AILET 2014 Question Paper
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ALL INDIA LAW ENTRANCE TEST (AILET) 2014 Question Paper
Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Total Marks: 150
AILET 2014 Question Paper
Section 1 – English and Reading Comprehension
Directions (Qs. 1 -7): The questions in this section are based on the passage. The questions are to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some of the questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer; that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the questions.
Under very early common law, all felonies were punishable by death. The perpetrators of the felony were hanged whether or not a homicide had been committed during the felony. Later, however, some felonies were declared to be non-capital offences. The common law courts, in need of a deterrent to the use of deadly force in the course of these non-capital felonies, developed the “felony-murder” rule. The first formal statement of the rule stated: “Any killing by one in the commission of a felony is guilty of murder.” The killing was a murder whether intentional or unintentional, accidental or mistaken. The usual requirement of malice was eliminated and the only criminal intent necessary was the intent to commit the particular underlying felony. All participants in the felony were guilty of murder- actual killer and non-killer confederates.
Proponents of the rule argued that it was justified because the felony demonstrated a lack of concern for human life by the commission of a violent and dangerous felony and that the crime was murder either because of a conclusive presumption of malice or simply by force of statutory definition.
Opponents of the rule describe it as a highly artificial concept and “an enigma wrapped in a riddle.” They are quick to point out that the rule has been abandoned in England where it originated, abolished in India, severely restricted in Canada and a number of other commonwealth countries, is unknown in continental Europe, and abandoned in Michigan. In reality, the real strength of the opponents’ criticism stems from the bizarre and of times unfair results achieved when the felony-murder rule is applied mechanically. Defendants have been convicted under the rule where the killing was purely accidental, or the killing took place after the felony during the later flight from the scene; or a third party killed another (police officer killed a citizen or vice versa; or a victim died of a heart attack 15-20 minutes after the robbery was over; or the person killed was an accomplice in the felony).
Attacks on the rule have come from all directions with basically the same demand – reevaluate and abandon the archaic legal fiction; restrict and limit vicarious criminal liability, prosecute killers for murder, not non¬killers; increase punishment tor the underlying felony as a real deterrent, and initiate legislative modifications. With the unstable history of the felony – murder rule, including its abandonment by many jurisdictions in this country, the felony-murder rule is dying a slow but certain death.
1. Which one of the following best states the central idea of the passage?
a) The felony – murder rule should be abolished
b) Some jurisdictions are about to abandon the felony – murder rule.
c) The felony – murder rule can be unfair.
d) Supreme Court of the United States,
2. The felony – murder rule was developed in order to
a) deter felonies
b) deter murders
c) deter deadly force in felonies
d) extend the definition of murder to any malicious act resulting in death
3. Arguments in favour of the felony – murder rule may include all of the following EXCEPT
a) We can infer that anyone undertaking a dangerous felony demonstrates an indifference to human life.
b) If the punishment for the use of deadly force whether intended or not is the same, criminals will be less likely to use deadly force.
c) Because a life has been taken, the crime is murder by force of statutory definition.
d) The victim of murder may be an accomplice of the felony.
4. According to the passage, opponents of the felony – murder rule have raised all of the following objections to the statute EXCEPT
a) The felony – murder rule results in murder prosecutions of defendants who have not committed murder.
b) The felony – murder rule assigns a criminal liability vicariously.
c) The felony – murder rule is based upon a presumption of malice even if death is wholly accidental.
d) The felony – murder rule deters the use of deadly force in non-capital felonies.
5. In which of the following situations would the defendant NOT be liable to the charge of murder under the felony – murder rule?
a) In escaping from an unsuccessful attempt to rob a bank, the defendant crashes his car, killing an innocent pedestrian in another city.
b) A bank security officer, pursuing the defendant after a robbery, falls down a flight of stairs and suffers serious permanent brain and spinal cord injuries.
c) The driver of the escape car, who has not entered the bank, crashes the car killing the armed gunman who committed the robbery.
d) A bank teller, locked safely in the bank vault by the robber, has a stroke and dies.
6. According to the passage, the decline of support for the felony – murder rule is indicated by the abandoning of the rule in all of the following locations EXCEPT
a) Continental Europe
7. The author believes that the felony – murder rule is
b) bizarre and unfair
c) a serviceable rule unfairly attacked by the “intelligentsia”
d) an unfair equating of intent to commit a felony and intent to commit murder
Directions (Qs. 8-11): In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
10. Which is NOT a synonym for ‘accumulation’?
11. Which is NOT a synonym for ‘incline’?
Directions (Qs. 12-15): In the following questions, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the bold word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.
b) Old – fashioned
Directions (Qs. 16-17): Choose the exact meaning of the idioms/phrases.
16. She exhibited remarkable sang froid during the crisis.
17. The co-operation and esprit de corps between the soldiers and the officers was directly responsible for their victory.
Directions (Qs. 18-19): Answer the questions based on the following information.
In each of the question below, four different ways of writing a sentence are indicated. Choose the best way of writing the sentence.
a) The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is that it is not always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
b) The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing; it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
c) The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not that it is always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
d) The main problem with the notion of price discrimination is not it is always a bad thing, but that it is the monopolist who has the power to decide who is charged what price.
a) A symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a large number of devices, costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand deals.
b) A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and costs are artificially escalated with a large number of devices and black money is generated through underhand deals.
c) A symbiotic relationship develops among contractors, bureaucracy and the politicians, and by a large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated on underhand deals.
d) A symbiotic relationship develops among the contractors, bureaucracy and politicians, and by large number of devices costs are artificially escalated and black money is generated by underhand deals.
Directions (Qs. 20- 23): In this section, each passage consists of five sentences. The first sentence is given in the beginning. The four sentences in each passage have been jumbled up. These are labeled P, Q, R and S. You are required to find out the proper sequence of the four sentences and mark accordingly on the Answer Sheet.
20. L₁: It is significant that one of the most common objections to competition is that it is blind.
P: This is important because in a system of free enterprise based on private property, chances are not equal and there is indeed a strong case for reducing that inequality of opportunity.
Q. Rather it is a choice between a system where it is the will of a few persons that decides which is to get what and one where it depends at least partly, on the ability and the enterprise of the people concerned.
