

79. ‘East is East’ is a British mm starring
(1) Om Purl
(2) Amrlsh Purl
(3) Aamir Khan
(4) Salman Khan

80. First Indian Port to be corporatised by Union Cabinet
(1) Encore Greenfield Port
(2) Hsldia Port
(3) Jawabarlsl Nehru Port
(4) Kandla Port

81. For what does ‘council de tat’ stands for?
(1) A Body of Rome
(2) Any Administrative” Tribunal
(3) A French Body to review administrative decisions
(4) A Body in the Vatican City

82. What is invitation to tender?
(1) Is is nothing
(2) It is not a promise but only an invitation to offer
(3) Offer
(4) Proposal

83. The Central Vigilance Commission was established in
(1) 1949
(2) 1964
(3) 1978
(4) 1948

84. A contract is
(1) agreement between minimum four parties
(2) an agreement enforceable by law
(3) simple agreement
(4) a written document only

85. If the contract is to be binding
(1) it must be drafted by a lawyer
(2) the meaning must be understood in the same sense to all the contracting parties
(3) meaning should be clear
(4) it must be registered

86. Dissolution of marriage is called
(1) Conjugal Rights
(2) Divorce
(3) Nullity of Marriage
(4) Judicial Separation

87. A consideration can be
(1) in future only
(2) in past, present or future
(3) in present only
(4) only of past

88. The word locus standi refers to
(1) local standing for election
(2) standing for local election
(3) the right of a party to appear and be heard by a court
(4) to locate and find the accused

89. The two underlying concepts of Administrative Law are
(1) Separation of Power only
(2) Rule of Law and Separation of Power
(3) It is only one Rule of Law
(4) Delegated Legislation

90. A contractual right
(1) is not enforceable right
(2) is different from a right in tort
(3) is the same as in tort
(4) is not a civil right

91. Who is responsible for introduction of Public Interest Litigation in India?
(1) Justice V. R. Krishna Iyer
(2) Justice A. M. Ahmadi
(3) Justice P. N. Bhagwati
(4) Justice A. N. Ray

92. The Fundamental Source of Law in India is
(1) Custom
(2) Usage
(3) Trade
(4) Constitution of India

93. Rights and Duties are
(1) Correlated
(2) Coordinated
(3) Separated
(4) Exclusive

94. Large majority of Indian Muslims are covered by which School of Law?
(1) Hanafi
(2) Ithna
(3) Ashri
(4) Ismaili

95. When a Muslim husband and wife mutually consent to a divorce, it is mown as
(1) Talaq
(2) Khula
(3) Mubarat
(4) Talaq-a-absan

96. In Law, a man is presumed to be dead if he is not heard of as alive for
(1) 5 years
(2) 7 years
(3) 9 years
(4) 10 years

97. Word’ Battery’ means
(1) cells as used in transistor. etc.,
(2) intention to cause death
(3) actual or intended striking of another person
(4) knowledge to cause death

98. ‘Damages’ are awarded except in one case
(1) tort
(2) breach of contract
(3) libel suit
(4) criminal conduct

99. Mens rea is
(1) guilty mind
(2) intention
(3) evil
(4) unlawful act

100. A marriage between an unmarried woman and a married man where his wife is alive, is
(1) Null
(2) Void
(3) voidable
(4) valid

101. A child born after father’s death is
(1) postliminits
(2) bastard
(3) posthumous
(4) postea

102. Husband and wife have a right to each other’s company. This right is called
(1) Legal Right
(2) Matrimonial Right
(3) Consortium Right
(4) Conjugal Right

103. Pacta sun! seroanda means an obligation on the part of the States
(1) to honour the Treaty
(2) not to honour the Treaty
(3) to pass the obligation to some other country
(4) Both (2) and (3)

104. There is a shift in criminal jurisprudence
(1) from punitive to reformative
(2) from reformative to punitive
(3) no change
(4) from punitive to stringent

105. Ignorance of Law
(1) is excused
(2) is not excused
(3) is a good defence
(4) is knowledge of the fact

106. Tort is a civil wrong as opposed to
(1) Commercial Law
(2) Company Law
(3) Sexual Law
(4) Criminal Wrong

107. Defamation means
(1) attack on the person’s self-respect
(2) attack on the person’s reputation
(3) attack on the person’s freedom
(4) attack on the person’s equality

108. When an offer is accepted, it becomes an
(1) Agreement
(2) valid contract
(3) proposal
(4) consideration

109. Natural Justice is Justice that is
(1) very complex
(2) elementary and simple
(3) sophisticated
(4) technical

110. Tribunals are the creation of
(1) Legislature
(2) Judiciary
(3) Public opinion
(4) Ministry of Home Affairs

111. Civil Procedure Code relates to
(1) Legislative Procedure
(2) Civil Court Procedure
(3) Revenue matters
(4) only Supreme Court matters

