AILET 2017 Question Paper
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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST (AILET) 2017 Question Paper
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Total Marks: 150
AILET 2017 Question Paper
Section 1 – English and Reading Comprehension
SECTION A : ENGLISH
1. Cashed up, aspirational and a marketer’s dream, the hoi polloi are on the march, writes Bridie Smith.
Choose the antonym of the word hoi polloi.
(a) Middle class
(d) Working class
2. There’s a lot in life that can leave you nonplussed.
Choose the antonym of the word nonplussed.
3. Stay away from the touristy Pioneer Square historic district and most of its cheeseball clubs, at least on nights and weekends,
Choose the meaning of the word cheeseball.
(b) Inferior in quality
4. It was marvellous to see how gingerly, the little beasts footed it in such places.
Choose the synonym of the word gingerly.
5. She’s also an up-and-coming fiction writer with a penchant for the dark and surreal.
Choose the meaning of the word surreal.
Directions (Q. 6 and O. 7) : Match the ideas in (i) and (ii) by using the words in the brackets.
6. l. (even though) II. (with)
III. (seeing that) IV. (even if)
(a) lll-1-c, lV-2-d, ll.3-a, l-4-b
(b) l-2-d, lll-4-b, ll-3-a, lV-1-c
(c) l’1-c, ll-2-d, lll-3-a, lV-4-b
(d) lV-3-a, lll-2-b, ll-4-c, l-1-d
7. I. (due to) II. (in order to)
III. (in order that) IV. (so as to)
(a) l-1 -a,ll-2-b,lll-3-c, lV-4-d
(b) lV-1 -a,lll-2-b,ll-3-c, l-4-d
(c) I-4-a, ll-3-c, lll-2-b, l-1-a
(d) ll-1-c, lV-2-d, l-3-a, lll-4-b
Directions (Q. 8 and Q. 9) : Complete the sentences on the right with appropriate compound nouns related to the two-word verbs used in the sentences on the left.
8. I. flashbacks ll. Telling off
III. hideout IV. Downpour
(a) l-1 -a,ll-2-b,lll-3-c, lV-4-d
(b) ll-1-c, l-2-d, lll-3-a, lv-4-b
(c) ll-1 -c,l-2-d,lV-3-a, lll-4-b
(d) l-4-d, ll-3-c, lll-2-b, lV-1-a
9. l. setbacks ll. Tip-offs
III. passers-by IV. Upbringing
(a) l-4-b, 11-1-c, lll-2-d, IV-3-a
(b) ll-3-c, lll-2-b, IV-1-a, l-4-d
(c) 11-1-c, l-2-d, iV-3-a, lll-4-b
(d) l-3-b, ll-4-c, lll-1-d, IV-2-a
Directions (O. 10 and Q. 12) : Observe the following sentences where same word in different form is used keeping the sense of the sentence same. in the following questions, the sentences have some element of similarity. You have to find out the similarity and choose the option which is odd one out.
(a) Such jokes do not give me any amusement.
Such jokes do not amuse me.
(b) He put up a brave fight.
He fought bravely.
(c) Her failure disappointed her.
She failed and it disappointed her.
(d) The boy gave a prompt answer.
The boy answered promptly.
(a) Getting up he walked away.
He got up and walked away.
(b) Fortunately, nothing has happened.
It was fortunate that nothing has happened.
(c) You must take rest to get well.
You must take some rest otherwise you can’t get well.
(d) He made a promise. He kept it.
He not only made a promise but also kept it.
(a) Mother said to Geeta, “Where are you going ?”
Mother asked Geeta where she was going’
(b) Radhika said, “Can you tell me how to reach there ?” “Yes”, said Ram’
Radhika asked if he could tell her how to reach there. Ram replied that he could.
(c) All could hear the mournful wails of his wife’
The mournful wails of his wife could be heard by all.
(d) she said to her husband, “Did you like my dance yesterday ?”
she asked her husband if he had liked her dance the last day.
Direction (o. 13 and Q. l4) : Choose the sentence which is incorrect grammatically.
(a) Sita is more intelligent and wise than Rita’
(b) The wisest man that ever lived made mistakes’
(c) I doubt if Ravi will come.
(d) The flowers smelt sweet.
(a) I am looking forward to receiving your reply’
(b) Each boy and every girl was given rewards’
(c) L can run as fast, if Rot faster, than you’
(d) I can reproduce this lesson word for word’
Direction (o. 15 – Q. 17) : choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the idiom/Phrase in the question.
(a) In hurried disorder
(b) Gaiety and excitement
(c) Extremely worried
(d) None of these
16. To have one’s heart in one’s boots
(a) To get angry
(b) To be deeply depressed
(c) To be frightened
(d) To keep a secret
17. To give one’s ears
(a) To listen carefully
(b) To act in a foolish way
(c) To make a guess
(d) To make almost any sacrifice
Direction (Q.18 – Q.20) : Rearrange the given six sentences K, L, M, N, O and p in the proper sequence so as to form a meaningful paragraph and then answer the questions that follows.
K. The subjugation or enslavement of the people and countries is fast becoming a thing of the past.
L. Since then the progress in science and technology and in other branches of knowledge has resulted in the betterment of the conditions of life in many countries.
M. The industrial Revolution in England about the middle of the eighteenth century was history’s great leap forward.
N. All this is on credit of modern civilisation.
O. society has been progressing and improving for thousands of years.
P. The span of human life has been enlarged, the condition of the tabouring classes in many countries has improved, knowledge and education have made great strides, the treatment of children has become more humane, feats of engineering have done wonders, democracy and freedom have been granted to most countries of tfre world, and a very much larger percentage of people have become entitled to the good things of life.
18. Which sentence should come fifth in the paragraph ?
19. Which sentence should come first in the paragraph ?
20. Which sentence should come third in the paragraph ?
Direction (Q. 21 – Q. 24) : Find out the sentence/s which is/are written correctly.
a. Charles is a gifted footballer, but up to now he didn’t play well in international matches.
b. We’ve been staying with Paul and Jenny until last weekend.
c. He just heard the news and was rushing home to tell his family.
d. When I grow up I’m going to be an astronaut.