R: Although competition and justice may have little else in common, it is as much a commendation of competition as of justice that it is no respecter of persons.
S: The choice today is not between a system in which everybody will get what he deserves according to some universal standard and one where individual shares are determined by chance or goodwill.
L6: The fact that opportunities open to the poor in a competitive society are much more restricted than those open to the rich, does not make it less true that in such a society the poor are more free than a person commanding much greater material comfort in a different type of society.
The proper sequence should be
21. L₁: The chain saw howled as I finished cutting through the branch,
P: The branch crashed to the ground, taking my spectacles with it.
Q. 1 almost dropped the saw as I shielded my face from the twigs that brushed by.
R: Howard retrieved my glasses and handed them up to me.
S: I pulled the saw away, and my husband tugged against the other end of the rope that 1 had tied just above the cut.
L ₆: Are you okay? He asked.
The proper sequence should be
22. L₁ All human beings are aware of the existence of a power greater than that of the mortals the name given to such a power by individuals is an outcome of birth, education and choice.
P: Logically, therefore such a power should be remembered in good times also.
Q: Their other philanthropic contributions include the construction and maintenance of religious places such as temples or gurdwaras.
R: Industrial organizations also contribute to the veneration of this power by participating in activities such as religious ceremonies and festivities organized by the employees.
S: This power provides an anchor in times of adversity, difficulty and trouble.
L6: The top management/managers should participate in all such events, irrespective of their personal choices.
The proper sequence should be
c) S P R Q
d) S Q R P
23. L₁: A thorough knowledge of path or course to be followed is essential for achieving success.
P: Seniors must show the path clearly by laying down the precise expectations of the management in terms of job description, key result areas, and personal targets.
Q: They should also ‘light the path’ by personal examples.
R: Advice tendered or help offered must be objectively evaluated for its effectiveness in achieving the desired goals.
S: A display of arrogance and a false sense of ‘self-worth’, in order to belittle those who come to help, prove dysfunctional.
L6: The individuality of each employee must be respected.
The proper sequence should be
a) R S P Q
Directions (Qs. 24-26): In the following questions, the word at the top is used in four different ways. Choose the option in which the usage of the word is INCORRECT or INAPPROPRIATE.
a) She did not have passing marks in mathematics.
b) The mad woman was cursing everybody passing her on the road.
c) At the birthday party, all the children enjoyed a game of passing the parcel.
d) A passing taxi was stopped to rush the accident victim to the hospital.
a) The shopkeeper showed us a bolt of fine silk.
b) As he could not move, he made a bolt for the gate.
c) Could you please bolt the door?
d) The thief was arrested before he could bolt from the scene of the crime.
a) Nagasaki suffered from the fallout of nuclear radiation,
b) People believed that the political fallout of the scandal would be insignificant.
c) Who can predict the environmental fallout of the WTO agreements? •
d) The Headmaster could not understand the fallout of several of his good students at the public examination
Directions (Qs. 27- 35): Fill in the blanks with the best alternative among the four options:
Around the world, forests are being destroyed at a rate of about thirteen million hectares a year and deforestation accounts for an estimated 17% – 20% of all global emissions In addition, forests and other terrestrial carbon sinks play a.…(27)…. role in preventing runaway climate change, soaking up a full 2.6 Gt of atmospheric carbon every year. The destruction of forests, therefore, not only emits carbon – a staggering 1.6 Gt a year, which severely…(28)…. forests’ capacity to absorb emissions from other sources – but also drastically.…(29)…. the amount of forested land available to act as a carbon sink in the future.
However, the effects of deforestation extend beyond carbon. Rainforests ….(30)…. a wide variety of ecosystems services, from regulating rainfall to purifying groundwater and keeping fertile soil from .…(31)….; deforestation in one area can seriously damage food production and .…(32)…. to clean water in an entire region. The value of global ecosystem services has been estimated at 33 trillion USD each year (almost half of global GDP), but these services have been taken for granted without a mechanism to make the market reflect their value. Rainforests are also a home and ….(33)…. of income for a huge number of people in Africa, Asia, and South America……(34)…. this, economic pressures frequently drive both local communities and national governments in the developing world to ….(35)…. these forests in ways that are unsustainable, clear-cutting vast areas for fuel, timber, mining, or agricultural land,
c) In spite
AILET 2014 Question Paper
Section II- GENERAL KNOWLEDGE
36. The Aircraft Carrier inducted in to the Indian Navy recently is
a) INS Virat
b) INS Vikrant
c) INS Vikramaditya
37. Which of the following countries impeached its Chief Justice recently?
c) Sri Lanka
38. With which of the following country India signed an Extradition treaty that came into force during October 2013?
39. The present Chief Election Commissioner of India is
a) Dr Nasim Zaidi
b) V.S. Sampath
c) H.S. Brahma
40. According to the recent World population data of 2013, the second most populous city in the world is
a) New Delhi
41. The latest country to launch a satellite during January 2013 from its soil and join the club of space-faring nations is
a) South Korea
b) North Korea
42. Who won the Women’s Singles at the Malaysian Grand Prix Badminton Championship in 2013?
a) Saina Nehwal
b) Juan Gu
c) P.V. Sindhu
d) Ratchanok Intanon
43. Who is the oldest woman tennis player to be ranked No. 1 in the world?
a) Venus Williams
b) Chris Evert
c) Martina Navratilova
d) Serena Williams
44. How many High Courts are there in India as on January 2014?
45. Indira Gandhi Prize for Peace, Disarmament and Development for the year 2013 has been conferred on:
a) Ms. Angela Merkel
b) Mr. Nelson Mandela
c) Mr. Uhuru Kenyatta
d) Mr. Hamid Karzai
46. Who has won the Golden Shoe Award in Soccer three times?
a) Diego Maradona
b) Christiano Ronaldo
c) Lionel Messi
47. The phrase ‘Bitcoins’ refers to
a) Cryptocurrency introduced by the United States
b) Cryptocurrency introduced by France
c) Cryptocurrency introduced by the World Bank
48. Who was conferred the Col. C.K. Nayudu Life Achievement Award in Cricket during 2012?
a) Sunil Gavaskar
b) Sachin Tendulkar
d) Kapil Dev
49. The Parliament of India voted to remove
a) Justice V. Ramaswami
b) Justice P. Dinakaran
c) Justice Soumitra Sen
50. The maximum penalty that can be imposed by CIC/SIC under the Right to Information Act, 2005 is
a) Rs. 5,000
b) Rs. 25,000
c) Rs. 250
d) Rs. 10,000
51. On January 1, 2013, internet has completed
a) 26 years
b) 30 years
c) 32 years
d) 28 years
52. Which of the following was declared by the United Nations General Assembly as “International Year for Water Co¬operation”?
