ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST (AILET) 2018 Question Paper

SECTION – A : ENGLISH

Directions (Q. 1 – Q. 4): For each question, choose the correct sentence/s.

1. I. Due to the amicable nature of the new neighbours in the locality, we could come to an amiable settlement of the dispute that had taken place.
II. Edmund Hillary and Tenzing Norgay gave ascent that they will assent the Mt. Everest and conquer it together.
III. His immanent literary qualities made him an eminent writer and hence fame became imminent for him.
IV. Kamal is very obedient, agreeable and gracious: a complaisant child. His mother feels complacent of her parentage.
(a) I, IV
(b) III, IV
(c) II, IV
(d) I, III

2. I. The Music Director ingeniously told the media that the song was his ingenuous work.
II. If you are mendacious in life most of the times, you will have to be mendicant later to win their trust back again.
III. Being venal is not a venial crime under the court of law.
IV. The leader abjured his followers to adjure violence as a means to demand their rights.
(a) II, III
(b) I, IV
(c) II, IV
(d) I, III

3. (a) Ketan has to be more discreet or he’ll literally drive his wife up the wall.
(b) Ketan has to be more discrete or he’ll literally drive his wife up the wall.
(c) Ketan has to be more discrete or he’ll drive his wife up the wall.
(d) Ketan has to be more discreet or he’ll drive his wife up the wall.

4. (a) Hema prophesized that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just desserts.
(b) Hema prophesized that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just deserts.
(c) Hema prophesied that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just deserts.
(d) Hema prophesied that if Ratna kept dancing that way, she’d get her just desserts.

Directions (Q. 5 – Q. 6): Following are the questions based on the same words used as different parts of speech. Choose the correct matches.

5. Well
1. Noun
2. Adjective
3. Adverb
4. Interjection
a. Well begun is half done?
b. Let well alone.
c. Well, who would have thought it?
d. I hope you are now well.
(a) 1-a, 2-b, 3-c, 4-d
(b) 1-b, 2-d, 3-a, 4-c
(c) 1 -c, 2-d, 3-a, 4-b
(d) 4-a, 3-b, 2-c, 1-b

6. What
1. Interjection Adjective
2. Interjection
3. Interjection Pronoun
4. Relative Pronoun
a. Give me what you can. What happened then, I do not know.
b. What does he want?
c. What! You don’t mean to say so?
d. What evidence have you got?
(a) 4-b, 1-c, 2-d, 3-a
(b) 3-c, 2-b, 1-a, 4-d
(c) 1-c, 2-b, 3-d, 4-a
(d) 1-d, 2-c, 3-b, 4-a

Directions (Q. 7 – Q. 12): Name the various Figures of Speech in the following.

7. He was a learned man among lords, and a lord among learned men.
(a) Epigram
(b) Metonymy
(c) Oxymoron
(d) Antithesis

8. Sceptre and crown
Must tumble down,
And in dust be equal made
With the poor crooked scythe and spade.
(a) Irony
(b) Apostrophe
(c) Metonymy
(d) Synecdoche

9. Brave Macbeth, with his brandished steel, carved out his passage.
(a) Metaphor
(b) Litotes
(c) Climax
(d) Synecdoche

10. We had nothing to do, and we did it very well.
(a) Antithesis
(b) Paradox
(c) Anticlimax
(d) Litotes

11. And thou, Dalhousie, the great god of war Lieutenant-Colonel to the Earl of Mar!
(a) Apostrophe
(b) Epigram
(c) Anticlimax
(d) Paradox

12. The Puritan had been rescued by no common deliverer from the gasp of no common foe.
(a) Hyperbole
(b) Epigram
(c) Metaphor
(d) Litotes

Directions (Q. 13 – Q. 19): Choose the sentence (s) which is/are punctuated correctly.

13. I. Our daughter will be three years old next week.
II. Our son will be two-years-old next week.
III. Our two-year-old is starting to talk.
IV. Our two year old is starting to talk.
(a) I, III
(b) I & IV
(c) II, III
(d) III

14. I. Jan asked; “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later.’ ”
II. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later?’ ”
III. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later’? ”
IV. Jan asked, “What did Joe mean when he said, ‘I will see you later’ ”?
(a) II
(b) I
(c) IV
(d) III

15. I. You are my friend; however, I cannot afford to lend you any more money.
II. Truly, a popular error has as many lives as a cat; it comes walking in, long after you have imagined it effectually strangled.
III. There is only one cure for the evils which newly acquired freedom produces, and that cure is freedom.
IV. There is a slavery that no legislation can abolish; the slavery of caste.
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, IV
(c) I, II, III, IV
(d) II, III

16. I. Yes, Jagrit, you were right about that answer.
II. Yes Jagrit, you were right about that answer.
III. I saw our town’s ex-Mayor Prakash Kumar in the mall.
IV. I saw our town’s ex-mayor in the market.
(a) I, III
(b) I, III, IV
(c) I, IV
(d) II, III

17. I. As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour him; but as. he was ambitious, I slew him.
II. Danish, my friend from Chandigarh, Punjab, will join us.
III. Danish, my friend, from Chandigarh, Punjab will join us.
IV. As Caesar loved me, I wept for him; as he was fortunate, I rejoice at it; as he was valiant, I honour him: but as he was ambitious I slew him.
(a) II
(b) II, IV
(c) I, III
(d) I, II

18. I. A liberally sprinkled dose of humour was very much appreciated.
II. Right now I want two things: peace and quiet.
III. Our liberal-minded clergyman managed to unite the entire congregation.
IV. Right now I want two things; peace and quiet.
(a) II, III
(b) I, IV
(c) I, II, III
(d) III, IV

19. I. It may not be the correct part, but I bet that it works.
II. It may not be the correct part but: I bet that it works.
III. O father! I hear the sound of guns.
IV. O Hamlet, speak no more!
(a) I, III
(b) I, III, IV
(c) II, III
(d) I, IV

Directions (Q. 20 – Q. 26): For each question, identify the correct subjects and verbs. The subjects are in bold and the verbs are underlined.

20. (a) Every environmental regulation has been undermined by that industry.
(b) Every environmental regulation has been undermined by that industry.
(c) Every environmental regulation has been undermined by that industry.
(d) Every environmental regulation has been undermined by that industry.

21. (a) My gift for singing and dancing simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
(b) My gift for singing and dancing simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
(c) My gift for singing and dancing simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.
(d) My gift for singing and dancing simultaneously did not fail to attract attention.

22. (a) Every attempt to flatter her failed miserably.
(b) Every attempt to flatter her failed miserably.
(c) Every attempt to flatter her failed miserably.
(d) Every attempt to flatter her failed miserably.

23. (a) If all is lost, why am 1 still plavina cricket ?
(b) If all is lost, whv am 1 still Dlavina cricket ?
(c) If all is lost, whv am 1 still plavina cricket ?
(d) If all is lost, why am 1 still plavina cricket ?

24. (a) “Buses” has only one s in the middle of it.
(b) “Buses” has only one s in the middle of it.
(c) “Buses” has only one s in the middle of it.
(d) “Buses” has only one s in the middle of it.

25. (a) Have you memorized all the chemical svmbols on the chart ?
(b) Have you memorized all the chemical symbols on the chart ?
(c) Have you memorized all the chemical svmbols on the chart ?
(d) Have you memorized all the chemical svmbols on the chart ?

26. (a) This gorgeous grand sitar is tuned to perfection.
(b) This gorgeous grand sitar is tuned to perfection.
(c) This gorgeous grand sitar is tuned to perfection.
(d) This gorgeous grand sitar is tuned to perfection.

