AILET 2008 Question Paper

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Time: 1 hour 30 minutes Total Marks: 150

AILET 2008 Question Paper
Section 1 – English and Reading Comprehension

1. The Indian Territory which fell under the states on the eve of Independence was
(a) Only 20 percent
(b) Over 80 percent
(c) 54 percent
(d) 46 percent.

2. The Supreme Court of India enjoys
(a) Only original jurisdiction
(b) Only appellate jurisdiction
(c) Only advisory jurisdiction
(d) All the above types of jurisdictions.

3. A money bill can be introduced in Parliament by
(a) The Finance Minister alone
(b) Any minister
(c) Any member of Parliament
(d) Any member of the ruling party.

4. The most powerful legislature in the world is the
(a) Indian Parliament
(b) U.S. Congress
(c) Swiss Legislature
(d) British Parliament.

5. In the U.S.A., residuary powers or reserve of powers are
(a) Left to the federal government
(b) Left to the States
(c) Not defined properly
(d) Given to local government.

6. Members of Rajya Sabha are not associated with
1. Public Accounts Committee
2. Estimates Committee
3. Committee on Public Undertakings
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 3
(c) 2
(d) 1 and 3.

7. According to the Constitution, amendments cannot be proposed in either House to
(a) The Annual Financial Statement
(b) Appropriation Bill
(c) Demand for Grants
(d) All of the above.

8. Match the following:
List I List II
(a) Nagpur session (1920) (i) Pooma Swaraj
(b) Madras session (1927) (ii) Changes in the constitution of Congress
(c) Calcutta session (1928) (iii) Resolution of Fundamental Rights and National Economic Policy
(d) Lahore session (1929) (iv) Return of Gandhiji to active politics after 6 years
(E) Karachi session (1930). (v) Independence resolution passed for the first time.
(a) (iii) (i) (ii) (v) (iv)
(b) (i) (ii) (iv) (v) (iii)
(c) (ii) (v) (iv) (i) (iii)
(d) (i) (iii) (ii) (v) (iv)

9. ………..are words, which appear innocent, but have a latent defamatory meaning.
(a) Libel
(b) Slander
(c) Innuendo
(d) None of the above.

10. Which Article of our Constitution provides that the State shall make effective position for securing right to work?
(a) Article 41
(b) Article 39
(c) Article 21
(d) Article 45.

11. Who of the following does not constitute an exception for ‘equality before law’ (Article 14)?
(a) The Foreign Diplomats
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Governor
(d) The President.

12. The Constitution of India describes India as
(a) A Quasi-Federal Country
(b) Union of States
(c) A federation of States and Union territories
(d) None of the above.

13. Which one of the following Fundamental Rights has been the subject of maximum litigation and controversies?
(a) Right to Property
(b) Right to Equality
(c) Right to Freedom of Religion
(d) Right to Freedom.

The Fundamental Duties of the Indian Citizens
(a) Formed a part of the original Constitution
(b) Were added by the Forty-Second Amendment
(c) Were added by the Forty-Fourth Amendment
(d) Were defined by the Parliament through a law enacted during the emergency.

15. What is contained in the Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution of India?
(a) Forms of oath of affirmation
(b) Provisions regarding disqualification on grounds of defection
(c) Items in respect of which Panchayats shall have powers and authority to function as institutions of Self- Government
(d) Items on which Municipalities shall have powers and authority to function as institutions of Self-Government.

16. The strength of the Council of Ministers
(a) Has been fixed by the Constitution
(b) Has been fixed by the Parliament under Representation of People’s Act, 1950
(c) Is determined by the Prime Minister keeping in view the requirement of the time
(d) Is determined by the President.

17. The Advisory Powers of the Supreme Court of India imply that
(a) It renders advice to the Government of India on all constitutional matters
(b) It renders advice to the Prime Minister on legal matters
(c) It renders advice to the President on question of law or fact which is of public importance
(d) It has power to render advice to all the above persons.