53. How many States are there in the European Union?
54. How many members can be nominated to the Rajya Sabha by the President?
55. The highest award for sporting excellence in India is
a) Arjuna Award
b) Dronacharya Award
c) Bharat Ratna
d) Khel Ratna
56. Cloves, used as a spice, are derived from which of the following plant parts?
c) Flower buds
d) Young leaves
57. Which one of the following is included in the World List of Biosphere Reserves by UNESCO?
a) Kinnaur Region
b) Spiti Valley
c) Nallamalai Hills
58. Who among the following was the first Law Minister of India?
a) Jawaharlal Nehru
b) Maulana Abul Kalam Azad
c) Dr. B.R. Ambedkar
d) T. Krishnamachari
59. Which one of the following countries is not a UN member country?
60. The main component of India’s import items from China is
b) Iron ore
d) Telecom equipments and Machinery
61. Which of the following divides India into Northern and Southern parts?
b) Tropic of Cancer
c) Tropic of Capricorn
d) Arctic Circle
62. With which one of the following countries, India shares maximum length of the border?
63. What is known as Jasmine Revolution?
a) Czech uprising
b) Sudan uprising
c) Arab Spring
d) Libyan uprising
64. Which one of the following statements about NATO is not correct?
a) NATO has 28 independent member states
b) The US is an ex-officio member of NATO
c) NATO is a collective defence organisation in Europe
d) Turkey is a member of NATO
65. V.R. Krishna Iyer was ……..before he became a Judge.
a) a minister
b) an ambassador
c) a Governor
d) a bureaucrat
66. What does airbag, used for safety of car driver, contain?
a) Sodium bicarbonate
b) Sodium azide
c) Sodium nitrite
d) Sodium peroxide
67. Which colour of heat radiation represents the highest temperature?
a) Blood red
b) Dark cherry
68. Who is the founder of Facebook?
a) Jimmy Wales
b) Larry Page
c) Mark Zuckerberg
d) Brian Acton
69. Shashi Kant Sharma was appointed in 2013 as the
a) Attorney General of India
b) Comptroller and Auditor General of India
c) Commissioner of Linguistic Minorities
d) Chairman of the National Commission for SCs & STs
70. Mist is a result of which one of the following?
AILET 2014 Question Paper
Section III- LEGAL REASONING
Directions (Q. 71-97): Given below is a statement of legal principle followed by a factual situation. Apply the principle to the facts given below and select the most appropriate answer.
71. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Radhika’s brother, Akash, had come to visit at her place. After seeing her wealth, Akash decided to commit theft that night. While he was trying to escape that night he got electrocuted by the wires which were fixed on the boundary walls. Akash plans to sue Radhika. Will his claim succeed?
a) Yes, because in Indian tradition, guests are like Gods,
b) No, because one has to be himself cautious about his safety.
c) Yes, because it is the occupiers’ duty to take care of its visitors.
d) No, because he himself is guilty of theft. He is no longer an invitee or visitor
72. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. An unlawful intrusion which interferes with one’s person or property constitutes trespass.
2. An easement is the right to use another person’s land for a stated purpose and has been in use for quite some time. It can involve a general or specific portion of the property.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Vijay wanted to construct a shed on his window to stop the water from leaking to his house. The shed was constructed but it protruded in Namit’s house. Vijay claims it is his easementary right. Will Vijay’s claim succeed?
a) Yes, because he has a reason to do the same,
b) Yes, because right of easement exists.
c) No, because there exists no right of easement.
d) No, because this is encroachment on Namit’s property.
73. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person is responsible for that which he could have reasonably foreseen or prevented.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A chemist sold a hair conditioner to Jyoti. The conditioner was locally manufactured and the contents, harmful chemicals, were listed on the bottle. The chemist, however, represented to Jyoti that the chemicals used were harmless and beneficial for the hair. On using it, Jyoti’s hair was badly damaged and she had to get hair treatment done for the same. Jyoti filed a complaint against the chemist. Will the chemist be liable?
a) Yes, as he should have informed Jyoti that the ingredients are not known.
b) Liable because he was aware of the side effects of the ingredients.
c) Not liable because it was the buyer’s duty to be aware about the product she is buying.
d) Not liable as it is a natural tendency of shopkeepers to extol the virtues of the product they are selling
74. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Defamation means publication of a statement injuring the reputation of a person without lawful justification. Such statement must reflect on a person’s reputation and tends to lower him in the estimation of right thinking members of the society generally or tends to make them shun or avoid him.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Madam Tussauds Ltd. decided to keep a waxwork exhibition, and placed an effigy of Babloo Prasad with a gun, in a room adjoining the “Chamber of Horrors”. Mr. Babloo Prasad had been tried for murder in India and released on a verdict of “not proven guilt)'” and a representation of the scene of the alleged murder was displayed in the Chamber of Horrors. Is it amount to defamation?
a) No Defamation as Babloo was an accused.
b) Defamation as his guilt was not proved and he was released by the court.
c) No defamation as there was no proper publication.
d) None of the above.
75. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Every partner is liable, jointly with all the other partners and also severally, for all acts of the firm done while he is a partner.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A and B started a partnership firm for providing vehicle repairing services. C approached the firm for getting his car repaired and noticed that only B was present in the office. C informed the problem, and B started repairing the car. While B was repairing, he filled petrol instead of oil in the engine. As a consequence, a small blast occurred and damaged the car. Now, C sued both A and B for the damage so caused. Decide.
a) Both liable since B was authorised to carry out the work of the firm.
b) A is not liable since A has not authorised B to do something which was not for the benefit of the firm.
c) A is not liable since it was B‘s fault and for that only B can be held liable.
d) A is liable since it was negligence on his part that he was not present in the office when C came.
76. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: No fault liability means liability of a person even without any negligent act on his part and even if he has taken due care and caution. If a person brings and keeps any dangerous thing on his land, then he is liable for any damage caused if the thing escapes. No one can be penalized for an Act of God which is unforeseeable and unpredictable.
FACTUAL SITUATION: B owned and managed a company supplying electricity to the nearby locality. On a particular windy and stormy day, one of the wires snapped and was hanging down. A, a cyclist who was driving in the night, saw the wire from a distance. There was a nearby street light with low visibility. He came in contact with the wire and was electrocuted immediately. His heirs sued A on ground of strict liability. Decide.
a) A is not liable because B must have stayed indoor on a windy day
b) A is not liable because B’s negligence caused him injury.
c) A is liable because supplying electricity is an inherently dangerous use of land and he should have been careful.
d) A is not liable because sudden storm and winds without A’s negligence was an Act of God
77. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The master/ principal is liable for all acts done by his duly appointed servant/agent for all acts done by him lawfully in the course of his employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A had an agency which used to lend carpenters to people on need basis. A deputed B to do some repair work in C’s shed. While so doing, B lit up a cigarette and threw it as soon as he saw someone coming there. The cigarette remaining lit caused a fire and the shed was reduced to ashes. C sued A and B. Decide.
a) A is liable as B was his servant.
b) A is liable as he should have chosen responsible people.
c) A is not liable as B s act was not an authorised act.
d) A is not liable but B is liable.
78. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Where the parents of a minor child due to their negligence allow the child an opportunity to commit a tort, the parents are liable.
FACTUAL SITUATION: The father supplied an airgun to his son who was about to turn 18 next month. After some complaints of mischief, the father took the gun away and placed it in a corner of their storeroom which was used by the family to store surplus and other unnecessary stuff. The son took it out of the store and shot A. A sued his father. Is the father liable?
a) No. he took all necessary steps to prevent the son from using the gun.
b) Yes, he was the one who gave the gun and allowed him to use it by giving an opportunity.
c) No, the son was almost 17 years and 11 months of age; hence, he could think about his well being and interest.
d) Yes, the father was negligent in disposing off the gun.
79. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Medical professionals are not immune from liability in tort on ground of negligence.
2. Services rendered to a patient by a doctor (except when given free of charge) by way of consultation, diagnosis and treatment fall in the definition of “service” under the Consumer Protection Act. In case of negligence, the doctors are liable in tort as well as under the Consumer Protection Act.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A was the only child of his parents. Once he had high fever and his parents called a doctor at home. This doctor used to work at a respectable hospital in Delhi. The doctor administered certain medicines and asked the nurse to stay with him for the night and administer to him a chloroquine injection. This injection was generally not suitable for young children. The nurse, without prior test, followed instructions of the doctor and gave the injection. As a result of an allergic reaction, the child died. The parents sued the nurse and the doctor.
a) Doctor was rendering a “service”; hence liable to pay compensation.
b) Doctor was not liable as he came to their home to give personal treatment and was not in the Hospital.
c) This is not a service; hence not liable.
d) Only the nurse is liable
80. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. An act done by the consent of a person above 18 years is not an offence; provide the offender did not intend to cause death or grievous hurt.
2. Mere pecuniary benefit is not a ‘thing done for a person’s benefit’.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, a poor man, is in dire need of money to pav off his money lenders. A approaches Z, a doctor, to operate on him to remove one of his kidneys so that he can donate it to needy people and earn monev. The doctor explains to him the risks and thereafter proceeds to remove his kidney. In the process, some complications develop and A develops an abdominal tumour. Is Z guilty?
a) Yes, donating kidney for money is illegal and amounts to trafficking of organs.
b) Yes, removing kidney for money is not an act protected by this exception.
c) No, Z performed the operation with A’s consent and fully explained him the risks involved.
d) No, Z’s act was done for A’s benefit so that he can pay off the money lenders.
81. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. An act done, even if without the consent of a person is not an offence, provided the offender did not intend to cause death, and the act was done for the person’s benefit, in good faith.
2. Mere pecuniary benefit is not a ‘thing done for a person’s benefit’.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A is in a house which is on fire, with Z, a child. People below hold out a blanket. A drops the child from the house top, knowing it to be likely that the fall may kill the child but intending to save him from the fire. Unfortunately, the child is killed. Is A guilty?
a) Yes, A had knowledge of his dangerous act. His act was not justified.
b) Yes, A should have tried a less dangerous alternative.
c) No, his act was done in good faith to save the child.
d) No, he had the best of intentions and this was the only alternative
82. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done by any person who is, or who by reason of mistake of fact, in good faith, believes himself to be bound by law to do it.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, a soldier, fires on a mob by the order of his superior officer, in conformity with the commands of the law. B is killed due to such firing. Is A guilty of murder?
a) Yes, he should have taken care to avoid any innocent person from being killed.
b) No, he is bound by law to do it.
c) Yes, as he has killed a person.
d) The superior officer is guilty
83. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A person shall not be guilty of contempt of court on the ground that he has published any matter which interferes with or obstructs or tends to obstruct the course of justice in connection with any civil or criminal proceeding pending at the time of the publication, if at that time he had no reasonable grounds for believing that the proceeding was pending.
FACTUAL SITUATION: X delivered a lecture at the local Rotary Club in favour of an accused who is prosecuted for assaulting a police officer. He said that the accused is a victim of prevailing corruption in the judiciary and he knows that the accused is going to be punished by the court for being honest. Is X guilty of contempt of court?
a) No, not guilty of contempt of court.
b) Yes, guilty of contempt of court.
c) Yes, X has dishonoured judiciary.
d) No, X is an honest man.
84. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever intending to take dishonestly any movable property out of the possession of any person without that person’s consent, moves that property in order to such taking, is said to commit theft.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, in good faith, believing property belonging to B to be A’s own property, sells the property to C. Has A committed theft?
a) No, because he did not have a dishonest intention.
b) No, he did not move the property.
c) No, he did not move the property that was in B’s possession.
d) Yes, the constituent elements of theft are satisfied in this case.
85. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Preparation to commit an offence is not an offence.