Directions (Q. 27 – Q. 30): Find out the sentence/s which is/are written correctly.

27. I. Some of the desserts was left by the end of the birthday party.
II. Your brilliant excuses almost makes up for your tardiness.
III. Neither Jackson nor Jenna have played hooky.
IV. Either of us is capable of winning.
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, III
(c) II
(d) IV

28. I. Here’s the paper clips you requested.
II. A limousine and driver are in the driveway.
III. One-fourth of the voters tend not to cast its ballots in national elections.
IV. Either of the classic cars are for sale.
(a) I, II
(b) I, II, III
(c) II
(d) II, IV

29. I. Ten dollars are too much to pay for a pen.
II. The water polo team have won the state championship for the second time.
III. That skier is one of those who competes nationally.
IV. I cannot be calm on roller coasters.
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, III, IV
(c) I, III, IV
(d) none of these

30. I. The sexy, slim, Indian superstar.
II. The Indian, slim, sexy superstar.
III. My yellow, old, Ferrari sports car.
IV. My old, yellow, Ferrari sports car.
(a) I, IV
(b) II, IV
(c) I, III
(d) II, III

Directions (Q. 31 – Q. 35): Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/ phrase in the question.

31. Find your feet
(a) desire to escape from a situation
(b) adapting and attuning to something
(c) finding one’s own space
(d) ready to fight a war

32. (To be) On the ball
(a) another thing coming
(b) having fun
(c) being alert or well prepared
(d) raise the roof

33. (To) Go cold turkey
(a) speaking truth
(b) getting down to business
(c) gradually cutting down
(d) withdraw abruptly and completely

34. Break a leg
(a) good luck
(b) take a break
(c) bad luck
(d) trying hard to succeed

35. White-knuckled handshake
(a) sign of stressful situation
(b) friendly handshake
(c) sign of peace
(d) holding hands very lightly

SECTION – B : GENERAL KNOWLEDGE

36. Voter Verifiable Paper Audit Trail (VVPAT) is an independent verification system for EVM designed to
I. allow voters to verify that their votes are cast correctly.
II. detect possible election fraud or malfunction.
III. Provide a means to audit the stored electronic results.
IV. Voter can see printout and take it out too.
(a) I and II
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and III
(d) All of the above

37. The Film Federation of India (FFI) has selected the Hindi film_______ to represent India in Best Foreign Language category at the 90th Academy Awards (Oscars),
(a) Padmavat
(b) Dangal
(c) Bahubali
(d) Newton

38. Who is awarded the Person of the Year for 2017 by Times magazine ?
(a) The Silence Breakers
(b) Crown Prince Mohammed bin Salman
(c) The Dreamers
(d) Colin Kaepernick

39. How many banks have merged with SBI with effect from October 2017 ?
(a) 4
(b) 5
(c) 6
(d) 7

40. According to a recent report by NASA, the El Nino led to excessive carbon dioxide releases in which of the following ways ?
I. Hot weather and drought caused extensive wildfires in south-east Asia.
II. Drought in the Amazon rainforest stunted plant growth, reducing the amount of carbon they absorb while growing.
III. Warmer weather and near normal rainfall in Africa caused forests to exhale more CO2.
(a) I only
(b) II only
(c) II and III
(d) I, II and III

41. Scientists from which of the following countries have developed the world’s first artificial intelligence politician named SAM ?
(a) New Zealand
(b) Japan
(c) China
(d) Korea

42. Which State became the first State in India to operate electric bus services?
(a) Assam
(b) Himachal Pradesh
(c) Karnataka
(d) Maharashtra

43. ______ officially launched its own oil-backed cryptocurrency called Petro.
(a) China
(b) Senegal
(c) Venezuela
(d) Singapore

44. ______ is the first Indian woman pilot of Indian Air Force who created history by completing a solo flight on a MiG-21 Bison fighter aircraft.
(a) Bhawana Kanth
(b) Mohana Singh
(c) Anny Divya
(d) Avani Chaturvedi

45. _______ is first city in India to get World Heritage City status by United Nations Educational, Scientific and Cultural Organization (UNESCO).
(a) Delhi
(b) Mumbai
(c) Ahmadabad
(d) Jaipur

46. Which of these digital payment mechanisms does not require an internet connection ?
(a) USSD
(b) UPI
(c) e- wallets
(d) IMPS 24X7

47. ___ is a popular statistical simulation named after a city.
(a) Bristol
(b) Vienna
(c) Berlin
(d) Monte Carlo

48. Book My Show and PayTM are examples of ______ and_____ wallets, respectively.
(a) Open, Closed
(b) Closed, Semi-closed
(c) Semi-open, Semi-closed
(d) Semi-closed, closed

49. Which of the following Indian companies had become one of the top three most- valuable brands in the information technology (IT) service sector of the world ?
(a) Wipro
(b) Infosys
(c) HCL Technologies
(d) Tata Consultancy Services

50. ICC Under-19 World Cup Trophy 2018 was won by India defeating Australia. What is special about this tournament ?
(a) Shubman Gill of India was declared the ‘Man of the Tournament’.
(b) Team Afghanistan defeated three high profile teams namely Pakistan, Sri Lanka and New Zealand.
(c) India now holds the most wins record in Under-19 World Cup.
(d) All of the above

51. When ghee is kept in open air/sunlight for 30 minutes, the loss of Vitamin ‘A’ is
(a) 100%
(b) 75%
(c) 34%
(d) None of the above

52. Which one of the following has been appointed first female independent Director of International Cricket Council in 2018 ?
(a) Naina Lai Kidwai
(b) Indra Nooyi
(c) Nita Ambani
(d) Chitra Ramkrishna

53. Light waves can be polarised because they
(a) have high frequency
(b) have short wavelength
(c) are compressive
(d) are transverse

54. As per NITI Aayog’s Health Index, 2018, which of the following States is the healthiest State in India ?
(a) Punjab
(b) Haryana
(c) Kerala
(d) Tamil Nadu

55. Which one of the following has been described as a ‘Frozen Moment in History’ ?
(a) Fatehpur Sikri
(b) Jallianwala Bagh
(c) Gol Gumbas Bijapur
(d) Kutub Minar

56. In a coastal city, a high tide occurs every
(a) 24 hours
(b) 12 hours and 25 minutes
(c) 12 hours
(d) 24 hours and 25 minutes

57. Which of the followings are the exclusive powers of Rajya Sabha under the Constitution of India ?
I. Creation of new All India Services.
II. Enable Parliament to enact law on a subject in State List.
III. Enforcing proclamation of emergency when Lok Sabha is dissolved.
(a) I, II
(b) II, III
(c) I, III
(d) I, II, III

58. India and China jointly submitted a proposal to the World Trade Organisation (WTO) calling for the elimination – by developed countries – of the most trade-distorting form of farm subsidies, known in WTO parlance as_____ support as a prerequisite for consideration of other reforms in domestic support negotiations.
(a) Amber Box
(b) Green Box
(c) Blue Box
(d) Orange Box

59. Which of the following statements is correct as per the announcement of Union Budget 2018-19?
(a) 24 new Medical Colleges will be established as green field projects.
(b) 24 new Medical Colleges to be established by upgrading leading district hospitals.
(c) 24 new Medical Colleges to be established in tribal areas.
(d) 24 new Medical Colleges to be established for girl students.

60. Which has been termed as the ‘Green Gold’ by the Finance Minister ?
(a) Shell Gas
(b) CNG
(c) Bamboo
(d) Medicinal and Aromatic plants

61. Which of the following statements is not true about UNAIDS’ target 90: 90: 90 ?
(a) 90% control of HIV infection by the year 2020.
(b) 90% of all people living with HIV will know their HIV status.
(c) 90% of all people with diagnosed HIV infection will receive sustained anti-retroviral therapy.
(d) 90% of all people receiving anti-retroviral therapy will have viral suppression.