18. The provision under which the Supreme Court can grant ‘special leave’ to appeal against decisions of lower courts and tribunals is contained in
(a) Section 10 of Supreme Court Rules
(b) Article 136 of Indian Constitution
(c) Article 226 of Indian Constitution
(d) Article 139 of Indian Constitution.

19. Unliquidated damages mean
(a) Damage to something solid
(b) Damage caused by a firm which has gone in liquidation
(c) Damage to a firm in the hands of receivers
(b) Damage to be assessed by a Court as these are not pre-determined.

20. Assault and nuisance are
(a) Wrong under criminal law
(b) Wrong under tort
(c) Wrong under neither
(d) Wrong under both.

21. ‘A’ by cutting the moorings of a boat in which a man and a women were sitting, caused in them a fear for life. He is liable for
(a) Criminal use of force
(b) Assault
(c) Mischief
(d) None of these.

22. The display of articles in a show room indicating their prices amounts to
(a) Offer
(b) Counteroffer
(c) Invitation to an offer
(d) Mere advertisement.

23. An idol of Lord Krishna in a temple is
(a) A natural person
(b) A legal person
(c) Not a person in the eye of law because only the priest of the temple will be a person
(d) Not a person because no personality can be conferred on God.

24. When a court sends someone to judicial custody, what does it mean by judicial custody?
(a) Sent to jail
(b) Sent to police lock up
(c) Sent to home under judicial protection
(d) None of these.

25. In Criminal law, the intention is an essential constituent of offence. In law of Torts
(a) Intention is relevant
(b) Intention is irrelevant
(c) Intention is relevant only in some torts
(d) None of these.

26. The law forbids the number of partners in partnership. According to law, the maximum number of people who can form a partnership firm is
(a) 10
(b) 20
(c) 30
(d) No limit.

27. The term of office of a judge of the International Court of Justice is
(a) 10 years
(b) 9 years
(c) 7 years
(d) 5 years

28. The democratic device, used in constitutional states, by which important political questions, particularly question relating to the states of a region, may be referred to the people of the region for their final decision, is called
(a) Plebiscite
(b) Referendum
(c) Recall Vote
(d) Quorum.

29. Ancient treatise on law
(a) Vedas
(b) Upanishads
(c) Smritis
(d) Shrutis.

30. Muslim religious foundations
(a) Ulema
(b) Jihad
(c) Quzat
(d) Wakfs.

31. The maximum litigation in Courts is caused by
(a) Businessmen
(b) Middle class
(c) Government
(d) Criminals.

32. The first-regular adjudicatory mobile court in the country has been inaugurated at Punbanna village in
(a) Haryana
(b) Bihar
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Punjab.

33. Dissolution of Muslim Marriage Act, 1939 provides grounds of dissolution of Muslim marriage to
(a) Spouses
(b) Only males
(c) Only females
(d) Muslim parents and parents-in-law.

34. A married man commits adultery if he has sexual intercourse with a/an
(a) Unmarried woman
(b) Married woman
(c) Any woman except his wife
(d) Unmarried woman without her consent.

35. A husband is obliged to maintain his divorced wife
(a) Forever
(b) For 20 years
(c) Till the children grow up
(d) Till she gets re-married.

36. Match the following:
(I) Default (a) Failure to do something required by law
(II) Delict (b) A wrongful act
(III) Derelict (c) A thing thrown away by its owner
(IV) Dictum (d) A judge’s observation
(a) I-A, II-C, III-D, IV-B
(b) I-D, II-C, III-B, IV-A
(c) I-C, II-D, III-A, IV-B
(d) I-A, II-B, III-C, IV-D

37. You send your servant with a typewriter to be delivered to your friend. The servant takes the typewriter home and uses it over a period of time. You discovered this a fortnight later and report him for
(a) Cheating
(b) Embezzlement
(c) Fraud
(d) Forgery.

38. India and Britain have signed an ‘Extradition treaty’. Extradition means
(a) Exports without double taxation
(b) Order of Indian Courts will apply to Indians living in the UK
(c) India and the U.K. will deport criminals on reciprocal basis to each other
(d) None of the above.