21. (a) a, d (b) c (c) d (d) b, c
a. Have you ever been to the opera when you lived in Milan ?
b. The man who broke the window wants to see you.
c. I won’t be able to meet you next week. I will stay in London for a few days.
d. d. My mother who is in her seventies enjoys hill walking.
22. (a) b, d (b) a, b, c (c) b (d) d
a. Applications have risen this year by as much as 50%.
b. There are a number of reasons I don’t like him, but his meanness is the main.
c. I felt confident to pass my driving test.
d. I haven’t got enough cash on me for paying the bill.
23. (a) a, d (b) b, c (c) d (d) a
a. Although they played well, but they never looked like winning.
b. Despite the snow was still falling heavily, she went out.
c. lf Schumacher were to win today he would become world champion.
d. She got low grades for her exams, therefore she had to retake them to get into
24. (a) b, d (b) c (c) c, d (d) d
Direction (Q.25 – Q.35) : Fill in the blanks with appropriate words.
Under a zero-hour contract, a party described as a casual worker’ has a contract with an employer, but the contract may be of little benefit as its provisions do not (25) any obligation upon the employer to offer work, and similarly, there is no obligation for the worker to accept it. A ‘casual worker is the correct term to define workers who do not have (26) _ hours of work but instead supply services on an irregular, flexible basis when the employer needs them. A’ worker’ is not, therefore, an’ employee’. This is an important distinction, as employees enjoy significantly better protection under the law. Although workers do have basic rights, for example, the right to a national minimum (27) , the right not to be unlawfully discriminated against and the right to sick pay, but they are denied other important rights. For example, casual workers do not have the same rights when it comes to issues such as maternity or paternity pay, (28) pay in the event that there is not enough work available and the right not to be unfairly (29) _. These contracts are very unpopular with trade unions, who argue that employers are using this type of contract as a way of denying workers the benefits which they would otherwise be entitled to under current employment (30) As a result of public criticism, the Eurona government held an independent review to analyse the use of these contracts. In June 2016, Eurona Business Secretary, Zoro, concluded that zero-hour contracts were not to be declared (31) ——, as he considered that many groups of people benefited from them. However, he did change the law in order to prevent employers from banning casual workers from working elsewhere when bound by a zero-hour contract. This is not the encl of the story, however. The use of zero-hour contracts is extremely popular in the food and retail (32) of the Eurona economy. For example, McDonald’s and Burger King have recently disclosed that they use this type of contract for over 80% of their workers in the Eurona and another high-street giant, Sports Direct, has admitted that 90% of its workers are under this type of contract. However, the latter (33) _ a legal challenge in November 2016 when Tera Phera filed a claim against the company in a Eurona Employment Tribunal. Tera Phera claimed that although she was contracted as a casual worker for Sports Direct, she had the same responsibilities and duties as an employee but without receiving the benefits of an employee. A (34) was reached according to which Sports Direct is now required at the time of advertising for future zero-hours staff to expressly state that the role does not (35) work. The company must also produce clear written policies setting out what sick pay and paid holiday their zero-hours staff are entitled to.
25. (a) impose (b) compel (c) force (d) impress
26. (a) fixed (b) secure (c) firm (d) stable
27. (a) salary (b) wage (c) earnings (d) remuneration
28. (a) let go (b) redundancy (c) termination (d) release
29. (a) dismissed (b) discharged (c) terminated (d) laid off
30. (a) statutes (b) codes (c) legislations (d) acts
31. (a) unlawful (b) illegal (c) illegitimate (d) felonious
32. (a) zones (b) regions (c) sectors (d) areas
33. (a) suffered (b) bore (c) endured (d) faced
34. (a) agreement (b) settlement (c) Deal (d) Decision
35. (a) provide (b) entitle (c) guarantee (d) offer
SECTION B: GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
36. Which country recently decided to quit commonwealth group ?
37. The official mascot of the 2o1B FIFA World cup is ____who wears ____ .
(a) Zabivaka, glasses
(b) Willie, glasses
(c) Zaumi, Russia’s kit
(d) Zabivaka, flag of Russia
38. In India, three women had held the post of Deputy Governor of RBI Which of the following is not amongst them ?
(a) K.J. Udeshi
(b) Usha Thorat
(c) Dr. lsher J. Ahluwalia
(d) Shyamala Gopinath
39. ______ World’s largest refugee camp, which was in news recently, is located in ____.
(a) Dadaab, Kenya
(b) Zaalari, Syria
(c) Yida, Sudan
(d) Katumba, Tanzania
40. “Greenmail” is a type of
(a) Currency Manipulation
(b) Takeover Defence
(c) Corporate Communication
(d) Eco- friendly device
41. Which of the following labels are not owned by Yum Brands ?
(b) Pizza Hut
(c) Burger King
(d) Taco Bell
42. ____ has become the first bank in India to introduce software robotics in power banking.
(d) Yes Bank
43. _____ is not a component of the Li Keqiang Index.
(a) Bank Loans
(c) Electricity Consumption
(d) Railway freight
44. Train travel insurance in India is available at a premium of ____ with effect from October7,2016.
(a) 1 rupee
(b) 2 rupees
(c) 92 paisa
(d) 1 Paisa
45. Which of the following banks overtook Wells Fargo as the most valuable bank in USA ?
(a) J.S. Morgan Chase
(d) Bank of America
46. Nobel Prize in Economics for 2016 has been given to Oliver Hart and Bengt Holmstrom for their contribution to
(a) Contract Theory
(b) Imperfect Competition
(c) Game theory
(d) Limitations on state intervention in market economy
47. Why a small pouch containing silica gel is often found in bottles of medicine in tablet or powder form ?
(a) It kills bacteria
(b) It kills germs and spores
(c) It absorbs moisture
(d) It acts as a preservative
48. The Union Government has decided to withdraw the benefit of subsidised LPG to the customers having income above
(a) Rs. 7.5 lakh
(b) Rs. 10 lakh
(c) Rs. 12.5 lakh
(d) Rs. 15 lakh
49. What is beaufort Scale ?
(a) Scale to measure wind speed
(b) Scale to measure ocean waves
(c) Scale to measure sound waves
(d) Scale to measure depth
50. Navtej Sarna who is recently appointed as an Ambassador of _____ was Ambassador of e____ arlier.
(a) Canada, Israel
(b) USA, Israel
(c) USA, Canada
(d) USA, France
51. What is the primary objective of the Governments in opting for deliberate devaluation of currency ?
(a) Boosts import
(b) Boosts Internal Trade
(c) Boosts exports
(d) Increase gold reserves
52. ______ for States and _____for Union Territories is the new limit of flexible fund decided by the government in the Centrally Sponsored Schemes in order to give more freedom of operation in these schemes.