62. According to John Templeton – Bull markets are born on pessimism, grow on scepticism, mature on optimism and die on .
(a) Excitement
(b) Euphoria
(c) Ebullition
(d) Ravishment

63. If RBI lowers the Cash Reserve Ratio (CRR), then
I. supply of money in the economy may increase.
II. banks will increase the interest rates.
III. exports will become cheaper.
(a) I
(b) I, II
(c) I, III
(d) I, II, III

64. GST has a ____ tier structure for taxation of goods and services.
(a) Two
(b) Three
(c) Four
(d) Five

65. Which of the following statements is correct about FDI in India ?
(a) 100% FDI is allowed in single brand retail via automatic route
(b) 100% FDI is admissible in construction sector via automatic route
(c) Foreign airlines are allowed to invest upto 49% in Air India through approval route
(d) All of the above

66. ‘Diopter’ is the unit of measurement of .
(a) Heat
(b) Sound
(c) Energy
(d) power of a lens

67. If the election of the President of India is declared void by the Supreme Court, the acts performed by the President incumbent before the date of such decision of court are
(a) valid but subject to judicial review
(b) invalid
(c) valid
(d) valid but subject to the approval of the Parliament

68. In 2018, scientists have discovered a new organ which could also be the biggest organ in human body. What is the name of the organ?
(a) Interstitium
(b) Mesentery
(c) Langerhans
(d) Myeloid

69. World’s longest sandstone cave has been discovered in which of the following States ?
(a) Assam
(b) Meghalaya
(c) Jammu & Kashmir
(d) Nagaland

70. Which is the first Indian city to have its own logo for promoting tourism ?
(a) Goa
(b) Agra
(c) Jaipur
(d) Bengaluru

SECTION – C : LEGAL APTITUDE

Directions : Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

71. Legal Principle:
1. A person is liable for his negligence when he owed a duty of care to others and commits a breach of that duty causing injury thereby.
2. Volenti non fit injuria is defence to negligence.
Factual Situation: Anil and his wife, Reena, were in a shop as customers, where a skylight in the roof of the shop was broken, owing to the negligence of the contractors engaged in repairing the roof, and a portion of the glass fell and struck Anil causing him a severe shock. Reena, who was standing close to him, was not touched by the falling glass, but, reasonably believing her husband to be in danger, she instinctively clutched his arm, and tried to pull him from the spot. In doing this, she strained her leg in such a way as to bring about a recurrence of thrombosis. Anil and Reena are claiming compensation for their injuries which were caused due to the negligence of the shop owners. The shop owners are denying liability on the grounds of volenti non fit injuria. The defence of volenti non fit injuria
(a) is available in respect of husband
(b) is available in respect of wife
(c) is available in respect of both husband and wife
(d) is not available in respect of both husband and wife

Directions (Q. 72 – Q. 73): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

Legal Principles :
1. Private nuisance is a continuous, unlawful and indirect interference with the use or enjoyment of land, or of some right over or in connection with it.
2. The person who for his own purposes brings on his lands and collects and keeps there anything likely to do mischief if it escapes, must keep it at his peril, and, if he does not do so, is prima facie answerable for all the damage which is the natural consequence of its escape.
3. A person is liable if he can reasonably foresee that his acts would likely to injure his neighbour.
4. The foresee ability of the type of damage is a pre-requisite of liability in actions of nuisance.

72. Factual Situation : During 2011, a European Directive was issued requiring nations of the European Community to establish standards on the presence of Perchloroethene (PCE) in water, which the Kingsland did in 2013.
Alfa Water Co. purchased a borehole in 2007 to extract water to supply to the public in Kingsland. In 2014, it tested the water to ensure that it met minimum standards for human consumption and discovered that it was contaminated with an organochlorine solvent (PCE). On investigation, it emerged that the solvent seeped into the soil through the building floor of the Light & Soft Leather Tannery, about 3 miles from the borehole that eventually contaminated the Alfa’s borehole.
Since the tannery opened in 1910, until 2007, the solvent it used had been delivered in 40-gallon drums which were transported by fork lift truck and then tipped into a sump. Since 2007, solvents had been delivered in bulk and stored in tanks. It was then piped to the tanning machinery. There was no evidence of any spills from the tanks or pipes, and it was concluded that the water had been contaminated by frequent spills under the earlier system. Alfa Water brought a claim against the Tannery on the grounds of nuisance. Whether the Tannery owners are liable?
(a) Yes, the escape of the solvent which contaminated the water is sufficient for making them liable.
(b) No, the damage is too remote as it was not possible for the Tannery owners to reasonably foresee a spillage which would eventually lead to contamination of a water borehole so far away.
(c) No, because Alfa Water Co. should have been careful in using good purifying mechanisms to ensure that the water is fit for human consumption. They cannot shift the blame on the Tannery owners.
(d) Yes, the damage is not remote as it was possible for the Tannery owners to reasonably foresee a spillage which would eventually lead to contamination of a water borehole just 3 miles away.

73. Factual Situation: M G Ltd. was constructing Crystal Heights, a posh state-of-the-art tower for commercial and residential purposes, in Gurugram. During construction, hundreds of claimants alleged that, in addition to dust and noise caused by the erection of the building, their television signals had been interrupted by the tower. The claimants, some of whom were absolute owners, and many others who were renting, sued in both negligence and in nuisance for the harm done to their amenity by the loss of their television signals. Whether the respondent’s action in causing the appellant’s television signals to be interrupted with the construction of their tower could constitute a private nuisance ?
(a) The interference with the television signal caused by the construction of the tower could not amount to a private nuisance at law. Effective town planning can sort this matter, instead.
(b) Yes, the large tower had interrupted their television reception, and caused private nuisance – for loss of enjoyment – and remuneration for their wasted television license fee, from the time their signal had been impaired.
(c) No, it cannot constitute private nuisance but the claimants can claim damages for loss of television signals.
(d) Yes, the respondent’s conduct was unreasonable because the act of building the tower caused impairment of enjoyment of the land.

74. Legal Principle:
1. Any intentional false communication, either written or spoken, that harms a person’s reputation; decreases the respect, regard, or confidence in which a person is held; or induces disparaging, hostile, or disagreeable opinions or feelings against a person.
2. The statement must tend to lower the claimant in the estimation of right-thinking members of society.
3. A mere vulgar abuse is not defamation.
4. Sometimes a statement may not be defamatory on the face of it but contain an innuendo, which has a defamatory meaning.
5. Defamation encompasses both written statements, known as libel, and spoken statements, called slander.
Factual Situation : In May 2017, a memorial commemorating the women of World War II was vandalized during an anti-government demonstration following the General Election. An offensive political slogan was spray painted across the plinth of the memorial. This act caused public outrage and widespread condemnation.
On Twitter, a political writer, Asha Mehta said that she did not have a problem with the vandalism of the memorial building. Chandna reacted to this negatively, suggesting that Asha should be sent to join Terrorist Organization. Asha’s comments and Chandna’s reactions both received national media coverage.
A few days later, Chandna published a tweet asking the question “Scrawled on any war memorials recently?” to Anshika Chauhan, another political activist. Anshika Chauhan responded stating that they had never vandalised any memorial building, and moreover had family members serving in the armed forces. Chandna followed with a second tweet, in which she asked if someone could explain the difference between Mehta (an “irritant”) and AnshikaChauhan (whom she described as “social anthrax”).
Anshika Chauhan asked for a retraction via Twitter and was promptly blocked by Chandna. Anshika Chauhan asked Chandna to make a public apology and claimed compensation for libel alleging that the First Tweet suggested that she had either vandalised a war memorial, which was a criminal act; and the Second Tweet suggested that she approved or condoned that vandalisation. What is the meaning of the Tweets and whether those meanings had defamatory tendency?
(a) Both the tweets were defamatory to Anshika Chauhan as the hypothetical ordinary reader can be expected to understand defamatory tendency of the tweet in the context of the situation.
(b) Second tweet was not defamatory as it was not referring directly to Anshika Chauhan. So, she cannot claim compensation.
(c) Natural and ordinary meaning of the tweets are not defamatory. So, she cannot claim compensation.
(d) First tweet was not defamatory because the natural and ordinary meaning of the statement which is conveyed to a hypothetical ordinary reader is not defamatory.