112. ‘Decree’ means
(1) formal expression of the decision
(2) informal expression of the decision
(3) further adornment of the case
(4) None of these

113. No one shall be condemned unheard’ is the principle of
(1) Natural Justice
(2) Equity
(3) Criminal Law
(4) Civil Law

114. Piracy is a crime committed
(1) on the high seas
(2) on the air travel
(3) on the borders of the country
(4) defence crimes

115. When there is no consent, there is
(1) no agreement
(2) no contract
(3) no proposal
(4) no acceptance

116. Breach of Contract means
(1) violation of contract
(2) non-performance of contract
(3) refusal to perform the contract
(4) only offer and not acceptance which is present

117. Damages are awarded by Court in
(1) Criminal Cases
(2) Civil Contracts
(3) Breach of Contracts
(4) Violation of Constitution

118. Any decision given by a Court without the presence of the party is called
(1) decree
(2) Ex parte decision
(3) Injunction
(4) Judgment

119. Summons issued by a Civil Court
(1) shall require obedience
(2) obedience is not compulsory
(3) obedience depends upon the will of the party
(4) obedience depends upon the advice given by the lawyer

120. A Law which comes into effect from a past date is called
(1) Retrospective Law
(2) Pre-dated Law
(3) Prospective Law
(4) Anti-dated Law

121. The maxim actus non facit rea nisi mens sit rea means
(1) crime has to be coupled with guilty mind
(2) there can be no crime without a guilty mind
(3) crime is the result of guilty mind
(4) criminal mind leads to crime

122. The Right of Private Defence is contained in
(1) Section 94 of IPC
(2) Section 95 of IPC
(3) Section 96 of IPC
(4) Section 98 of IPC

123. Abetment of an offence
(1) is always an offence
(2) is never an offence
(3) may be an offence depending on the circumstances but not always
(4) may not be an offence depending on the circumstances

124. For an unlawful assembly under Section 141 of IPC, the minimum number of persons required is
(1) Five
(2) Seven
(3) ten
(4) twenty

125. During the fight between A and B, the two ladies, A pulls B by hair and removes some of her hair. A is guilty of an offence of causing
(1) simple hurt
(2) grievous hurt
(3) simple hurt by rash and negligent act
(4) grievous hurt by rash and negligent act

126. The involvement of five or more persons is essential for
(1) Theft
(2) Extortion
(3) robbery
(4) dacoity

127. The essential ingredients of a crime are
(1) motive, mens rea, and actus reus
(2) motive, intention and knowledge
(3) actus reus and mens rea
(4) knowledge, intention and action

128. When the injury is intentional and sufficient to cause death in the ordinary course of nature and death follows, the offence is
(1) attempt to murder
(2) culpable homicide not amounting to murder
(3) murder
(4) attempt to suicide

129. Removal of ornaments from body of one after causing his death is
(1) Robbery
(2) Theft
(3) Cheating
(4) an offence under Section 404

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130. Six persons assembled on the platform of Mumbai Railway Station and started fighting with each other. The passengers present at the Railway Station got annoyed and felt disturbed. The public reported the matter to the police. These six persons are guilty of
(1) unlawful assembly
(2) rioting
(3) affray
(4) assault

Directions : (Question No. 131-140) Read the passage carefully and then answer the questions based on it. Do not go beyond the passage in answering questions

By the mid-eighteenth century many houses had lavish carpeting, marble floors, chandeliers and fireplaces in British India. Such splendour and extravagance was unknown in this country. One lawyer is supposed to have owned seventy-one pairs of breeches and eight-one waistcoats-were signs of the kind of money a certain class of Englishmen was making in India. This was the Nabob. The wealthy Nabob was of course the arrogant Englishman, whose appearance can be dated back to the latter half of the eighteenth century. The Nabob-as distinct from the Indian ‘nawab’-was one who wanted to lead in India the good life denied to him in England. He was uncouth, wealthy, dishonest and bullying. Macaulay described a Nabob as a ‘gentleman with a tawny complexion, a bad liver and a worse heart’. Dr. Samuel Johnson commented about the most famous Nabob of all, Robert Clive: ‘a man who acquired his fortunes by such crimes that his consciousness of them compelled him to cut his own throat’. Clive committed suicide after his return to England. The Nabobs built lavish houses after Clive, drank heavily, gambled and indulged in massive feats and merrymaking. They had made their fortune in India and were very often fascinated by Indian customs. Often they went back to England, acquired peerages and some even went on to become members of Parliament. The Nabobs were the first to identify the ‘nautch-girl’ or Indian dancing girls as their main source of relaxation, and poems of the time often describe the sinuous movements and seductive powers of these girls. Many Nabobs took Indian wives, often to the chagrin of the English girls who came out to India to fmd husbands among their countrymen. Nobobs who dressed the Indian way earned the displeasure of their countrymen and women for going native. They learned the native languages and acquired the fine art of bullying in India. Flogging the servant for real or imagined insults or inefficiency was a common practice for the Nabobs.