39. Genocide occurred in all but one case
(a) Bosnia
(b) Nazi Germany
(c) Rwanda
(d) Gulf War.

40. High sea is
(a) Sea lying more than 5 km beyond the coast of a country
(b) Sea lying beyond a distance of 3 miles from the coast of any country
(c) Sea beyond 200 miles of a coast of any country
(d) Both (a) and (b) .

41. Which Inn of Court called Gandhiji to the Bar?
(a) Inner Temple
(b) Middle Temple
(c) Lincoln’s Inn
(d) Gray’s Inn.

Directions: Answer the questions 42-50, which follow from application of the under-mentioned legal principle:

42. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Nothing is an offence which is done in the exercise of right of private defence. This right also extends to lawfully causing the death of the assailant, if the offence which occasions the exercise of the right of private defence, be
(i) An assault which reasonably causes the apprehension of death or grievous hurt (very serious hurt)
(ii) An assault which causes reasonable apprehension of rape
(iii) An assault which causes reasonable apprehension of kidnapping.
This right is available for protecting one’s own body, as well as the body of any other, provided the assault is not self invited.
Decide whether the right of private defence is available in the following situation:
FACTUAL SITUATION: A was holding the birthday party of his daughter. Some of his friends decided to present her with a car. To create an element of surprise, they decided to kidnap her for a few minutes while the party was in full swing and then get her back in the new car. They put the plan into action. While they were kidnapping, A got very alarmed and asked the guards to open fire. The guards killed all the five friends. A is
(a) not protected
(b) protected because he did not kill, the guards did
(c) not protected because A’s own body was not involved
(d) protected because to any ordinary person there would have appeared a reasonable apprehension of kidnapping.

43. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: When a contract has been broken, the party who suffers by such breach is entitled to receive, from the party who has broken the contract, compensation for any loss or damage caused to him thereby, which naturally arose in the usual course of things from such breach, or which the parties knew, when they made the contract to be likely to result from the breach of it. Such compensation is not given for any remote or indirect loss or damage sustained by reason of the breach.
Decide, whether and to what extent B is entitled to damages in the following situation:
FACTUAL SITUATION: A contracts with B to sell him 1,000 tons of iron at Rs. 100 per tonne. B tells A that he needs the iron for export purposes, and that he would be selling the iron at Rs. 200 per tonne. A breaks the contract. When the question comes about damages, A says he will pay only Rs. 5,000 as damages because the same variety of iron was available in the market at Rs. 105 per tonne. B however contends that he should be given Rs. 1,00,000 because that was the profit which he would have made had A fulfilled the contract. B had actually bought the iron at Rs. 110 and had exported it. B is
(a) not entitled to damages
(b) entitled to Rs. 10,000 as damages
(c) entitled to Rs. 5,000 as damages
(d) entitled to Rs. 1,00,000 as damages.

44. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Contract is an agreement freely entered into between the parties.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Tapan was a dealer in mustard oil. The Government of India by an order issued under the Essential Commodities Act, fixed the price of mustard oil, and also the quantity which a person can buy from the dealer.
Tapan carried on his business under this order for a while, but he refused to pay sales tax on his sale transactions on the ground that these were not the contracts freely entered into by him.
(a) Tapan would succeed because the price and quantity were not negotiated by him
(b) Tapan would not succeed because free consent between the parties was there despite the restriction on price and quantity
(c) He would succeed because the Government under the new order forced him to enter into contracts
(d) Both (a) and (c) .

45. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: An occupier is not normally liable to a trespasser except in respect of wilful act intended to cause him harm or done with reckless disregard.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Tony, a richman, had kept a ferocious dog to guard his house. He strictly instructed all his servants not to go near the dog. Further a special attender was hired to take care of the dog. Visitors were warned by a prominent warning sign board about this dog.
One day, a 13 year old boy playing in the neighbourhood, running after his ball got into the house. The dog attacked him and killed him. Tony was sued for damages.
(a) Tony was not liable because the boy was a trespasser
(b) Tony is not liable because a 13 year old boy ought to have known about the presence of the ferocious dog
(c) Tony is liable of the negligence of his servant to keep watch on such a ferocious dog during the day time
(d) Both (a) and (b) .

46. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: A master will be liable for the wrongful acts of his servants in the course of employment.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Maria was an old widow who opened an account with the Indian Overseas Bank, whereby she would deposit Rs. 5 everyday in the bank. Stephen was her neighbour who used to collect the amount and deposit them in the bank. Stephen would get a small commission from the bank for the money deposited. One day it was discovered that Stephen who had not deposited the money for more than three months, had vanished with the amount. Maria filed a suit against the Bank.
(a) Bank would not be liable because Stephen was not an employee of the bank.
(b) Bank would not be liable for the failure of Maria to check the balance in her account
(c) Bank would be liable because Stephen was paid commission by the bank for doing its work
(d) None of the above.

47. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The contract after death of one party can be continued if it is ratified by the surviving party.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Vishal, a famous artist was requested by Arun, an industrialist to draw the portrait of his deceased wife and paid Rs. 20,000 in advance and agreed to pay when the work was completed, a sum of Rs. 2 lakhs. When the portrait was half drawn, Vishal died due to heart attack. His son also a fine artist completed his father’s work and demanded the money from Arun. Arun refused to pay and to accept the portrait drawn by Vishal’s son and also demanded the advance to be returned.
(a) Arun cannot demand the advance amount from the son of Vishal, because in normal cases the son is not responsible for the father’s contractual obligation
(b) Son of Vishal cannot demand the rest of amount from Arun because Arun has not assigned him the work
(c) Arun can demand the rest of the amount
(d) Both (a) and (b) .

48. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Ignorance of law is not an excuse in India with the practice that every person in India should be acquainted with the law of land.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Mr. Jackson, a foreigner, came to Delhi in the winter season. He saw the people in Delhi set fire on road side during night and get their body warm. One night he came out of his hotel and asked two labourers to cut down a dry tree in Pandara Road and when they agreed he paid them Rs. 150 Indian currency for cutting down the tree. They cut and made the log into small pieces and the foreigner along with the tree cutters set
fire and got their body warm. After some 50. time, the Police Patrol car watched it and arrested the foreigner and two labourers on the spot. The foreigner pleaded that the tree was dry and he did not know the cutting of tree from road side is an offence in India.
(a) The foreigner shall not be responsible for the offence because he himself has not cut the tree but got it cut through the Indian people
(b) The foreigner shall be punished because in India cutting of tree from road side is an offence
(c) The pretence that he does not know such act is an offence is not an excuse for a foreigner also
(d) Both (b) and (c) .

49. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: The occupier of a premises owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
FACTUAL SITUATION: Devi who was the owner of a big home with a compound
wall, constructed an underground tank to store water. This was covered by jute bags since the work was incomplete. The postman who came inside to deliver a registered letter, fell into this tank and hurt himself. There was also a box on the outside of the compound wall, where all the mail could be deposited. The injured man filed a suit against Devi claiming compensation.
(a) Devi is not liable, because she did not invite the postman to her house
(b) Devi is not liable, because the postman could have delivered the letter in the box on the outside of the compound wall
(c) Devi is not liable because the postman was required to take care of himself
(d) Devi is liable because the postman came into the premises in the course of his duty.

50. LEGAL PRINCIPLE: Even if the sovereign functions of the State are discharged negligently the State is not vicariously liable in tort.
FACTUAL SITUATION: ‘A’ was a trader in gold. He was arrested by Police and was detained in the police lock up after search. The gold with him along with sundry other things were seized. Later he was discharged. His possessions seized by the police were returned, except the gold. He moved against the State in tort. In the words of Supreme Court, “There can be no escape from the conclusion that the Police Officers were negligent in dealing with the property after it was seized.” One of the Constables was a Muslim. He fled with gold to Pakistan.
(a) ‘A’ succeeded because the servants of the State were negligent and thus caused injury
(b) ‘A’ failed because the Constable who seized the gold had fled to Pakistan and the gold was not with the State at all
(c) ‘A’ failed because the acts of search and seizure by the Police Officer were part of the sovereign function of the State
(d) There was some other relief given to ‘A’.