75. Legal Principle:
1. An assault is an act which intentionally causes another person to apprehend the infliction of immediate, unlawful force on a person.
2. A battery consists of an intentional application of force to another person without any lawful justification.
Factual Situation: Jagan was in his car when he was approached by a police officer who told him to move the vehicle. Jagan did so, reversed his car and rolled it on to the foot of the police officer. The officer forcefully told him to move the car off his foot at which point Jagan swore at him and refused to move his vehicle and turned the engine off. Jagan was convicted for assaulting a police officer in the execution of his duty. Is he liable for battery or assault?
(a) He is not liable because there cannot be an assault in omitting to act and that driving on to the officer’s foot was accidental, meaning that he was lacking mens rea when the act causing damage had occurred.
(b) He is not liable as the act neither amount to an attempt nor a threat to commit a battery that amounts to an actionable tort of assault.
(c) Jagan’s crime was not the refusal to move the car but that of having driven on to the foot of the officer and decided not to cease the act, he had established a continual act of battery.
(d) He is neither liable for assault nor battery as he accidently drove his car on the police officer’s foot.

Directions (Q. 76 – Q. 78): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

Legal Principles:
1. Consideration is something that moves from the promise to the promisor, at the implied or express request of the latter, in return for his promise. The item that moves can be a right, interest, profit, loss, responsibility given or suffered, forbearance or a benefit which is of some value in the eyes of law.
2. An offer may be revoked at any time before the communication of its acceptance is complete as against the proposer, but not afterwards.

76. Factual Situation : The defendant, Mr. Dhawan, wrote to the complainant, Mr. Chaman, with an offer to sell his house to him for Rs. 8,00,000. He promised that he would keep this offer open to him until Friday. However, on the Thursday Mr. Dhawan accepted an offer from a third party and sold his house. According to Mr. Chaman, he was going to accept this offer but had not said anything to Mr. Dhawan because he understood that he had time until Friday. Mr. Dhawan communicated to Mr. Chaman that the offer had been withdrawn, through a friend to the complainant. After hearing this, Mr. Chaman went to find the defendant, informing of his acceptance to the offer. Thereafter, the complainant brought an action for specific performance and breach of contract against the defendant. Whether the defendant’s promise to keep the offer open until Friday morning was a binding contract between the parties and whether he was allowed to revoke this offer and sell to a third party?
(a) The statement made by Mr. Dhawan amounts to a valid contract and he has committed a breach by selling the house before Friday.
(b) The statement made by Mr. Dhawan was nothing more than a promise; there was no binding contract formed. He had communicated an offer for buying his house to the complainant and this offer can be revoked any time before there is acceptance.
(c) The communication by a friend or other party that an offer had been withdrawn is invalid and could not be treated as if it came from the person himself.
(d) Promises to keep an offer open until a certain time is a binding agreement as it is accepted by the other party.

77. Factual Situation : MXM Co. is a building contractor who entered into an agreement with Star Heights Housing Association to refurbish a block of 27 flats. This contract was subject to a liquidated damages clause if they did not complete the contract on time. The MXM Co. engaged Hasan to do the carpentry work for an agreed price of Rs. 20,000. After six months of commencing the work, Hasan realised he had priced the job too low and would be unable to complete at the originally agreed price. He approached MXM Co. who recognised that the price was particularly low and was concerned about completing the contract on time. MXM Co. agreed to make additional payments to Hasan in return for his promise to carry out his existing obligations.
MXM Co. agreed to pay Hasan an additional Rs.575 per flat. Hasan continued work on the flats for a further period of 6 weeks but only received an additional Rs. 5,000. He then ran out of money and refused to continue unless payment was made. MXM Co. engaged another carpenter to complete the contract and refused to pay Hasan any further sums. Hasan sued for payment under the original agreement and the subsequent agreement. MXM Co. argued that the agreement to make additional payments was unenforceable as Hasan has not provided any consideration to make this agreement a valid contract. Decide.
(a) The agreement to pay extra was unenforceable as Hasan had provided no consideration as he was already under an existing contractual duty to complete the work.
(b) Consideration was provided by Hasan in the form of conferring a benefit on the MXM Co. by helping them to avoid the penalty clause. Therefore, MXM Co. was liable to make the extra payments promised.
(c) There was no consideration provided by Hasan as to avoid the penalty clause was the main object of the contract. Therefore, MXM Co. was not liable to make the extra payments promised.
(d) MXM Co. is liable to pay compensation to Hasan as they have committed a breach of contract by employing another carpenter.

78. Factual Situation: Bournville ran a sales promotion whereby if persons sent in 3 chocolate bar wrappers and a postal order for Rs. 100 they would be sent a record. Big Beats owned the copyright in one of the records offered and disputed the right of Bournville to offer the records and sought an injunction to prevent the sale of the records which normally retailed at Rs. 1,000. Under the Copyright Act, retailers are protected from breach of copyright if they gave notice to the copyright holders of the ordinary retail selling price and paid them 6.25% of this. Bournville gave notice stating the ordinary selling price was Rs. 100 and three chocolate bar wrappers. The issue is whether the chocolate bar wrappers formed part of the consideration?
(a) The wrappers were a mere token or condition of sale and not consideration.
(b) The wrappers did form part of the consideration for the sale of records despite the fact that they had no intrinsic economic value in themselves.
(c) The wrappers did not form part of the consideration for the sale of records as they had no intrinsic economic value in themselves.
(d) There was consideration for the sale of records in the form of postal order for? 100.

Directions (Q. 79 – Q. 80): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

Legal Principles:
1. Offer is a proposal made by one person to another to do an act or abstain from doing it. The person who makes the offer is known as the promisor or offeror and the person to whom an offer is made is known as the promisee or the offeree.
2. A contract comes into being by the acceptance of an offer. When the person to whom the offer is made signifies his consent thereto, the proposal is said to be accepted and the parties are at consensus ad idem regarding the terms of the agreement.

79. Factual Situation : Tejas drove his car to a car park named Super Car Park (SCP).Outside the car park, the prices were displayed and a notice stated cars were parked at the owner’s risk. An automatic ticket vending machine provided a ticket, a barrier was raised and Tejas parked his car. In small print on the ticket it was stated that the ticket is issued subject to conditions displayed on the premises. On a pillar opposite to the machine was a notice stating the owners would not be liable for any injuries occurring on their premises. Tejas met with an accident and sought damages from SCP. SCP denied any liability on the basis of the exclusion clause which was mentioned in the notice on the pillar. Whether there is an offer and acceptance of the exclusion clause?
(a) There is a valid contract between Tejas and SCP as SCP had taken reasonable steps to bring exclusion clause to Tejas’s attention at the time of making the contract.
(b) The contract was made when Tejas received the ticket and parked his car. The ticket amounted to a contractual document which effectively referred to the terms which were clearly visible on the premises.
(c) The machine itself constituted the offer. The acceptance was by putting the money into the machine. The ticket was dispensed after the acceptance took place and therefore the exclusion clause was not incorporated into the contract.
(d) The machine itself constituted the offer. The acceptance was by putting the money into the machine and acceptance of the offer mean acceptance of all the terms of the offer and hence SCP is not liable.