(a) 25%, 30%
(b) 20%, 30%
(d) 50%, 20%
53. Which of the following banks recently designated P. V. Sindhu and K. Srikanth as brand ambassadors ?
(a) Canara Bank
(d) Bank of Baroda
54. Which of the following are optical illusions ?
(a) Twinkle of stars in the sky
(d) All of these
55. Which of the following are Nocturnal in nature ?
(b) Red Panda
(d) All of these
56. ____ is the World’s lightest material developed by ISRO scientists.
(a) Silica Aerogel
(b) Carbon Aerogel
(c) Graphite Aerogel
57. Wi -Fi uses ____ in order to transmit data whereas Li – Fi uses_____ in order to transmit data.
(a) radio waves, laser
(b) radio waves, visible light
(c) electromagnetic waves, laser
(d) infrared rays, radio waves
58. _____ is used for constructing filament of the World s thinnest light bulb ?
59. Which of the following companies has hired World’s first robot lawyer ROSS to assist its various teams in legal research ?
(a) Davis Polk and Wardwell
(b) Cravath, Swaine and Moore
(c) Baker Hostetler
(d) Latham and Watkins
60. ____ has invited India to join in developing next-generation nuclear reactors and also to participate in its fast reactor research project known as MBIR.
61. The scientists from ______ have developed a catalyst to render the drinking water E. Coli free.
(a) Indian Institute of Science Education and Research
(b) Tata Institute of Fundamental Research
(c) National Chemical Laboratory
(d) Indian Institute of Sciences
62. India has launched its latest communication satellite GSAT – 18 from
(b) French Guiana
63. In which country the World’s first baby was born from a new procedure that combines the DNA of three people ?
64. International Day of Happiness is observed on _____ and ______ is adjudged as the happiest country in the World in World Happiness Report 2017 released by UN.
(a) February 20, Denmark
(b) March 20, Norway
(c) February 21, Norway
(d) March 21, India
65. Which of the following seas of Antarctica has been declared as world’s largest marine protected area ?
(a) Amundsen Sea
(b) Bellingshausen Sea
(c) Weddell Sea
(d) Ross Sea
66. Ms._____ from ______ has been crowned Miss International 2016.
(a) Kylie Verzosa, Venezuela
(b) Kylie Verzosa, Philippines
(c) Edymar Martinez, Venezuela
(d) Edymar Martinez, Australia
67. _____ has developed the concept of Human Development Index in .
(a) Mehboob-ul-Haq, 1990
(b) Avinash Dixit, 1999
(c) Jagdish Bhagwati, 1980
(d) AmartyaSen, 1970
68. The position of the Earth in its orbit, when it is at its greatest distance from the Sun causing summer in the Northern Hemisphere is
69. India won _____ medals in 2017 Special Olympics World Winter Games held in Austria.
70. Recently a huge Dead Zone is discovered in
(a) Gulf of Mexico
(b) Bay of Bengal
(c) Coasts of Namibia
(d) Baltic Sea
SECTION – C : LEGAL APTITUDE
Directions (Q. 71 – Q. 79): Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
Legal Principle: Contract is an agreement freely entered into between the parties. But when consent to an agreement is obtained by undue influence, the contract is voidable at the option of the party whose consent was so obtained.
Factual Situation: The Pragya had been worked for a business man Anurag since the age of 18, working for a range of Anurag’s businesses. In 2000, (aged 21) Pragya urchased a flat. In 2005, Mr. Anurag’s business was facing financial difficulties, and he asked Pragya to offer up her flat as financial security against an overdraft facility for the business. In July of that year, the banks solicitors wrote to Pragya, advising that she should take independent Legal advice before putting her property up as a security for the debt. The bank also notified Praqya that the guarantee was unlimited in both time and financial amount. Having discussed the arrangement with Anurag, Pragya was unaware of the extent of the borrowinq but was assured that her mortgage would not be called upon, and that his own properties which were also used as security would be looked at first. A charge was executed over the Pragya’s property in August 2005. In 2009, Mr Anurag s business went into liquidation and the bank formally demanded Rs. 60,24,912 from Pragya Pragya raised the defence of undue influence – stating that Mr. Anurag had induced her to enter into the aqreement, and the bank had full knowledge/notice of this undue influence which should set aside the banks right to enforce the debt recovery against Pragya. Bank is contending that there is no undue influence.
71. Whether the consent to offer the flat as financial security obtained through undue influence ?
(a) No because Pragya was not forced by Anurag to offer her flat as a security.
(b) No, because Pragya was an educated and adult employee of Anurag and she knew what she was doing.
(c) Yes an employer/employee relationship was capable of developing into such a relationship for undue influence. There was no benefit to Pragya in the agreement. The lack of benefit to one party was evidence enough.
(d) No, an employer/employee relationship is not capable of developing into a relationship for undue influence.
72. Irrespective of your answer to Q. 71, assume it is a case of undue influence. Decide whether the bank has done enough to allay concerns of undue influence .
(a) The bank had not made all reasonable steps to allay themselves of the concerns regarding undue influence. The fact that, on advice from the bank, the defendant did not seek independent advice, should have been taken as confirmation of undue influence. .
(b) Yes, the Bank has advised Pragya that she should take independent legal advice before putting her property up as security for the debt.
(c) Pragya has a duty to be aware of the consequences of her act.
(d) Bank has done enough as it had notified Pragya that the guarantee was unlimited in both time and financial amount.