2. After one has finished preparation to commit an offence, any act done towards committing the offence with the intention to commit it, is an attempt to commit the offence which is by itself an offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Manish wanted to kill Nandini and had therefore gone to the market to buy explosives to plant in her house. Manish kept those explosives in his godown as he planned to plant them early next morning. But as the explosives were stolen in the night he could not plant them in Nandini’s house. However, Nandini came to know about Manish’s plan and therefore wants to file a complaint against him. Will she succeed?
a) Yes, because he has done something more than mere preparation.
b) No, because Nandini did not die.
c) Yes, because there existed a mala fide intention.
d) No, because mere preparation is no offence
86. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Whoever intentionally uses force to any person, without that person’s consent, in order to committing of any offence, or intending by the use of such force to cause, or knowing it likely to cause injury, fear, or annoyance to the person to whom the force is used, is said to use criminal force to that other.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Akash was burning some crackers in his house when his dog got scared and got unruly which scared his brother Mohsin. Can this be called criminal force?
a) Yes, because he did it intentionally.
b) No, because law doesn’t account for trivial things.
c) Yes, because it led to annoyance of Mohsin.
d) No, because there was no mala fide intention
87. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No person shall be convicted of any offence except for violation of a law in force at the time of commission of the act charged as an offence, nor subjected to a penalty greater than which might have been inflicted under the law in force at the time of commission of the offence.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A boy of 16 years was convicted of house trespass and theft. He was sentenced to imprisonment for 6 months and fine was also imposed. After the judgement, the Probation of Offenders Act came into force. It provided that a person below 21 years may not ordinarily be sentenced to imprisonment. Now the bov claims the benefit of this Act. Should he get it?
b) The rule of beneficial interpretation required that the benefit of ex post facto law can be applied to reduce his sentence.
c) A boy below 18 years is a minor and so should not be punished.
d) None of the above.
88. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: No one can be punished for the same offence twice.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Aditya is accused of harassing his colleague Nimisha. She complains to her superior and a departmental inquiry is initiated against Aditya. Aditya tries to intimidate Nimisha and continues harassing her following which she complains to the police. The departmental inquiry finds him guilty and terminates his services. Later, he is found guilty by a court and is jailed for 2 years. He claims that he has been punished twice.
a) He has been punished twice for the same offence.
b) He has not been punished twice for the same offence.
c) He has been punished for different offences.
d) None of the above
89. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: To be held guilty of an offence, one should have done the act that causes the intended result.
FACTUAL SITUATION: A, with the intention to murder B stabs him repeatedly with a knife, B is taken to the hospital and is found to be out of danger. Thereafter, due to the doctor’s negligence, B’s wounds are infected and he requires surgical interventions. During the time of operation to remove his infected leg, B died on account of administration of general anesthesia.
a) A is guilty of murder.
b) A is not guilty of murder though he may be guilty of attempt to murder.
c) A is not guilty of murder but he may be guilty of causing hurt.
d) The doctor is liable as he was negligent.
90. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Every agreement, by which any party is restricted absolutely from enforcing his rights in respect of any contract, by the usual legal proceedings in the ordinary tribunals, is void to that extent.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Feroz and Pinto entered into an agreement for rendering certain services. As per the prevailing law, the agreement may be enforced either at Jaipur or Udaipur. The agreement itself, however, specifies that upon breach, the parties can only approach courts at Jaipur. Feroz breaches the contract and Pinto, being a resident of Udaipur, would like to sue him in Udaipur. He challenged the validity of the clause.
a) Pinto will succeed as Feroz had made him suffer and the law must take his convenience into account and allow him to sue in Udaipur.
b) Pinto will succeed as the contract does not allow him to institute any legal proceedings in any court or tribunal in Udaipur.
c) Pinto will fail as the contract does not restrain him from instituting legal proceedings in Jaipur.
d) Pinto will fail as he was of sound mind while entering into contract and having accepted it, he cannot now deny his obligation.
91. LEGAL PRINCIPLES: A contract is an agreement enforceable by law.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Amita invited Bina to her house for dinner. Bina accepted the invitation but later did not go. On Bina’s failure to attend, Amita filed a suit against Bina for the price of non¬consumed food. Will the law enforce this agreement?
a) No, it is a social agreement.
b) Yes, Amita can recover amount for non-consumed food.
c) No, as Bina did not accept the invitation in writing.
d) No, because the law does not take account of trivial things
92. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Once a person accepts another’s offer, and signifies such acceptance to the former, a contract comes into existence between them.
2. Uncertain agreements are void agreements.
3. Rejected offers can be accepted only if renewed.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Bakshi wanted to purchase a particular land. He sent a letter to his cousin, Dutt, offering him ? 4 lakhs for it. Dutt replied that he would not sell it below 5 lakhs. Bakshi communicated his willingness to pay this amount. Dutt did not sell the land to Bakshi. Bakshi sued him for breach of contract.
a) Dutt is liable because once he communicates an offer to Bakshi and Bakshi accepts it, a contract comes into existence.
b) Dutt is liable as he has misled Bakshi by his actions.
c) Dutt is not liable because he has rejected the offer by giving a counter offer which is also not specific.
d) Dutt is not liable as there is no legally enforceable contract
93. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An agreement is void if the court regards it as opposed to the public policy.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunita, while her husband Shankar was alive, promised to marry Neel in the event of Shankar’s death. Subsequently, Shankar died, but Sunita refused to marry Neel. Neel sues Sunita for damages for breach of promise.
a) Sunita is liable as she is bound to marry Neel.
b) She is liable to compensate Neel for breach of promise.
c) Neel can marry someone else.
d) She is not liable as the contract is opposed to public policy and so void.
94. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An agreement is void if its object is unlawful.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Sunil had a rich uncle who owned prime property in Chennai and had lot of money in the bank. Being the only heir, Sunil was sure that he would inherit the property. One day, the uncle called him to his room and announced that he planned to marry again. This angered Sunil and he plans to murder his uncle so he hired Anuj, a murderer and entered into a contract with him to kill his uncle. Sunil agreed to pay Rs. 10 lakhs to Anuj and even paid 5 lakhs as advance. The following night Anuj entered the uncle’s house intending to kill him. On reaching there, he realised that Sunil’s uncle was already dead so he left without doing anything. Next day, after post mortem report, it transpired that Sunil’s uncle had died due to heart attack. Now, Sunil wants to recover the advance from Anuj. Will he succeed?
c) Anuj is liable to return the amount as the act was not done by him.
d) None of the above
95. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Consideration must be of value in the eyes of law.