Directions: For questions 51-52, select the pair of the words nearest in meaning to the original.

(a) Watered : Garden
(b) Dilapidated : Building
(c) Frozen : Ice
(d) Crumpled : Paper.

(a) Cook: Mother
(b) Argue: Lawyer
(c) Float: Astronaut
(d) Sky jump : Parachutists.

Fill in the Blank with the appropriate option:

53. Judicial decrees may not change the heart, but they can ________ the heartless.
(a) Transform
(b) Subdue
(c) Disarm
(d) Regulate.

Directions: In the following questions 54-57, choose the word which is most nearly the SAME in meaning to the word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

54. Charlatan
(a) Monster
(b) Pre-historic man
(c) Quack
(d) An ex-convict.

55. Cavil
(a) Frivolous objection
(b) To criticize sharply; reprove
(c) Moving away from centre
(d) Working of brain; thought process.

56. Cynosure
(a) Able to co-exist
(b) Brief
(c) Centre of attention
(d) Abridgement

57. Consummate
(a) One at zenith of perfection
(b) Existing from birth
(c) Constant; always present
(d) A history.

Directions: In the following questions 58-62, choose the word which is most nearly the OPPOSITE in meaning to the word and mark it in the Answer Sheet.

58. Equanimity
(a) Resentment
(b) Dubiousness
(c) Duplicity
(d) Excitement.

59. Palliate
(a) Apologise
(b) Hesitate
(c) Wait impatiently
(d) Cure completely.

60. Obsequious
(a) Brusque
(b) Quick-witted
(c) Sharp-tongued
(d) Luxurious.

61. Obstreperous
(a) Critical
(b) Unruly
(c) Unpleasing
(d) Weak.

62. Endemic
(a) Decorative
(b) Frustrating
(a) Terrorising
(b) Universal.

Directions: Pick the correct answer choice for filing the blanks in each of the following sentences.

63. I was surprised ________
(a) at his letting out the secret
(b) why he let out the secret
(c) that he let out the secret
(d) by his letting out the secret.

64. It is not possible to _______
(a) mix oil in water
(b) mix oil into water
(c) mix oil with water
(d) mix oil by water.

65. He ________ and escaped.
(a) forced the door open
(b) forced open the door
(c) open forced the door
(d) the door forced open.

66. Let _______ finish this work as soon as possible.
(a) you and I
(b) you and me
(c) I and you
(d) me and you.

67. ________ the room the door hit him on the brow.
(a) While entering
(b) As he entered
(c) On entering
(d) On having entered.

Directions: For the questions 68-72, some of the sentences have errors and some have none. Find out which part of the sentence has an error.

68. He returned back/(a) when he sensed/(b) that there was danger./(c) No error/(d) .

69. The progress of these plants/(a) is not being very encouraging/(b) and they are in various stages of decay./(c)No error/ (d) .

70. Not only the bandits robbed/(a) the traveller of his purse/(b) but also wounded him grievously./(c) No error/(d) .

71. No less than twenty persons/(a) were killed in/(b) the air crash./(c) No error/ (d) .

72. The police went through the building/(a) with fine toothcombs/(b)but they found no evidence/(c)No error/(d) .

Directions: For the questions 73-75 the first and the last sentence of the paragraph are given. Other sentences are given in jumbled form. You have to arrange the sentences as to make it a readable passage.

73. (1) Some people seem to have a compulsive need to work continually, they may be called work-addicts.
(M) However they never quite reach the top.
(N) There are companies which expect everyone to be at work early and stay back late.
(O) Because of their diligence they tend to get rapid promotion at first.
(P) Work addicts generally end up in such organisations.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) PNMO
(b) MOPN
(c) OMNP
(d) NPOM.