73. Legal Principle: The acceptance must be absolute and unqualified, leaving no ground for doubt or uncertainty. If the acceptance is conditional, no valid contract is formed, and the offer can be withdrawn at any moment till the absolute acceptance has taken place within reasonable time of such offer.
Factual Situation: Delhi Government conducted an auction for the sale of license of wine shop. X offered the highest bid which was provisionally accepted “…subject to the confirmation of Chief Commissioner who may reject any bid without assigning any reasons.” Since X failed to deposit the required amount, Chief Commissioner rejected the bid. The government held X liable for the difference between the bid offered by him and the highest bid accepted in re-auction, and commenced proceedings for the recovery of the sum. It was contended on behalf of the government of Delhi that X was under a legal obligation to pay the difference as it was due to his default that a resale of the excise shop was ordered and hence X was liable for the deficiency in price and all expenses of such resale which was caused by his default.
Decide, giving reason, whether X is liable to make payment to the Delhi Government.
(a) No, X is not liable to make payment as the shop was sold to the highest bidder.
(b) X is liable to pay because the Government of Delhi has to conduct re-auction and also suffered loss in the sale of the shop.
(c) X is liable because his bid was accepted but he failed to deposit the required amount on time.
(d) No, contract for sale was not complete till the bid was confirmed by the Chief Commissioner and till such confirmation ; the bidder was entitled to withdraw the bid.
74. Legal Principle: Employers/Principles are vicariously liable, under the respondeat superior doctrine, for negligent acts or omissions by their employees/agents in the course of employment/agency. A servant/agent may be defined as any person employed by another to do work for him on the terms that he, the servant/agent, is to be subject to the control and directions of his employer/principal in respect of the manner in which his work is to be done.
Factual Situation: A motor car was owned by and registered and insured in the name of A (wife) but was regarded by her and her husband (B) as “our car.” B used it to go to work, and A for shopping at the weekends. B told A that if ever he was drunk and unfit to drive through, he would get a sober friend to drive him or else telephone her to come and fetch him. On the day in question the husband telephoned the wife after work and told her that he was going out with friends. He visited a number of public houses and had drinks. At some stage, he realised that he was unable to drive safely and asked a friend, C, to drive. C drove them to other public houses. After the last had been visited C offered the three friends (X, Y and Z) a lift and they got in, together with B who was in a soporific condition. C then proceeded, at his own suggestion, to drive in a direction away from the B’s home to have a meal. On the way, due to C’s negligent driving, an accident occurred in which both B and C were killed and the other friends got injured. X, Y and Z brought an action against the wife both in her personal capacity and as administratrix of the husband’s estate. Decide whether A is liable.
(a) Yes, she was vicariously liable for the negligent driving of C as the principle of vicarious liability was to put responsibility on to the person, namely, in the case of a motor car, the owner, who ought in justice to bear it, and that in the case of a “family car” the owner was responsible for the use of it by the other spouse.
(b) No, C had not been the wife’s agent in driving the husband about as he had been doing at the time of the accident. To fix vicarious liability on the owner of a motor car in a case such as the present, it must be shown that the driver was using it for the owner’s purposes under delegation of a task or duty.
(c) No, because this is a case of volenti non fit injuria as X, Y and Z voluntarily took the lift knowing that C was also drunk.
(d) No, because C was not employed by A to drive her husband back to the home on the day of accident.
75. Legal Principle:
1. Battery is the intentional causation of harmful or offensive contact with another’s person without that person’s consent.
2. When lawfully exercising power of arrest or some other statutory power a police officer had greater rights than an ordinary citizen to restrain another.
Factual Situation: Two police officers on duty in a police car observed two women in the street who appeared to be soliciting for the purpose of prostitution. One of the women was known to the police as a prostitute but the other, X, was not a known prostitute. When the police officers requested X to get into the car for questioning she refused to do so and instead walked away from the car. One of the officers, a policewoman, got out of the car and followed X in order to question her regarding her identity and conduct and to caution her, if she was suspected of being a prostitute, in accordance with the approved police procedure for administering cautions for suspicious behaviour before charging a woman with being a prostitute. X refused to speak to the policewoman and walked away, whereupon the policewoman took hold of X’s arm to detain her. X then swore at the policewoman and scratched the officer’s arm with her fingernails. X was convicted of assaulting a police officer in the execution of her duty. She appealed against the conviction, contending that when the assault occurred the officer was not exercising her power of arrest and was acting beyond the scope of her duty in detaining X by taking hold of her arm. The police contended that the officer was acting in the execution of her duty when the assault occurred because the officer had good cause to detain X for the purpose of questioning her to see whether a caution for suspicious behaviour should be administered. Decide whether the police officer is liable for battery.
(a) X is liable for trespass on the person of a police officer while performing her official duty.
(b) The policewoman had not been exercising her power of arrest when she detained X, and since in taking hold of the appellant’s arm to detain her the policewoman’s conduct went beyond acceptable lawful physical contact between two citizens, hence the officer’s act constituted a battery on X and that she had not been acting in the execution of her duty when the assault occurred.
(c) The fact that the reason the police officer detained X was to caution her regarding her suspicious behaviour render the officer’s conduct lawful if in detaining her she used a degree of physical contact that went beyond lawful physical contact as between two ordinary citizens.
(d) The police officer was on duty and performing her duty in the regular course of the work so is not liable for battery.
76. Legal Principle:
1. A careless person becomes liable for his negligence when he owed a duty of care to others.
2. Volenti non fit injura is defence to negligence.
Factual Situation: K was a friend of L and was teaching her to drive. Prior to such an arrangement K had sought assurances from L that appropriate insurance had been purchased in the event of accident. On the third day, L was executing a simple manoeuvre at slow speed when she panicked which resulted in the car crashing into a lamp-post injuring K. L was subsequently convicted of driving without due care and attention. L denied liability to pay compensation to K on the ground of volenti non fit injuria and also that she was just learning to drive and was not in complete control of the vehicle. Decide.
(a) L is liable as the defence of volenti non fit injura was not applicable. Secondly, that the duty of care owed by a learner driver to the public (including passengers) was to be measured against the same standard that would be applied to any other driver.
(b) L is not liable as K voluntarily accompanied her.