2. Consideration is not real if it is illusory.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Arjun received summons to appear at a trial as a witness on behalf of Bitu, the accused. Bitu promised to pay him a sum of Rs. 1, 000 for his trouble. On default by Bitu, Arjun filed a suit to recover the said sum. Will he succeed?
a) No, as the consideration is of no value in the eyes of law.
b) Yes, as the contract is supported by consideration.
c) No, as there is no consideration for the promise.
d) Yes, as he appeared before court only after Bitu agreed to pay him the amount of Rs. 1,000.
96. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A minor is not competent to contract.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Deep, a 9th standard student realizes that he being a minor, he is not permitted by law to execute a contract, appoints Mandeep as his agent to conclude purchase of a land to gift it to his mother on her birthday- Mandeep accordingly prepares the papers for the transaction but at the last minute the seller who had agreed to sell it now refuses to sell it contending that he does not wish to sell the land to a minor. Deep seeks to enforce the contract against the seller.
a) Deep can enforce the contract – since Mandeep is his agent, Deep is deemed to have personally entered into a contract.
b) Deep cannot enforce the contract – only Mandeep can, since seller has entered into the contract with Mandeep.
c) Deep cannot enforce the contract since he is a minor.
d) Deep can neither appoint an agent nor enforce the contract since he is a minor
97. LEGAL PRINCIPLES:
1. Acceptance must be given only by the person to whom the offer is made.
2. Communication of acceptance to a person who did not make the offer does not bind the offerer.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Pal sold his business to Sam without disclosing it to his customers. Mani, an old customer sent an order for goods to Pal by name. Sam, the new owner, executed the order. Mani refuses to accept the goods from Sam as he intended to deal only with Pal. In a suit by Sam against Mani:
a) Sam cannot recover as Mani never intended to deal with him.
b) Can recover the price as he had supplied goods only against the order made by Mani
c) Sam cannot recover as it was only an invitation to offer by Mani on which no acceptance can be given by Sam.
d) Sam can recover as the price of the goods as an offer once accepted results in a contract.
98. The main objectives of the Judicial Standards Accountability Bill 2010
1. It is a legislation which aims to increase accountability of the higher judiciary in India
2. It seeks to devise a new “complaint procedure” under which any person may be able to file a complaint in writing against any judge of a superior court
3. The issue of Judicial Standards must be seen in the context of Article 124(4) of the Constitution
4. The Bill seeks to provide a straight jacketed definition of misbehaviour in clause 2(k)
Select the correct code:
a) 1 and 2
b) 1,2 and 3
c) Only 4
d) 3 and 4
99. In April 2013, the Supreme Court held that the modification of a well known cancer fighting drug is not a patentable new invention against which pharmaceutical firm?
100. Criminal Law (Amendment) Act, 2013 does not provide that:
a) A rape convict can be sentenced to a term not less than 20 years Death sentence to not less than 20 years
b) Death sentence to repeat offenders
c) Stalking and voyeurism are bailable offenders
d) Acid attack convicts can get a 10 year jail term
101. India, Uniform Civil Code is applicable in the State of:
c) Jammu & Kashmir
102. NOTA is introduced in the voting machine as one among the options based on
a) Representation of Peoples Act, 1950
b) Representation of Peoples Act, 1951
c) Decision of the Supreme Court of India
d) Direction of the Election Commission
103. How many duties are provided under Part IV A of the Constitution?
104. The Inter State Council has been constituted based on the recommendation of
a) Second Administrative Reforms Commission
b) National Commission to Review the Working of the Constitution
c) Sarkaria Commission
d) Punchhi Commission
105. Which of the following is not a constitutional body?
a) Finance Commission
b) State Public Service Commissions
c) Election Commission
d) Planning commission
AILET 2014 Question Paper
Section IV- LOGICAL REASONING
106. Rahul: One would have to be blind to the reality of moral obligation to deny that people who believe a course of action to be morally obligatory for them have both the right and the duty to pursue that action, and that no one else has any right to stop them from doing so.
Richa: But imagine an artist who feels morally obliged to do whatever she can to prevent works of art from being destroyed confronting a morally committed anti-pornography demonstrator engaged in destroying artworks he deems pornographic. According to your principle that artist has, simultaneously, both the right and duty to stop the destruction and no right whatsoever to stop it.
Which of the following, if substituted for the scenario invoked by Richa, would preserve the force of her argument?
a) A medical researcher who feels a moral obligation not to claim sole credit for work that was performed in part by someone else confronting another researcher who feels no such moral obligation.
b) A manufacturer who feels a moral obligation to recall potentially dangerous products confronting a consumer advocate who feels morally obliged to expose product defects.
c) An architect who feels a moral obligation to design only energy- efficient buildings confronting, as a potential client, a corporation that believes its primary moral obligation is to maximise shareholder profits.
d) A health inspector who feels morally obliged to enforce restrictions on the number of cats a householder may keep confronting a householder who, feeling morally obliged to keep every’ stray that comes along, has over twice that number of cats.
107. Between 1951 and 1963, it was illegal in the country of Geronia to manufacture, sell, or transport any alcoholic beverages. Despite this prohibition, however, the death rate from diseases related to excessive alcohol consumption was higher during the first five years of the period than it was during the five years prior to 1951. Therefore, the attempt to prevent alcohol use merely made people want and use alcohol more than they would have if it had not been forbidden. Each of the following, if true, weakens the argument EXCEPT:
a) Many who died of alcohol-related diseases between 1951 and 1963 consumed illegally imported alcoholic beverages produced by the same methods as those used within Geronia.
b) Death from an alcohol-related disease generally does not occur until five to ten years after the onset of excessive alcohol consumption.
c) The death rate resulting from alcohol- related diseases increased just as sharply during the ten years before and ten years after the prohibition of alcohol as it did during the years of prohibition.
d) Between 1951 and 1963, among the people with pre-existing alcohol- related diseases, the percentage who obtained life-saving medical attention declined because of a social stigma attached to excessive alcohol consumption.