80. Factual Situation : The plaintiffs offered to provide delivery of a machine tool for a price of Rs. 75,535. The delivery of the tool was set for 10 months, with the condition that orders only qualified as accepted once the terms in the quotation were met and prevailed over any of the buyer’s terms. The buyer responded to the offer with their own terms and conditions, which did not include the ‘price variation clause’ listed in the seller’s terms. This included a response section which required a signature and to be returned in order to accept the order. The sellers returned this response slip with a cover letter signaling that delivery would be in accordance with their original quotation. The tool was ready for delivery but the buyers could not accept delivery, for which the sellers increased the price which was in line with their initial terms.
This was denied by the buyer and an action was brought by the seller to claim the cost of delay and interest. Was a contract made with or without a price variation clause ?
(a) The buyer’s order was not an acceptance of the initial offer from the seller but a counter-offer which the sellers had accepted by returning the signature section of the buyer’s letter and so the contract was completed without the price variation clause and therefore the seller could not increase the cost of the tool.
(b) The buyer’s order was an acceptance of the initial offer from the seller and so the contract was completed with the price variation clause and therefore the seller can increase the cost of the tool.
(c) The contract was made with price variation clause due to the condition that orders only qualified as accepted once the terms in the quotation were met and prevailed over any of the buyer’s terms.
(d) The contract between the buyer and seller is not valid as both the parties are not agreeing to the same thing in the same sense.

81. Legal Principle :
1. ‘Misrepresentation ‘means and includes -the positive assertion, in a manner not warranted by the information of the person making it, of that which is not true, though he believes it to be true; any breach of duty which, without an intent to deceive, gains an advantage of the person committing it, or any one claiming under him, by misleading another to his prejudice, or to the prejudice of any one claiming under him; causing, however innocently, a party to an agreement, to make a mistake as to the substance of the thing which is the subject of the agreement.
2. The tort of negligent misstatement is defined as an inaccurate statement made honestly but carelessly usually in the form of advice given by a party with special skill/knowledge to a party that doesn’t possess this skill or knowledge.
Factual Situation : The plaintiff, Mr. Madan, entered into a tenancy agreement with the defendant, Esso Petroleum, in respect of a petrol station owned by the latter. During the course of the negotiation of the agreement, ‘expert’ advisers employed by the defendant had provided an estimate of the sales which the petrol station could expect which was based on inaccurate information and consequently was significantly inflated. The value of the rent on the agreement had been calculated based on this inflated figure. As a result, it was impossible for the plaintiff to operate the petrol station profitably. Whether the plaintiff could have any action for negligent misrepresentation ?
(a) The contract could not be held void for misrepresentation as the defendants presented the inflated figure as an estimate rather than as a hard fact.
(b) The defendant has no obligation to disclose as the parties contracting should obtain the necessary information themselves without relying upon the other party.
(c) As the defendant had taken it upon themselves to employ experts for the purpose of providing an estimate of sales, they owed a duty of care to the plaintiff to ensure that this was done on the basis of accurate information. Hence, the plaintiff can recover the losses which he had suffered as a result of the defendant’s negligent misstatement.
(d) Both (a) and (c)

Directions (Q. 82 – Q. 83): Apply the legal principles to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.

Legal Principles :
1. The Tort of Negligence is a legal wrong that is suffered by someone at the hands of another who fails to take proper care to avoid what a reasonable person would regard as a foreseeable risk.
2. The test of liability requires that the harm must be a reasonably foreseeable result of the defendant’s conduct, a relationship of proximity must exist and it must be fair, just and reasonable to impose liability.
3. The claimant must prove that harm would not have occurred ‘but for’ the negligence of the defendant. The claimant must prove, on the balance of probabilities, that the defendant’s breach of duty caused the harm.

82. Factual Situation: Amar worked for an iron works, Luxmi Mills & Co. Ltd. operating a remotely controlled crane, Amar galvanized items by dipping them into a large tank of molten metal. In order to protect its crane operators, whose controls were located just a few feet from the tank, Luxmi Mills erected a low wall around the tank and also provided a sheet of corrugated iron that crane operators placed between themselves and the wall. The operators were not facing the tank while operting the crane. Thus, they could not see the operation of the crane and therefore relied upon signals from another worker located farther from the tank. Many other galvanizers at the time situated their operators in enclosed, windowed spaces from which they could safely see and perform their work. Luxmi Mills eventually adopted that practice as well. One day, Amar was working on the crane. At one point, he either turned toward the tank or leaned out to see the worker giving him instructions, thereby placing his head outside the iron sheet. A spray of molten metal burned Amar’s lip. When it failed to heal and began to ulcerate, he consulted a doctor who diagnosed the wound as cancerous. Amar ultimately died from the spread of cancer after three years. His widow sued Luxmi Mills for negligence. Whether the employers would be liable for the full extent of the burn and cancer that had developed as a result?
(a) The employers are liable for all of the consequences of their negligence; thus, liable for the employee’s death. His predisposition to cancer did not matter, nor did the results of the injury. The question of liability was, whether the defendant could reasonable foresee the injury.
(b) The employers are not liable because the duty of care towards Amar was not breached by them as they were using the same practices which were used by other companies at that time.
(c) The employers are not liable because Amar suffered injury due to his own negligence in stepping out of the protective shield.
(d) The employers are liable for burns and not for the death which happened due to Amar’s cancerous condition which could not have been known to the employers.

83. Factual Situation : A 13-year-old boy fell from a tree. He went to a hospital where his hip was examined, but an incorrect diagnosis was made. After 5 days it was found that he was suffering from avascular necrosis. This was more advanced and serious than if it had been spotted straight away. Despite receiving treatment, it was determined that he had suffered from a muscular condition (avascular necrosis) which left the boy with a permanent disability and further left a strong probability that he would develop severe osteoarthritis later in life. The expert medical testimony indicated that had his fractured hip been identified on his initial hospital visit, there was a 25% chance of his condition having been successfully treated. He is claiming compensation for the negligence of hospital. Whether the hospital’s negligence on his initial visit had caused his injury ?
(a) No, because there are very less chances that correct diagnosis and treatment would have prevented the disability from occurring.
(b) Where there are a number of possible causes, the claimant must still prove the defendant’s breach of duty caused the harm or was a material contribution.
(c) Yes, because there are some chances that correct diagnosis and treatment would have prevented the disability from occurring.
(d) Both (a) and (b)

84. Legal Principle : Vicarious liability is when employers are held liable for the torts committed by their employees during the course of employment.
Factual Situation : New Vision School opened a boarding house (Shivaji House) for boys in the year 2000 for the students having behavioural and emotional difficulties. The claimants in the instant case had resided there between 2000 to 2003, being aged 12 to 15 during that time, under the care of a warden, who was in charge of maintaining discipline and the running of the house. The warden lived in the House, with his disabled wife, and together they were the only two members of staff in the House. His duties were ensuring order, in making sure the children went to bed, went to school, engaged in evening activities, and supervising other staff. It had been alleged by some of the boys that the warden had sexually abused them, including inappropriate advances and taking trips alone with them. A criminal investigation took place some ten years later, resulting in the warden being sentenced to seven years imprisonment. Following this, the victims brought an action for personal injury against the employers, alleging that they were vicariously liable. Whether the employers of the warden may be held vicariously liable for their employee’s intentional sexual abuse of school boys placed under his care?
(a) No, vicarious liability could only arise when the employee is acting during the course of his employment and for his employer’s benefit.
(b) No, the employers cannot be made liable for acts which are not authorised by them.
(c) Yes, there was a sufficient connection between the work that the warden was employed to do and the abuse that he committed to render it within the scope of employment. The abuse was committed at the time, premises and during the course of the warden’s care of the boys.
(d) Yes, because the employers should be made liable in cases of sexual abuse of differently abled children.