(c) L is not liable as she is just learning to drive and duty of care rests upon the instructor.
(d) L is not liable as a learner driver do not owe a duty of care towards public in general and towards the passenger in specific.
77. Legal Principle: Article 19(1) (d) of the Constitution of India guarantees to all citizens the right to move freely throughout the territory of India. But at the same time, Article 19(5) empowers the State to impose reasonable restrictions on the freedom of movement on the ground of interest of general public.
Factual Situation: Wearing of helmet is made compulsory for all two-wheeler riders by a law enacted by the State. The constitutionality of the law is questioned before the High Court on the ground that it violates Article 19(1 )(d) of the petitioner. Will the petitioner succeed ?
(a) Yes, because the restriction is not reasonable and no interest of general public is protected by this law.
(b) No, because the restriction is reasonable as it intends to protect interest of general public by preventing loss of lives of citizen of India.
(c) Yes, because freedom of movement is a fundamental right of every citizen of India and the State cannot take it away by way of legislation but has to amend the Constitution to take away the fundamental rights.
(d) No, because the freedom of movement will not be violated by the impugned legislation.
78. Legal Principle : An unlawful interference with a person’s use or enjoyment of land or some right over or in connection with it is a nuisance in tort. The fact that the plaintiff “came to the nuisance” by knowingly acquiring property in the vicinity of the defendant’s premises is not a defence to nuisance. However, an act cannot be a nuisance if it is imperatively demanded by public convenience. Thus, when the public welfare requires it, a nuisance may be permitted for special purposes.
Factual Situation : D owned and occupied an estate about two miles from RAF Wittering, an operational and training base for Harrier Jump Jets. D claimed that they suffered severe noise disturbance every time the Harrier pilots carried out training circuits: an average of 70 times a day. D alleged that the noise nuisance constituted a very serious interference with their enjoyment of their land. D instituted judicial proceedings against the defendants, the Ministry of Defence (MoD), damages amounting to Rs. 1,00,00,000. The MoD denied liability and raised defence that the Harrier training was undertaken for the public benefit and that they had prescriptive right over the land as D had bought their property at a time when RAF Wittering was already established so he cannot claim compensation as he already knew about existence of RAF Wittering near his property.
(a) D is not entitled to compensation as the training of pilots is a public welfare activity.
(b) The Harrier training is not an ordinary use of land and that although there was a public benefit to the continued training of Harrier pilots, D should not be required to bear the cost of the public benefit.
(c) D is not entitled to compensation as his property is two miles away from the training base.
(d) D will not get compensation as the training activity does not amount to nuisance and D had full knowledge about the training activities when he purchased the land.
79. Legal Principle:
1. Negligence is the absence of care on the part of one party which results in some damage to the other party.
2. Generally, a person is under no duty to control another to prevent his doing damage to a third party.
3. The foreseeability test basically asks whether the person causing the injury should have reasonably foreseen the general consequences that would result because of his or her conduct.
4. Statutory authority implies that an act is done by a person to fulfil his duty imposed by the State. Statutory authority is a valid defence under the law of torts.
Factual Situation: Ten borstal trainees were working on an island in a harbour in the custody and under the control of three officers. During the night, seven of them escaped. It was claimed that at the time of the escape the officers had retired to bed. The seven got on board a yacht, moored off the island and set it in motion. They collided with another yacht, the property of X and damaged it. X sued the Home office for the amount of the damage. Decide whether on the facts pleaded in the statement of claim the Home Office, its servants or agents owed any duty of care to X capable of giving rise to a liability in damages with respect to the detention of persons undergoing sentences of borstal training or with respect to the manner in.
which such persons were treated, employed, disciplined, controlled or supervised whilst undergoing such sentences.
(a) The Home office is not liable as they are performing statutory duty and has immunity from liability in negligence.
(b) The trainees are liable and not the Home Officers as the injury to X’s property could not be reasonably foreseen by the officers.
(c) The fact that the immediate damage to the property of X was caused by the acts of third persons, the trainees, prevent the existence of a duty on the part of the officers towards X.
(d) The taking by the trainees of the nearby yacht and the causing of damage to the other yacht which belonged to X ought to have been foreseen by the borstal officers as likely to occur if they failed to exercise proper control or supervision; in the particular circumstances, the officers prima facie owed a duty of care to X.
Directions (Q. 80 – Q. 86): The following questions consist of two statements, one labelled as ‘Assertion’ and the other as ‘Reason’. Read both the statements carefully and answer using the codes given below.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the true explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
80. Assertion (A): The framers of the Indian Constitution were keen to preserve the democratic values to which Indians had attached the highest importance in their struggle for freedom.
Reason (R): The Constitution describes India as a Union of States, thereby implying the indestructible nature of its unity.
81. Assertion (A) : The “basic features” of the Constitution cannot be amended by exercising the power of Amendment under Article 368.
Reason (R) : Though Fundamental Rights, as such are not immune from Amendment en bloc, particular Rights or Parts thereof may be held as “basic feature.”
82. Assertion (A) : Legislations which gives a wide power to the executive to select cases for special treatment, without indicating the policy, may be set aside as violative of equality.
Reason (R): Article 14 of the Constitution provides that the State shall not deny to any person equality before law or equal protection of laws within the territory of India.
83. Assertion (A) : If the Constitution is flexible it may be playing at the whims and caprices of the ruling party.
Reason (R): The framers of the Indian Constitution were keen to avoid excessive rigidity.
84. Assertion (A): A person suffering from AIDS can be restricted in his movements by law.
Reason (R): Where policy is laid down, discretion is not of reasonableness.
85. Assertion (A) : If a convict is prepared to give an interview to journalists and video- graphers, the facility should be allowed to the latter.
Reason (R) : Position of a person sentenced to death is not inferior to that of a citizen.
86. Assertion (A): A files a false and frivolous civil suit against B and B wins the case, he cannot file another civil suit for damages and costs.
Reason (R): In a civil suit, damage of reputation is absent because the action is tried in public and if person wins his case then his reputation will be re-established.
87. A minority community may reserve up to_______ seats for members of its own community in an educational institution established and administered by it even if the institution receives aid from the State.