74. (1) If you feed a dog or tame a bear by hand
(P) or until they succeed in getting it
(Q) and tear and pull at it
(R) they get their teeth into the meat
(S) until they bite a piece off
(6) all out of your hand.
The correct sequence should be:
(a) PSRQ
(b) SQRP
(c) RPSQ
(d) RQSP.

75. (1) St. Francis taught that
(P) and that it was easier to be good
(Q) if men would be happy
(R) they must be good
(S) and happy if one were poor
(6) and did not trouble oneself about money
The correct sequence should be:
(a) PQRS
(b) RPSQ
(c) QRPS
(d) PSQR.

76. In France, children in pre-school programs spend a portion of each day engaged in a program of stretching and exercise. Pre-school programs in the United States, however, seldom devote time to a daily stretching and exercise program. In tests designed to measure cardiovascular fitness, children in the United States were out-performed by their French counterparts. It can therefore be determined that children attending pre-school programs in the United States can achieve cardiovascular fitness only by engaging in a daily school program of stretching and exercise.
Which one of the following is an assumption on which the argument depends?
(a) A daily program of stretching and exercise will allow all children to achieve cardiovascular fitness
(b) Cardiovascular fitness is integral to one’s overall health
(c) It has been proven that children who participate in stretching and exercise programs in pre-school have better cardiovascular fitness than adults
(d) Stretching and exercise are necessary components of French children’s
superior cardiovascular fitness programs

77. The level of blood sugar for many patients suffering from disease Q is slightly higher than the level of blood sugar in the general population. Nonetheless, most medical professionals believe that slightly increasing blood sugar levels is a successful means by which to treat disease Q.
This apparently contradictory argument can best be resolved by which one of the following statements?
(a) Blood sugar levels for patients who have been cured of disease Q are virtually identical to the levels of blood sugar found in the general population
(b) Many of the symptoms associated with severe cases of disease Q have been recognized in laboratory animals with experimentally induced high blood pressure, but none of the animals developed disease Q
(c) The movement from inactive to advanced states of disease Q often occurs because the virus that causes disease Q flourishes during periods when blood sugar levels are slightly low
(d) The blood sugar level in patients with disease Q fluctuates abnormally in response to changes in blood chemistry.

78. Medical studies indicate that the metabolic rates of professional athletes are substantially greater than those of the average person. So, most likely, a person’s speed and strength are primarily determined by that person’s metabolic rate.
Which one of the following, if true, most strengthens the argument?
(a) Some professional athletes are either faster or stronger than the average person
(b) Some professional athletes do not have higher metabolic rates than some people who are not professional athletes
(c) The speed and strength of people who are not professional athletes are not primarily determined by choices of diet and exercise
(d) Drugs that suppress metabolic rate have been shown to have the side- effect of diminishing the speed and strength of those who are not professional athletes

79. Since Oscar received extensive training in how to repair motorcycles, he is able to repair many of their most common mechanical problems. However, Oscar does not understand how internal combustion engines work. When Oscar was given Lucy’s motorcycle to repair, he was able to fix the problem, despite the fact that he did not understand what was causing it.
From the above paragraph, which of the following can be properly inferred?
(a) The problem with Lucy’s motorcycle involved its engine
(b) Not all mechanical problems can be repaired only by mechanics who understand how an internal combustion engine works
(c) At least some good mechanics are able to fix mechanical problems without an understanding of what is causing them
(d) Oscar’s mechanical training in how to repair motorcycles was incomplete.

80. It cannot be true that the lack of success of third-party candidates in national elections is due to the difficulties such candidates encounter in securing space on national ballots. Everyone who identifies him or herself as a supporter of a third party has voted for a major-party candidate in at least one national election when a third-party candidate was listed on the ballot.
Which one of the following most accurately describes a reasoning flaw in the argument?
(a) The argument overlooks the possibility that the lack of success of third-party candidates in national elections may be due to the fact that their views on major issues prevent them from gaining broad support
(b) The argument takes for granted that the media coverage devoted to third- party candidates for national office is comparable to that devoted to major- party candidates for those same offices
(c) The argument treats as contradictory to some claim evidence that may instead provide support for that claim
(d) The argument draws its conclusion through the use of a set of facts, not all of which can be true.