85. In 2017, Special Leave Petition for re-investigation in the Mahatma Gandhi murder case was filed by.
(a) Amrendra Sharan
(b) Pankaj K. Phadnis
(c) Tushar Gandhi
(d) Raju Ramachandran

86. Who is the first Indian woman to be elected as the Judge of the International Tribunal for the Law of Sea ?
(a) Dr. Neeru Chadha
(b) Justice Gita Mittal
(c) Vijaya Lakshmi Pandit
(d) Dr. Menaka Guruswamy

87. Which of the following river(s) is/are declared as a legal entity by an Act of Parliament?
(a) Ganga
(b) Whanganui
(c) Yamuna
(d) All of the above

88. Which of the following lawyers approached the Supreme Court challenging the existing system of ‘designation of Senior Advocates’ ?
(a) Meenakashi Lekhi
(b) Vrinda Grover
(c) Indira Jaisingh
(d) Meenakshi Arora

89. ‘Drunken Driving’ is punishable under______ .
(a) Indian Penal Code
(b) Motor Vehicles Act
(c) Road Safety Standards Act
(d) National Highways Act

90. The Supreme Court on 12 December 2017, had directed that_____ special criminal courts, to be set up to exclusively deal with cases involving_____ , should start functioning from March 1, 2018.
(a) 12, MPs/MLAs
(b) 12, Rape Accused
(c) 24, child-sexual abuser
(d) 24, Terrorism related offences

91. Which State Government, in India, has recently sanctioned stipend for junior lawyers practicing in the courts ?
(a) Delhi
(b) Punjab
(c) Kerala
(d) Maharashtra

92. From the field of Law and Justice, who is awarded the Nari Shakti Puraskar 2018 on the International Women’s Day?
(a) Geeta Mittal
(b) Sudha Bharadwaj
(c) Flavia Agnes
(d) Indira Jaisingh

93. Recently, the Supreme Court allowed_____ euthanasia and right to give advance medical directives_______ , stating that human beings have the right to die with dignity as part of fundamental right to life.
(a) active, dying will
(b) passive, living will
(c) active, living will
(d) passive, dying will

94. Local self-governance is an example of
(a) federalism
(b) democratic decentralisation
(c) direct democracy
(d) administrative delegation

95. The institutional infrastructure under the Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016, rests on certain pillars :
I. Insolvency Professionals
II. Information Utilities
III. Adjudication
IV. The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Board of India
V. Asset Construction Companies
Correct code is:
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II, III and IV
(d) All of the above

96. In 2017, the Supreme Court held that right to privacy is protected under Article 21 of the Constitution of India in the context of
(a) State Surveillance
(b) Power of search & seizure
(c) Homosexuality
(d) Indian Biometric Identification Scheme

97. The age of consent for sexual intercourse between a husband and wife has been made_____ from______ years by the Supreme Court of India.
(a) 18,16
(b) 16,15
(c) 21,18
(d) 18,15

98. An accused is entitled to statutory bail (default bail) if the police failed to file the charge-sheet within_____ of his arrest for the offence punishable with ‘imprisonment up to 10 years’.
(a) 30 days
(b) 60 days
(c) 90 days
(d) 180 days

99. Nelson Mandela Rules deals with
(a) Apartheid
(b) Truth and Reconciliation
(c) Prison Management
(d) Global Peace-making

100. The Lok Sabha passed the Muslim Women (Protection of Rights on Marriages) Bill 2017. Which of the following are true about it?
I. It declares instant triple talaq illegal and criminalizes it.
II. It makes declaration of talaq a bailable offence.
III. A husband declaring talaq can be imprisoned for up to two years along with a fine.
IV. It entitles Muslim woman against whom triple talaq has been declared to seek subsistence allowance from her husband for herself and for her dependent children.
(a) I and IV
(b) I, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) All of the above

101. In August 2017, the Union Ministry of Law & Justice in association with the National Legal Service Authority (NALSA) launched ‘Tele-Law’ scheme in_____ to provide legal aid services to marginalised communities and citizens living in rural areas through digital technology.
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) Rajasthan

102. In March 2018, the Supreme Court of India has held that there cannot be a stay of more than______ on trial of____
(a) 6 months, civil and criminal cases
(b) 6 months, criminal cases
(c) 3 months, rape cases
(d) 3 months, civil and criminal cases

103. Which country has withdrawn from the International Criminal Court (ICC) citing reasons of international bias in March, 2018 ?
(a) Burundi
(b) Russia
(c) South Africa
(d) Philippines

104. Regarding foreign law firms, the Supreme Court held
I. That foreign law firms can set up offices in India.
II. Foreign lawyers can practice in India.
III. Foreign lawyers can visit India for a temporary period on a fly in and fly out basis.
IV. Foreign lawyers can give advice to their clients on Indian laws.
(a) I, II, III
(b) II, IV
(c) III
(d) III, IV

105. Which is the world’s first country to enact a law under which companies and government agencies that employ at least 25 people will be fined if they can’t prove they pay men and women equally ?
(a) Iceland
(b) India
(c) Sweden
(d) France

SECTION – D : REASONING

Directions (Q. 106 – Q. 110): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Eight friends Akash, Bunty, Chandan, Deepak, Esha, Fiza, Gazal and Hema are sitting around a circle facing the centre. Deepak is between Akash and Esha only, Fiza is second to the left of Esha. Bunty is between Chandan and Gazal only. Fiza is between Gazal and Hema only.

106. Who is fourth to the right of Bunty ?
(a) Esha
(b) Hema
(c) Gazal
(d) Deepak

107. In which of the following pairs, second person is to the immediate left of the first person?
(a) Deepak, Akash
(b) Bunty,Gazal
(c) Bunty, Chandan
(d) Hema, Esha

108. Which of the following is definitely true ?
(a) Chandan is to the immediate right of Bunty.
(b) Esha is to the immediate left of Chandan.
(c) Deepak is second to the left of Hema.
(d) Akash is second to the right of Esha.

109. Who is sitting in the immediate left of Esha ?
(a) Fiza
(b) Hema
(c) Gazal
(d) Deepak

110. Who is third to the right of Gazal ?
(a) Fiza
(b) Akash
(c) Hema
(d) Esha

111. Harsh moves 15 kms in East direction, then turns towards North and moves 4 kms. From there he turns West and travels 12 kms. How far and in which direction is he from his starting point?
(a) 5 kms, North-East
(b) 5 kms, South-West
(c) 27 kms, North-East
(d) 19 kms, North-East

112. Pratham travels 10 metres in North direction, he turns right and travels 20 metres. Again, he turns towards right and travels 25 metres. Then, he turns towards left and travels 15 metres. In which direction and how far is Pratham from his original position?
(a) 35 metres, East
(b) 38. 07 metres, South-East
(c) 25. 08 metres, West
(d) 25 metres, North-East

Directions (Q. 113 – Q. 119): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

Seven film buffs – Aamna, Archana, Aradhana, Anu, Aahana, Anuja and Aashna – attend a showing of classic movies. Three films are shown, one directed by Satyajit Ray, one by Stanley Kubrick, and one by Steven Spielberg. Each of the film buff see only one of the three films. The films are shown only once, one film at a time. The following restrictions must apply:
i. Exactly twice as many of the film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film as the Satyajit Ray film.
ii. Aamna and Aahana do not see the same film as each other.
iii. Archana and Anu do not see the same film as each other.
iv. Anuja and Aashna see the same film as each other.
v. Aradhana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
vi. Aamna sees either the Satyajit Ray film or the Steven Spielberg film.