131. What sort of houses were constructed by the British in India?
(1) They built huge houses after the Indian fashion
(2) They rebuilt Indian houses to live in them
(3) They built lavish houses unknown earlier in this country
(4) They just put chandeliers and fireplaces in Indian houses

132. How many breeches and waistcoats did the extravagant lawyer own?
(1) Eighty-one pairs of breeches and eighty-one waistcoats
(2) Seventy-one pairs of breeches and eighty-one waistcoats
(3) Eighty-one pairs of coats and seventy-one waistcoats
(4) Eighty-one pairs of waistcoats and eighty-one breeches

133. What was the distinction between the Nabobs and Nawabs?
(1) Nabobs were those who wanted to become like greedy Indians in taste and manners
(2) Nabobs were those who wanted to lead the good life denied to them in England
(3) Nabobs were those who wanted to become cruel like the Nawabs
(4) Nabobs were those who wanted to rule India like Englishmen

134. Which trait did the Nabobs, broadly speaking, lack?
(1) Uncouthness
(2) Kindness
(3) Dishonesty
(4) Wealthy

135. Why did Robert Clive commit suicide according to Dr. Johnson?
(1) Because he had started loving Indians very much
(2) Because he was poor and life had become unbearable
(3) Because the pangs of conscience about his crimes were too much for him
(4) Because he wanted to marry some Indian nautch girls in England

136. What did the Nabobs who wanted to imitate Clive not do?
(1) Build lavish houses
(2) Indulged in massive feasts
(3) Drank heavily
(4) Start charities

137. What did the Nabobs not do on their return to England?
(1) Acquire peerages
(2) Lead comfortable lives
(3) Become Members of Parliament
(4) Marry nautch girls

138. What was the main source of relaxation for the Nabobs?
(1) Gambling
(2) Hunting
(3) Indian dancing girls
(4) Heavy drinking

139. Why were the English girls displeased when the Nabobs took Indian wives?
(1) Because they thought Indian women were ugly
(2) Because they felt that they were richer than the Indian women
(3) Because they would not be able to marry their countrymen
(4) Because they felt that Indian girls had bad character

140. How did the Nabobs behave with their servants?
(1) They gave them huge presents
(2) They gave them big houses to live in
(3) They flogged them on the slightest excuse
(4) They married their women to them happily

Directions : (Question No. 141-150) Choose the correct answer.

141. Spot the phrasal verb in the given sentence :
I hate it when my mother noses around my room.
(1) hate it
(2) noses around
(3) my room
(4) my mother

142. Spot the phrasal verb in the given sentence :
The mother dressed her son down for skipping school.
(1) mother dressed
(2) her son
(3) dressed down
(4) dressed her son down

143. Spot the phrasal verb in the given sentence :
She always dresses up at work.
(1) she always
(2) always dresses
(3) dresses up
(4) at work

144. Spot the phrasal verb in the given sentence Spicy food disagrees with me.
(1) disagrees with
(2) spicy food
(3) with me
(4) food disagrees

145. Spot the phrasa l verb in the given sentence :
My dad said he was going to see about buying me a car.
(1) dad said
(2) going to see about
(3) buying me
(4) see about

146. Fill in the blanks :
America _____the only country that went____ barbarism to decadence without civilization in between.
(1) was, of
(2) is, from
(3) is, into
(4) is, for

147. Spot the correct sentence
(1) Consistency is the last refuge of the unimaginative
(2) Consistency of the last refuge in the unimaginative
(3) Consistency in the last refuge among the unimaginative
(4) Consistency among the refuge is the unimaginative

148. Spot the correct sentence
(1) I think that God in creating man somewhat overestimated his ability
(2) I think that God after creating man somewhat overestimated his abilities
(3) I think that God of creating man somewhat overestimated his ability
(4) I think that God as creating man somewhat overestimated his ability

149. Spot the correct sentence
(1) It is always a silly thing to give advice, but to give good advice is fatal
(2) It is always an silly thing to give advice, but give good advice is fatal
(3) It is always a silly thing to give advice, but to give good advice of fatal
(4) It is always a silly thing to give advice, but for to give good advice is fatal

150. Spot the correct sentence
(1) One should always play fairly when one has the winning cards
(2) One should always play fairly when one’s has the winning cards
(3) One should always play fairly when one have the winning cards
(4) One should always plays fairly when one has the winning cards

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