88. After Delhi and Goa, which is the third Indian State to have child – friendly court ?
(a) West Bengal
(d) Tamil Nadu
89. Which of the following statements are true regarding the Constitution (One Hundred and First Amendment) Act, 2016 ?
I. GST Act is a comprehensive direct tax on manufacture, sale and consumption of goods and services throughout India.
II. The Act will transform India into a common market, harmonising myriads of State and Central levies into a national goods and services tax which is expected to boost manufacturing and reduce corruption.
III. It provides for Constitution of a Goods and Services Tax Council by inserting Article 297A in the Constitution.
IV. GST will be based on input tax credit method.
(a) I, II and III
(b) II, III and IV
(c) I, II and IV
(d) All of the above
90. Central Vigilance Commissioner shall hold office for a term of ______years from the date on which he enters upon his office.
91. In Youth Bar Association V. Union of India, the Supreme Court directed to upload copies of FIR within______ hours on police website.
(d) 48 – 72
92. India’s first court-annexed mediation centre was established in
(b) Tamil Nadu
93. Which is the first country to allow voting through mobile phones ?
94. All students graduating from academic year______ onwards need to clear the All India Bar Examination in order to practice law in India.
(b) 2009- 10
(c) 2008 – 09
95. “The people have a right, an inalienable, indisputable, indefeasible, divine right to that most dreaded and envied kind of knowledge – I mean, of the character and conduct of their rulers.” Who said this ?
(a) Abraham Lincoln
(b) John Adams
(c) Martin Luther
(d) Mahatma Gandhi
96. John Doe order in India is known as
(a) Ashok Kumar Order
(b) DMCA Order
(c) Take Down Order
97. In 2016, the Supreme Court has clarified that the “Third Gender” will include(s)
(b) Gays and Lesbians
(d) All of these
98. New Zealand Government has granted legal status of a person to a ____ after a legal battle of 140 years.
(a) National Park
99. Which of the following Articles of the Constitution of India authorize the Chief Justice of India to request a retired Judge to join the Supreme Court ?
100. The ‘Public Trust’ the doctrine is related to
(a) Charitable Institution
(d) Public Offices
101. The Delhi High Court has asked Facebook to ban children below______ years of age from creating an account.
102. Which one of the following decided to set up a website, which will compare the World’s Constitutions by themes online “to arm drafters with a better tool for Constitution design and writing” ?
103. Mental Health Care Bill 2016 seeks to
1. Decriminalise suicide
2. Prohibit electro-convulsive therapy
3. Provide right to make Advance Directives
4. Provide for seclusion and solitary confinement in few cases
(a) 1,2 and 4
(b) 2, 3 and 4
(c) 1,2 and 3
(d) All of the above
104. What is the new minimum wage of non-agricultural, unskilled workers of the Central Government as announced by the Union Government on August 30, 2016 ?
(a) Rs. 350 per day
(b) Rs. 250 per day
(c) Rs. 246 per day
(d) Rs. 400 per day
105. Maternity Benefits (Amendment) Bill, 2016 provides ______ weeks of full paid maternity leave to women who work in organised sector.
SECTION – D : REASONING
Directions (Q. 106 – Q. 108): Read the following case and answer the questions.
Sakshi is the Vice-President in an electrical equipment company in Delhi. One day, her subordinate Bhaskar requested that Kishen, a project manager, be transferred to the Mumbai office from the Delhi office. In Mumbai, Kishen would work alone as a researcher. Bhaskar gave the following reasons for his request “Kishen is known for fighting frequently with colleagues of his team. He cannot accept criticism and feels rejected and get hostile. He is overbearing and is generally a bad influence on the team.”
Sakshi called upon Samir, another project manager and sought further information on Kishen. Samir recalled that a former colleague, Lalit (who was also Kishen’s former boss) has made few remarks on Kishen in his appraisal report. In his opinion, Kishen was not fit for further promotion as he was emotionally unstable to work in groups in spite of the fact that he had seven years of work experience. Lalit has described Kishen as too authoritative to work under anyone. Lalit has further told Samir that Kishen had an ailing wife and an old mother, who does not want to stay with his wife. Consider the following solutions to the problem mentioned above
I. Sakshi should transfer Kishen to Mumbai office.
II. Sakshi should try and verify the facts from other sources as well.
III. Kishen should be sacked.
IV. Kishen should be demoted.
V. Sakshi should suggest Kishen to visit a family counsellor.
106. Which of the following would be the most appropriate sequence of decisions in terms of immediacy starting from immediate to a long term solution ?
(a) II, V, I
(b) II, III, IV
(c) II, V, IV
(d) II, I, V
107. Sakshi sought an appointment with Lalit to find out ways to help Kishen. Lalit is of the view that the company’s responsibility is restricted to the workplace and it should not try to address the personal problems of employees. If Sakshi has to agree to Lalit’s view, which of the solutions presented in the previous question would be weakened ?
(a) Only III
(b) Only IV
(c) Only V
(d) Only II
108. Which of the following statements, if true would weaken the decision to sack Kishen the most ?
(a) Another article published in the magazine, Caventers Quaterly , highlighted that employee’s problem at home affect their performance at work.
(b) In the latest issue of a reputed Journal, Xanders Business Review, it was published that most top managers, find it difficult to work in a group.
(c) It was published in Santers Management Review, another reputed Journal that individuals who cannot work in teams find it difficult to adjust to a new location.
(d) Bhaskar was of the opinion that emotionally unstable persons, find it difficult to get back to normal working life.
Directions (Q. 109 – Q. 113): Read the following information carefully and answer the questions.
A word arrangement machine, when given an input line of words, rearranges them following a particular rule in each step. The following is the illustration of the input and the steps of arrangement.
Input – Diksha cannot but feel happy for him
Step I: but cannot Diksha happy feel him for
Step II: cannot but feel happy Diksha for him
Step III: but cannot happy feel him for Diksha
Step IV : happy cannot but him feel Diksha for
and so on for subsequent steps. You have to find out the logic and answer the questions given below.