108. Unless they are used as strictly temporary measures, rent-control ordinances (municipal regulations placing limits on rent increase) have several negative effects for renters. One of these is that the controls will bring about a shortage of rental units. This disadvantage for renters occurs over the long run, but the advantage—smaller rent increases – occurs immediately. In many municipalities, especially in all those where tenants of rent-control units have a secure hold on political power and can get rent-control ordinances enacted or repealed, it is invariably the desire for short-term gain that guides those tenants in the exercise of that power.
If the statements above are true, which one of the following can be properly inferred from them?
a) It is impossible for landlords to raise rents when rent controls are in effect.
b) In many municipalities, rent-control ordinances are repealed as soon as shortages of rental units arise.
c) In many municipalities there is now, or eventually will be, a shortage of rental units.
d) In the long term, a shortage of rental units will raise rents substantially.
109. A government’s proposed 8 percent cut in all subsidies to art groups will be difficult for those groups to absorb. As can be seen, however, from their response to last year’s cut, it will not put them out of existence. Last year there was also an 8 percent cut, and though private fund¬raising was very difficult for the art groups in the current recessionary economy, they did survive.
The reasoning in the argument is flawed because the argument
a) Relies without warrant on the probability that the economy will improve.
b) Overlooks the possibility that the cumulative effect of the cuts will be more than the arts group can withstand.
c) Equates the mere survival of the arts groups with their flourishing.
d) Does not raise the issue of whether there should be any government subsidies to arts groups at all.
110. Health insurance insulates patients from the expense of medical care, giving doctors almost complete discretion in deciding the course of most medical treatments. Moreover, with doctors being paid for each procedure performed, they have an incentive to over-treat patients. It is thus clear that medical procedures administered by doctors are frequently prescribed only because these procedures lead to financial rewards. The argument uses which one of the following questionable techniques?
a) Assigning responsibility for a certain result to someone whose involvement in the events leading to that result was purely coincidental.
b) Inferring the performance of certain actions on no basis other than the existence of both incentive and opportunity for performing those actions.
c) Presenting as capricious and idiosyncratic decisions that are based on the rigorous application of well- defined principles.
d) Depicting choices as having been made arbitrarily by dismissing without argument reasons that have been given for these choices.
Directions (Qs. 111-112): Each question contains six statements followed by four sets of combinations of three. Choose the set in which the combinations are logically related.
1. Some buildings are not skyscrapers
2. Some skyscrapers are not buildings
3. No structure is a skyscraper
4. All skyscrapers are structures
5. Some skyscrapers are buildings
6. Some structures are not buildings
1. All bins are buckets
2. No buckets is a basket
3. No bin is a basket
4. Some baskets are buckets
5. Some bins are baskets
6. No basket is a bin
Directions (Qs. 113-114): From the alternatives, choose the one which correctly classifies the four sentences as a
F: Fact: If it relates to known matter of direct observation, or an existing reality or something known to be true.
J: Judgment: If it is an opinion or estimate or anticipation of common sense or intention.
I: Inference: If it is a logical conclusion or deduction about something based on the knowledge of facts.
1. If democracy is to survive, the people must develop a sense of consumerism.
2. Consumerism has helped improve the quality of goods in certain countries,
3. The protected environment in our country is helping the local manufacturers.
4. The quality of goods suffers if the manufacturers take undue advantage of this,
1. Everyday social life is impossible without interpersonal relationships.
2. The roots of many misunderstandings have been cited in poor relations among individuals.
3. Assuming the above to be true, social life will be much better if people understand the importance of good interpersonal relations.
4. A study reveals that interpersonal relations and hence life in general can be improved with a little effort on the part of individuals.
Directions ((Qs. 115-120): Each group of questions is based on a set of conditions. Choose the response that most accurately and completely answers each question.
There are five flagpoles lined up next to each other in a straight row in front of a school. Each flagpole flies one flag (red, white, or blue) and one pennant (green, white, or blue). The following are conditions that affect the placement ot flags and pennants on the poles: On a given flagpole, the pennant and the flag cannot be the same colour.
Two adjacent flagpoles cannot fly the same colour flags.
Two adjacent flagpoles cannot fly the same colour pennants.
No more than two of any colour flag or pennant may fly at one time.
115. If the 2nd and 5th pennants are blue, the 2nd and 5th flags are red, and the 3rd flag is white, then which one of the following must be true?
a) Two of the flags are white.
b) Two of the pennants are white.
c) The 4th pennant is green.
d) If the 1st flag is white, then the 1st pennant is green.
116. If the 1st flag is red and the 2nd pennant is blue, then which one of the following is NOT necessarily true?
a) The second flag is white.
b) If the 5th flag is red, then the 3rd flag is blue.
c) If the 4th pennant is green, then the 1st pennant is white.
d) If the 1st and 5th flags are of the same colour, then the 3rd flag is blue.
117. If the 1st and 3rd flags are white and the 2nd and 4th pennants are blue, then which one of the following is false?
a) The 4th flag is red.
b) The 1st pennant is green.
c) The 3rd pennant is not red.
d) The 5th pennant is green.
118. If the 1st and 4th flags are blue, and the 3rd pennant is white, then which one of the following must be true?
a) If the 1st pennant is green, then the 5th pennant is white.
b) If the 5th pennant is white, then the 1st pennant is green.
c) The 2nd flag is red.
d) The 5th flag is red.
119. If the 2nd flag is red and the 3rd flag is white, and the 4th pennant is blue, then which one of the following must be true?
a) If the 5th flag is white, then the two of the pennants are blue.
b) If the 1st flag is white, then the 2nd flag is white.
c) If the 1st pennant is blue, then the 5th pennant is green.
d) If the 1st pennant is green, then the 5th flag is not blue.
120. If the 1st flag and the 2nd pennant are of the same colour, the 2nd flag and the 3rd pennant are the same colour, the 3rd flag and the 4th pennant are the same colour, and the 4th flag and the 5th pennant are the same colour, then which one of the following must be true?
a) The 1st pennant is white.
b) The 2nd flag is not white.
c) The 5th flag is red.
d) The 3rd pennant is blue.