113. Which one of the following could be an accurate matching of film buffs to films?
(a) Aamna: the Steven Spielberg film; Archana: the Satyajit Ray film; Anuja: the Satyajit Ray film
(b) Anu: the Steven Spielberg film; Aahana: the Steven Spielberg film; Anuja: the Steven Spielbergfilm
(c) Anu: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aahana: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aashna: the Stanley Kubrickfilm
(d) Archana: the Stanley Kubrick film; Aahana: the Steven Spielberg film; Anuja: the Satyajit Ray film

114. Each of the following must be false EXCEPT
(a) Aahana is the only film buff to see the Satyajit Ray film.
(b) Aahana is the only film buff to see Stanley Kubrick film.
(c) Aashna is the only film buff to see the Steven Spielberg film.
(d) Exactly three film buffs see the Stanley Kubrick film.

115. Which one of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the film buffs who do Not see the Stanley Kubrick film ?
(a) Aamna, Aahana
(b) Aamna, Archana, Aahana
(c) Aamna, Anu, Aashna
(d) Aamna, Anuja, Aashna

116. If exactly one film buff sees the Steven Spielberg film, then which one of the following must be true?
(a) Aamna sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(b) Anu sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(c) Anuja sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
(d) Archana sees the Satyajit Ray film.

117. Which of the following must be true ?
(a) Archana, Aradhana and Anuja do not all see the same film.
(b) Archana sees a different film than Anuja does.
(c) Aamna sees a different film than Archana does.
(d) Aamna, Aradhana and Anu do not all see the same film.

118. If Anuja sees the same film as Aamna does, then which one of the following could be true?
(a) Aahana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
(b) Aashna sees the Satyajit Ray film.
(c) Archana sees the Stanley Kubrick film.
(d) Aamna sees the Satyajit Ray film.

119. Each of the following could be a complete and accurate list of the film buffs who see the Satyajit Ray film EXCEPT
(a) Aamna, Archana
(b) Anuja, Aashna
(c) Anu, Aahana
(d) Aamna,Anu

Directions (Q. 120 – Q. 121): In each of the following questions, there are two statements labelled as Assertion (S) and Reason (R).

Give answer
(a) if both ‘S’& ‘R’ are true and ‘R’ is the correct explanation of ‘S’.
(b) if ‘S’ is true but ‘R’ is false
(c) if ‘S’ is false and ‘R’ is true
(d) if both ‘S’ &‘R’ are false

120. Assertion (S) – Bulb filament is made of titanium.
Reason (R) – The filament should have low melting point.

121. Assertion (S) – Moon cannot be used as a satellite for communication.
Reason (R) – Moon does not move in the equatorial plane of the Earth.

Directions (Q. 122 – Q. 126): Given below is a passage followed by few statements about that passage. You must select one of the following answers:

Definitely True: The statement follows logically from the information contained in the passage.
Definitely False: The statement is logically false from the information contained in the passage.
Probably False: The statement is more likely to be false than true, but not definitely false beyond a reasonable doubt, based solely on the information in the passage.
Data Inadequate: It is not possible to determine whether the statement is true or false without further information.
Mediators recognize that the law is generally in place to uphold mediator – client confidentiality, however, there are situations that may occur where the mediator is under obligation to break that confidence. This obligation can vary depending upon where the mediator is practicing and it may occur as a result of their employment contract or of the law. Where such an issue does occur, the mediator is expected to firstly try and discuss the presenting issue with their client; however, in situations where the factors under consideration are particularly urgent, it is accepted that this cannot always be the case
Legitimate breaches of confidentiality relate to circumstances where the information the client has shared relates to anti-national activities; information of this nature must be reported. There are other circumstances where breaching confidentiality may be considered legitimate, for example, in the case of serious crime or suspected child abuse. Mediation service providers and mediators practicing independently have their own boundaries but must agree this contractually with their client at the outset of the client-counsel relationship.

122. Being obliged to break confidentiality in a mediator-client relationship is always a direct result of the law.
(a) Definitely True
(b) Definitely False
(c) Data Inadequate
(d) Probably False

123. When a client reports their involvement in a serious crime, their Mediators is legally obliged to report this ?
(a) Definitely True
(b) Probably True
(c) Definitely False
(d) Data Inadequate

124. Mediators have some flexibility regarding what they deem serious enough to lead them to breach confidentiality.
(a) Definitely True
(b) Definitely False
(c) Probably False
(d) Data Inadequate

125. Most Mediators agree with the conditions that the law places on them relating to breaching client confidentiality.
(a) Definitely True
(b) Definitely False
(c) Probably False
(d) Data Inadequate

126. If a mediator breaches his client’s confidence about a serious issue without first informing their client of their intentions, they are breaking the law.
(a) Definitely True
(b) Probably False
(c) Definitely False
(d) Data Inadequate

Directions (Q. 127 – Q. 128): Find out the wrong number in the series.

127. 1,2,8,33,148,760,4626
(a) 760
(b) 148
(c) 4626
(d) 2

128. 888, 440, 216, 104, 48, 22, 6
(a) 440
(b) 216
(c) 22
(d) 6

Directions (Q. 129 – Q. 130): Find the one that does not belong to the group.

129. (a) 1:0 (b) 7 : 50 (c) 6 : 35 (d) 3 : 8

130. (a) LO (b) HS (c) DW (d) JR

131. If in a certain code language ‘BETTER’ is written as ‘EHWQBO’, then how will ‘LAWYER’ be written in that language?
(a) ODZVBO
(b) OBZVDO
(c) DOZVBO
(d) OVZOBD

132. If in a certain code language ‘PERFECT’ is written as ‘116’, then how will ‘DIVORCE’ be written in that code ?
(a) 111
(b) 120
(c) 113
(d) 117

133. Which is the largest fraction ?
(a) 3/4
(b) 7/8
(c) 4/5
(d) 7/9

134. How many degrees are there between clock hands at 3.15 ?
(a) 0
(b) 5.5
(c) 7.5
(d) 10

Directions (Q. 135 – Q. 140): Read the following short passages and choose the best answer to the questions that follow each passage.

Modern science is built on the process of posing hypotheses and testing them against observations – in essence, attempting to show that the hypotheses are incorrect. Nothing brings more recognition than overthrowing conventional wisdom. It is accordingly not surprising that some scientists are sceptical of the widely accepted predictions of global warming. What is instead remarkable is that with hundreds of researchers striving to make breakthroughs in climatology, very few find evidence that global warming is unlikely.

135. The information above provides the most support for which one of the following statements?
(a) Most researchers in climatology have substantial motive to find evidence that would discredit the global warming hypothesis.
(b) There is evidence that conclusively shows that the global warming hypothesis is true.
(c) Most scientists who are reluctant to accept the global warming hypothesis are not acting in accordance with the accepted standards of scientific debate.
(d) Research in global warming is primarily driven by a desire for recognition in the scientific community.