109. If Step V read “weeks of tepid slothful and weak ideas”, then what would be Step IV read ?
(a) ideas and tepid weeks of weak slothful
(b) of weeks and slothful tepid ideas weak
(c) ideas weeks and tepid of weak slothful
(d) none of these
110. If Step I read “it was the name bestowed upon him”, then what would be the arrangement for Step VII ?
(a) it was him the name bestowed upon
(b) upon the him was it bestowed name
(c) bestowed it was the name upon him
(d) none of these
111. If Step VI reads “workers must take a stand against working”, then what will be the last word of Step III ?
(d) none of these
112. If Step III reads “the best way of promoting our sports”, then what will be the arrangement of the input ?
(a) best the sports way of our promoting
(b) our promoting the best sports way of
(c) sports best the of way our promoting
(d) of our best the way sports promoting
113. If the given input is “it is good approach with care”, then what will be Step IV ?
(a) care with a good approach is it
(b) approach is a care good it with
(c) a good approach it is with care
(d) with approach it is a good care
Direction (Q. 114 – Q. 118) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
Nine players – G, H, I, J, K, L, M, N and O – have to be put in three teams. Each team will consist of three players and each player will appear only once in a team. The teams must be arranged according to the following conditions,
i. I and N must be in the same team.
ii. K and L must be in the same team.
iii. O and J cannot be in the same team.
iv. M must be in the second team.
v. Either J or M or both must be in the team with H.
114. Which of the following cannot be true ?
(a) M is in 1st team and H is in the 3rd
(b) O is in 3rd team
(c) I is in 2nd team
(d) H is in the 3rd team
115. All of the following could be in the same team as K, except
116. If J and K are in the 3rd team, which of the following players must be in 2nd ?
117. Which of the following players could be in a team together ?
(a) K, I, M
(b) N, I, J
(c) G, J, M
118. The 3rd team could consist of the following except
(a) G, H, J
(b) K, L, J
(c) K, L, O
(d) G, I, J
Direction (Q. 119 – Q. 122) : Read the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.
A couple decided to organize a party and invited a few of their friends. Only the host and hostess were sitting at the opposite ends of a rectangular table with three persons on each side. The pre-requisite of the sitting arrangement was that each person must be seated so that at least on one side he/she has a person of the opposite sex. Romeo is opposite to Sonakshi, who is not the hostess. Ruchir has a woman on his right and is sitting opposite to a woman. Jia is sitting to the hostess’s right, next to Vikram. One person is seated between Mahima and Rajni, who is not the hostess. The men were Romeo, Ruchir, Vikram and Rajnikant while the women were Mahima, Rajni, Sonakshi and Jia.
119. The eighth person present, Rajnikant must be
I. The host
II. Seated to Sonakshi’s right
III. Seated opposite to Rajni
(a) Only III
(b) I and II
(c) Only I
(d) Only II
120. If each person is placed directly opposite to his/her spouse, which of the following pairs must be married ?
(a) Ruchir and Mahima
(b) Rajni and Rajnikant
(c) Mahima and Vikram
(d) Ruchir and Jia
121. Which of the following persons is definitely not seated next to a person of same sex ?
122. If Ruchir would have exchanged his seat with a person sitting four places to his left, which of the following would have been true after the exchange ?
I. No person of the opposite sex was seated between two persons of same sex
II. One side of the table consisted entirely of persons of the same sex
III. Either the host or the hostess changed their seats
(a) Only I
(b) Only II
(c) I and II
(d) II and III
123. Starting from a point M, Rohit walked 18 m towards South. He turned to his left and walked 25 m. He then turned to his left and walked 25 m. Then he turned to his left and walked 18 m. He again turned to his left and walked 35 m and reached a point P. What is the direction of P in respect of M ?
124. Rashmi starts walking towards North. After walking 15 m she turns towards South. After walking 20 m, she turns towards East and walks 10 m. She then turns towards North and walks 5 m. How far is she from her original position and in which direction ?
(a) 10 m, East
(b) 10 m, West
(c) 10 m, North
(d) 10 m, South
125. Suraj reached the coffee shop 20 minutes before 8 :50 h, and he came 30 minutes before Suman who reached 40 minutes late. What was the scheduled time of meeting ?
(a) 8 : 05 h
(b) 8 : 20 h
(c) 8 : 09 h
(d) 8 : 10 h
126. A bus for New Delhi leaves every two and half hour from Kashipur Bus Stand. An announcement was made at the bus stand that the bus for New Delhi has left 40 minutes ago and the next bus will leave at 18 h. At what time the announcement was made ?
(a) 16 : 10 h
(b) 16 : 15 h
(c) 17 : 05 h
127. If Kriti says, “Amrita’s father Amar is the only son of my father-in-law, Arjun.” Then how is Babita, who is the sister of Amrita, related to Arjun ?
128. Marc is Robin’s mother’s father. Marc has three brothers. One of them has a grandson Anurag. Krish is the son of Anurag. Krish is related to Robin as
129. ‘A + B’ means A is the father of B, ‘A – B’ means that A is the wife of B, ‘A x B’ means that A is the brother of B and ‘A -f B’ means that A is the daughter of B. If ‘S -f T x U + Z’, which of the following is true ?
(a) S is the daughter of U
(b) Z is the aunt of S
(c) S is the aunt of Z
(d) S and Z are cousins
Direction (Q. 130 and Q. 131): Select the odd one out.
Direction (Q. 132 and Q. 133): Find out the wrong number.
132. 5, 7.5,11.25, 17.5, 29.75, 50, 91.25
Direction (Q. 134 and Q. 135): Find out the missing number/words.
134. ST39, UV43, WX47, ?
135. 13(168) 13,14(181) 13,15(7) 13
Directions (Q. 136 – Q. 140): Read the following short passages and choose the best answers to the questions that follow each passage.
136. Columnist: Senators who are not firmly committed to a core set of beliefs will formulate new campaign strategies and moot points before each upcoming election. Senators are elected to serve multiple terms in office only if they formulate new campaign strategies and moot points before each upcoming election. Therefore, senators who are not firmly committed to a core set of beliefs are elected to serve multiple terms in office.
Which one of the following displays a flawed pattern of reasoning most closely parallel to that in the columnist’s argument ?