121. Nicky, who is Ronald’s daughter, says to Irene, “Your mother Rita is the youngest sister of my father, who is the third child of Sylvester”. How is Sylvester related to Irene?
a) Maternal uncle
122. Pointing to a lady, a person says to his friend, “She is the grandmother of the elder brother of my father”. How is the girl in the photograph related to the man?
123. Pointing towards a boy, Aruna said to Pushpa, “The mother of his father is the wife of your grandfather (mother’s father)”. How is Pushpa related to that boy?
124. The front door of Kiran house is towards the south. From the backside of her house she walks 50 metres straight then turns towards the left and walks 100 metres and after that turns right and stops after walking 100 metres. Now Kiran is facing which direction?
125. If Northwest becomes south and southwest becomes east and all the other directions change in the similar manner, then what will be the direction for north?
126. A policeman goes 20 km east and then turning to the south he goes 30 km and then again turns to his left and goes 10 km. How far is he from his starting point?
a) 30 km
b) 20 km
c) 10 km
d) 40 km
Directions (Qs. 127-130): In the following number series, find out the missing number:
127. 31, 32, 36, 45,?
129. 300, 296, 287, 271,?, 210
130. 12,15,19, ? ,30,37
Directions (Qs. 131-132): Each question is followed by two statements, I and II. Answer each question using the following instructions.
Choose (a): If the question can be answered by using statement I alone but not by using II alone.
Choose (b): If the question can be answered by using Statement II alone but not by using I alone.
Choose (c): If the question can be answered by using either statement alone.
Choose (d): If the question can be answered by using both the statements together but not by either statement.
131. In a cricket match the ‘man of the match’ award is given to the player scoring the highest number of runs. In case of tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has taken the higher number of catches is chosen. Even thereafter, if there is a tie, the player (out of those locked in the tie) who has dropped fewer catches is selected. Aakash, Biplab and Chirag who were contenders for the award dropped at least one catch each. Biplab dropped 2 catches more than Aakash did, scored 50, and took 2 catches. Chirag got two chances to catch and dropped both. Who was the man of the match?
I. Chirag made 15 runs less than both Aakash and Biplab.
II. The catches dropped by Biplab are 1 more than the catches taken by Aakash.
132. Four friends, A, B, C and D got the top four ranks in a competitive examination, but A did not get the first, B did not get the second, C did not get the third, and D did not get the fourth rank. Who secured which rank?
I. Neither A nor D were among the first 2.
II. E Neither B nor C was third or fourth.
Directions (Q. 133 -134): These four (4) items consist of two statements, one labeled as the ‘Assertion (A)’ and the other as ‘Reason (R)’. You are to examine these two statements carefully and select the answers to these items using the codes given below:
a) Both A and R are individually true and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are individually true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true.
133. Assertion (A): The phenomenon of nuclear fission generates great energy.
Reason (R): The process in which a nucleus is broken into two parts is called nuclear fission.
134. Assertion (A): The price of a stock is determined on the basis of demand and supply of the stock.
Reason (R): The value of the Sensex increases whenever there is a heavy demand for the stocks which form the Sensex.
Directions (Qs. 135-136): The questions given below have a statement followed by two conclusions 1 and II. Consider the statement and the following conclusions. Decide which of the conclusions follow from the statement.
Mark answer as:
a) If conclusion I follows
b) If conclusion II follows
c) If both conclusions I and II follow
d) If neither conclusion I follows nor II follows
135. Statement: A degree in law is one of the most wanted degrees by youth in India.
I. A degree in law guarantees a good profession.
II. A degree in law is the first choice for youth in India.
136. Statement: Any student who is caught red-handed using unfair means discredits his parents and teachers.
I. Such students try to show that their teachers don’t teach properly in the class.
II. Stringent actions must be taken against such students.
Directions (Qs. 137-140): In the following set of analogies, one word is missing. Find it out from the given options.
137. Errata : ? :: Flaws : Jewels
138. Inoculation : ? :: Exposure : Toughening
139. Steel : Rails :: Alnico : ?
140. Conscience : Wrong :: Police : ?
AILET 2014 Question Paper
Section V- MATHEMATICAL ABILITY
141. Mohan credits 15% of his salary into his bank and spends 30% of the remaining amount on household articles. If cash in hand is Rs. 2,380, what is his salary?
a) Rs. 5000
b) Rs. 4,500
c) Rs. 4000
d) Rs. 3,500
142. The average marks of a student in ten papers are 80. If the highest and the lowest score are not considered the average is 81. It his highest score is92, what is his lowest score?
143. Ten years ago, Sunil was half of Sudip’s age. If the age of both at present is in the ratio of 3:4, what will be the total of their present age?
a) 20 years
b) 30 years
c) 35 years
d) 45 years
144. A and B started a business with a total capital of ? 30,000. At the end of the year, they shared the profit in the ratio of their investments. If their capitals were interchanged, then A would have received 175% more than what he actually received. Find out the capital of B.
145. The ratio in which Aman and Bimal have contributed to the capital of a company is 3 : 4. Bimal has invested his capital for only 3 months and has received half as much profit as Aman, at the end of the year. Find out for how much time has Aman invested his capital in the company.
a) 8 months
b) 14 months
c) 15 months
d) 1 year
146. Two whole numbers whose sum is 64 can be in the ratio of?
d) 8 : 7
147. In a call centre, 6 employees working for 10 hours complete a certain task. They started working at 11:00 am. This continued till 5:00 pm and after that, for each hour one more employee is added till the work gets completed. At what time will they complete the work?
a) 7:10 pm
b) 8:00 pm
c) 7:35 pm
d) 6:35 pm
148. 72% of students in a class took Physics and 44% took Mathematics. If each student took Physics or Mathematics and 40 took both, the total number of students in the class would be
149. Amar is twice as fast as Rohit and Rohit is thrice as fast as Chanda is. The journey covered by Chanda in 42 minutes will be covered by Amar in
a) 14 min 25 sec
b) 7 min
c) 28 min 37 sec
d) 54 min 35 sec
150. P, Q and R are three consecutive odd numbers in ascending order. If the value of three times P is 3 less than two times R, find the value of R.
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