136. The indigenous people of Tago are clearly related to the indigenous people of Taminia, but were separated from them when the land bridge between Taminia and Tago disappeared approximately 10,000 years ago. Two thousand years after the disappearance of the land bridge, however, there were major differences between the culture and technology of the indigenous Tagoians and those of the indigenous Taminians. The indigenous Tagoian unlike their Taminian relatives, had no domesticated dogs, fishing nets, polished stone tools, or hunting implements like the boomerang and the spear-thrower.
Each of the following, if true, would contribute to an explanation of differences described above EXCEPT
(a) Although the technological and cultural Innovations were developed in Taminia more than 10,000 years ago, they were developed by groups in Northern Taminia with whom the indigenous Tagoian had no contact prior to the disappearance of the land bridge.
(b) Devices such as the spear-thrower and the boomerang were developed by the indigenous Tagoian more than 10,000 years ago.
(c) After the disappearance of the land bridge the indigenous Tagoian simply abandoned certain practices and technologies that they had originally shared with their Taminian relatives.
(d) Indigenous people of Taminia developed hunting implements like boomerang and the spear-thrower after the disappearance of the land bridge.

137. Arbitrator: The shipping manager admits that he decided to close the old facility on October 14 and to schedule the new facility’s opening for October 17, the following Monday. But he also claims that he is not responsible for the business that was lost due to new facility’s failing to open as scheduled. He blames the contractor for not finishing on time, but he too, is to blame, for he was aware of the contractor’s typical delays and should have planned for this contingency.
Which one of the following principles underlies the arbitrator’s argument ?
(a) A manager should see to it that contractors do their job promptly.
(b) A manager should be held responsible for mistakes by those whom the manager directly supervises.
(c) A manager should take foreseeable problems into account when making decisions.
(d) A manager, and only a manager, should be held responsible for a project’s failure.

138. Anita: Television programs and movies that depict violence among teenagers are extremely popular. Given how influential these media are, we have good reason to believe that these depictions cause young people to engage in violent behaviour. Hence, depictions of violence among teenagers should be prohibited from movies and television programs.
Amrita: But you are recommending nothing short of censorship! Besides which, your claim that television and movie depictions of violence causes violence is mistaken: violence among young people predates movies and television by centuries.
Amrita’s attempted refutation of Anita’s argument is vulnerable to criticism on which one of the following grounds ?
(a) It confuses a subjective judgment of private moral permissibility with an objective description of social fact.
(b) It presupposes that an unpopular policy cannot possibly achieve its intended purpose.
(c) It cite purported historical facts that cannot possibly be verified.
(d) It rules out something as a cause of a current phenomenon solely on the ground that the phenomenon used to occur without that thing.

139. Most people feel that they are being confused by the information from the broadcast news. This could be the effect of the information’s being delivered too quickly or of its being poorly organized. Analysis of the information content of a typical broadcast news story shows that news stories are far lower in information density than the maximum information density with which most people can cope at any one point of time. So, the information in typical broadcast news stories is poorly organised.
Which one of the following is an assumption that the argument requires in order for its conclusion to be properly drawn ?
(a) It is not the number of broadcast news stories to which a person is exposed that is the source of the feeling of confusion.
(b) Poor organisation of information in a news story makes it impossible to understand the information.
(c) Being exposed to more broadcast news stories within a given day would help a person to better understand the news.
(d) Most people can cope with a very high information density.

140. Cafe’s Coffee Emporium stocks only two decaffeinated coffees: English Roast and German Mocha. Ratan only serves decaffeinated coffee, and the coffee he served after dinner last night was far too smooth and mellow to have been English Roast.
So, if Ratan still gets all his coffee from Cafe’s, what he served last night was German Mocha.
The argument above is most similar in its logical structure to which one of the following?
(a) Sunny wants to take three friends to the beach. His mother owns both a sedan and a convertible. The convertible can accommodate four people. Although the sedan has a more powerful engine, if Sunny borrows a vehicle from his mother, he will borrow the convertible.
(b) Ruchi can either take a two-week vacation in July or wait until October and take a three-week vacation. The trail she had planned to hike requires three weeks to complete but is closed by October, so if Ruchi takes a vacation, it will not be the one she had planned.
(c) If Tamanna does not fire her assistant, her staff will rebel and her department’s efficiency will decline. Losing her assistant would also reduce its efficiency, so, if no alternative solution can be found, Tamanna’s department will become less efficient.
(d) Wikro, Inc. has offered Arshit a choice between a job in sales and a job in research. Arshit would like to work at Wikro but he would never take a job in sales when another job is available, so if he accepts one of these jobs, it will be the one in research.

SECTION – E : MATHEMATICS

141. Two cards are drawn together from a pack of 52 cards. The probability that one is a club and one is a diamond, is
(a) 13/102
(b) 46/104
(c) 12/21
(d) 13/200

142. Sanju has two watches with a 12-hour cycle. One of these watches, gains one minute a day and the other loses 1 and 1/2 minutes per day. If Sanju sets both the watches at the correct time, how long will it be before they again show the correct time together?
(a) 482 days
(b) 290 days
(c) 1440 days
(d) 730 days

143. To display 500 Wax Statuettes in a Museum, it is required to construct a big rectangular hall, allowing 22.5 m3 space per statuette. The height of the hall is to be kept at 7.5 m, while the total inner surface area of the walls must be 1,200 sq.m. Then the length and breadth of the hall, respectively, are
(a) 62 m and 22m
(b) 50 m and 30 m
(c) 46 m and 35 m
(d) 40 m and 32 m

144. The ratio between the length and the breadth of a rectangular Jogging Park is 3:2. If Ashish cycling along the boundary of the park at the speed of 12 km/hr completes one round in 8 minutes, then the area of the park (in sq. m) is
(a) 3,07,200 sq. m
(b) 30,720 sq. m
(c) 1,53,600 sq. m
(d) 15,360 sq. m

145. A certain sum of money amounts to Rs. 1,008 in 2 years and to Rs. 1,164 in 3 ½ years. Find the sum and the rate of interest.
(a) Rs.900 and 12 %
(b) Rs. 800 and 12 %
(c) Rs.700 and 13 %
(d) Rs.800 and 13 %

146. Azhar can row 9.333 kmph in still waters and finds that it takes him thrice as much time to row up than as to row down the same distance in the river. The speed of the current of the river is
(a) 3. 333 km/hr
(b) 3.111 km/hr
(c) 4.666 km/hr
(d) 4.5 km/hr

147. A wheel that has 6 cogs is meshed with a larger wheel of 14 cogs. When the smaller wheel has made 21 revolutions, then the number of revolutions made by the larger wheel is
(a) 7
(b) 9
(c) 14
(d) 42

148. In a University, for each Rs.200 spent by the Cultural Committee, Debating Committee spends Rs.20 and for every Rs.400 spent by the Debating Committee, the Student Welfare Committee spends Rs.150. The triple ratio of the money spent by the Cultural Committee to the money spent by the Debating Committee to the money spent by the Student Welfare Committee can be expressed as
(a) 80 : 8 : 3
(b) 60 : 8 : 3
(c) 40 : 4 : 3
(d) 20 : 4 : 3

149. A wooden almirah is sold at a certain price. By selling it at 2/3 of that price one loses 10%. Find the profit per cent at the original price.
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 35%
(d) 45%

150. The ratio between the present ages of Anu and Balbir is 5 : 3, respectively. The ratio between Anu’s age 4 years ago and Balbir’s 4 years hence is 1 :1. What is the ratio between Anu’s age 4 years hence and Balbir’s age 4 years ago ?
(a) 4 :1
(b) 2 : 4
(c) 3 : 2
(d) 3 :1