(a) Nuclear proliferation will accelerate only if there is widespread access to fissile material. Widespread access to fissile material goes hand in glove with increased regional instability. Therefore, nuclear proliferation will not accelerate unless there is an increase in regional instability.
(b) If health care costs continue to rise, foreign currency markets will devalue the Euro. But health care costs will not continue to rise. Therefore, foreign currency markets will not devalue the Euro.
(c) A loyal person is a likeable person, for a loyal person always stands by her friends and a likeable person also always stands by her friends.
(d) A well-constructed house includes code-compliant framing, wiring, and insulation. A house is marketable only if it is well-constructed. Therefore, a marketable house includes code-compliant framing, wiring, and insulation.
137. Cuisine from the north of China is one of the most popular kinds of food in India. But this is not the case for Southern Chinese cuisine. In fact, in a recent survey, Southern Chinese cuisine was voted one of the least popular styles of cooking in the country.
Which one of the following, if true, most helps to resolve the apparent paradox described above ?
(a) Southern Chinese cuisine frequently incorporates obscure ingredients that are difficult to locate, while the ingredients necessary to prepare Northern Chinese cuisine are easily found in most Indian grocery stores.
(b) Immigrants from all parts of China brought their local cuisines with them when they came to India in great numbers in the seventeenth and eighteenth centuries.
(c) Northern Chinese cuisine has recently become more popular in India than the Italian cuisine, which for many years was this country’s favourite international food.
(d) Northern Chinese cuisine is more time consuming and labour intensive to prepare than Southern Chinese cuisine.
138. A growing number of ecologists have begun to recommend lifting the ban on the hunting of leopards, which are not an endangered species, and on the international trade of leopard’s skin. Why, then, do I continue to support the protection of leopards ?
For the same reason, that I oppose the hunting of people. Admittedly, there are far too many human beings on this planet to qualify us for inclusion on the list of endangered species. Still, I doubt the same ecologists endorsing the resumption of leopard hunting would use that fact to recommend the hunting of human beings.
Which one of the following, if true, would most weaken the author’s argument ?
(a) Human being might, in fact, be placed on the list of endangered species.
(b) Despite the growing number of ecologists supporting a repeal of the ban on leopard hunting, most will still support it.
(c) The international ban on leopard hunting was instituted before leopards became an endangered species.
(d) Leopards, now dangerously overpopulated, cannot be supported by their ecosystems.
139. Experts musicologists believe that Beethoven wrote his last piano sonata in 1824, three years before his death. However, the manuscript of a piano sonata was recently discovered that bears Beethoven’s name and dates from 1825. Clearly, the experts are mistaken because not every piece that Beethoven wrote was catalogued in his lifetime, and it is known that Beethoven continued to compose until just weeks before his death.
The reasoning in the argument is most vulnerable to which of the following criticisms ?
(a) That either of two things could have occurred independently is taken to show that those two things could not have occurred simultaneously.
(b) An inconsistency that, as presented, has more than one possible resolution is treated as though only one resolution is possible.
(c) Establishing that a certain event occurred is confused with having established the cause of that event.
(d) A claim that has a very general application is based entirely on evidence from a narrowly restricted range of cases.
140. Some people fear that our first extra-terrestrial visitors will not be the friendly aliens envisaged in popular science fiction movies, but rather hostile invaders bent on global domination. This fear is groundless. Any alien civilisation that makes it to our planet must have acquired the wisdom to control war, or it would have destroyed itself long before contacting us.
The author bases the argument above on which of the following assumptions ?
(a) Our planet will have contact with extra-terrestrial visitors at some time in the future.
(b) Interstellar travel is unworkable except in a society much more technologically advanced than ours.
(c) A civilisation that has learned to control war on its own planet will not wage war on another.
(d) Alien civilisations are more morally advanced than those on Earth.
SECTION – E : MATHEMATICS
141. A garden is rectangular in shape. A sum of Rs. 1,000 was spent to make > the Hand usable at the rate of 25 paisa per m2. The breadth of the garden is 50 m. If the length of the garden is increased by 20 m, what will be the expenditure in rupees for making the land usable, at the same rate per m2 ?
(a) Rs. 1,250
(b) Rs. 1,220
(c) Rs. 1,400
(d) Rs. 2,250
142. The sum of ages of a mother and daughter is 45 years. Five years ago, the product of their ages was four times the mother’s age at that time. The present age of the mother is
(a) 38 years
(b) 37 years
(c) 36 years
(d) 39 years
143. Today is Monday in a leap year. The day after 68 days will be
144. A streamer goes downstream from one port to another in 4 hours. It covers the same distance upstream in 5 hours. If the speed of stream is 2 km/h, the distance between the two ports is
(a) 80 km
(b) 81 km
(c) 70 km
(d) 71 km
145. A train running at the rate of 40 km/h passes a man riding parallel to the railway line in the same direction at 25 km/h in 48 seconds. Find the length of the tram in metres,
(a) 100 m
(b) 200 m
(c) 150 m
(d) 250 m
146. Reema, Ruchi and Richa can make a painting in 15, 20 and 30 days, respectively. They undertake to make a painting for Rs. 810. The share of Reema exceeds that of Ruchi by
(a) Rs. 91
(b) Rs. 92
(c) Rs. 90
(d) Rs. 89
147. Population of a city is 2,96,000 out of which 1,66,000 are males. 50% population is literate. If 70% males are literate, then the number of women who are literate is
148. The average weight of 14 students was calculated as 71. But it was later found that the weight of one student had been wrongly entered as 42 instead of 56 and of another as 74 instead of 32. The correct average is
149. Four years ago, the ages of Ritu and Reena were in the ratio 5 . 61 respectively. Eight years from now the respective ratio of their ages will be 8 : 9. What is the sum of their ages at present ?
(a) 52 years
(b) 50 years
(c) 60 years
(d) 62 years
150. A shirt was sold at a profit of 15%. If its cost had been 5% less and it had been sold for Rs. 21 less, then the profit would have been 10%. Find the cost of the shirt.
(a) Rs. 210
(b) Rs. 220
(c) Rs. 100
(d) Rs. 200
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