81. The petrol prices shot up by 7% as a result of the hike in the price of crudes. The price of petrol before the hike was Rs. 28 per litre. Vawal travels 2400 kilometres every month and his car gives a mileage of 18 kilometres to a litre. Find the increase in the expenditure that Vawal has to incur due to the increase in the price of petrol (to the nearest rupee)?
(a) Rs. 270
(b) Rs. 262
(c) Rs. 276
(d) Rs. 272.

82. The cost of setting up the type of a magazine is Rs.1000. The cost of running the printing machine is Rs. 120 per 100 copies, the cost of paper, ink and so on is 60 paise per copy. The magazines are sold at Rs.2.75 each. 900 copies are printed, but only 784 copies are sold. What is the sum to be obtained from advertisements to give a profit of 10% on the cost?
(a) Rs. 730
(b) Rs. 720
(c) Rs. 726
(d) Rs. 736.

83. A sum is divided between A and B in the ratio of 1 : 2. A purchased a car from his part, which depreciates 14 2/7 % per annum and B deposited his amount in a bank, which pays him 20% interest per annum compounded annually. By what percentage will the total sum of money increase after two years due to this investment pattern (approximately)?
(a) 20%
(b) 26.66%
(c) 30%
(d) 25%.

84. Two cubes of bronze have their total weight equivalent to 60 kg. The first piece contains 10 kg of pure zinc and the second piece contains 8 kg of pure zinc. What is the percentage of zinc in the first piece of bronze if the second piece contains 15 per cent more zinc than the first?
(a) 15%
(b) 25%
(c) 55%
(d) 24%.

85. An ant moved for several seconds and covered 3 mm in the first second and 4 mm more in each successive second than in its predecessor. If the ant had covered 1 mm in the first second and 8 mm more in each successive second, then the difference between the path it would cover during the same time and the actual path would be more than 6 mm but less than 30 mm. Find the time for which the ant moved (in seconds).
(a) 5 s
(b) 4 s
(c) 6 s
(d) None of these.

86. The number of natural numbers of two or more than two digits in which digits from left to right are in increasing order is
(a) 127
(b) 128
(c) 502
(d) 501.

87. The Bubna dam has four inlets. Through the first three inlets, the dam can be filled in 12 minutes; through the second, the third and the fourth inlet, it can be filled in 15 minutes; and through the first and the fourth inlet, in 20 minutes. How much time will it take for all the four inlets to fill up the dam?
(a) 8 min
(b) 10 min
(c) 12 min
(d) None of these.

88. Find the sum of all two-digit numbers that give a remainder of 3 when they are divided by 7.
(a) 686
(b) 676
(c) 666
(d) 656.

89. A train travels with a speed of 20 m/s in the first 10 minutes, goes 8.5 kms in the next 10 minutes, 11 kms in the next 10 minutes, 8.5 kms in the next 10 minutes and 6 kms in the next 10 minutes. What is the average speed of the train in kilometre per hour for the journey described?
(a) 42 kmph
(b) 35.8 kmph
(c) 55.2 kmph
(d) 46 kmph.

90. Two solutions of 90% and 97% purity are mixed resulting in 21 litres of mixture of 94% purity. How much is the quantity of the first solution in the resulting mixture?
(a) 15 litres
(b) 12 litres
(c) 9 litres
(d) 6 litres.

Directions: For questions 91-94, some information is provided in the form of statements. On the basis of that information find the answer to the questions which follow.

Coach Balkishen is trying to put together a team of four players for a tennis tournament. He has seven players available: males A, B and C and the females M, N, O and P. All players are of equal ability and there must be at least two males on the team. For a team of four, all players must be able to play with each other player.
• Player B cannot play with player M
• Player C cannot play with player P
• Player M cannot play with player O

91. If player O is selected and player B is rejected the team will consist of which foursome?
(a) A, C, M and O
(b) A, C, N and O
(c) A, C, P and O
(d) A, N, P and O.

92. If player M is on the team, what other players must be on the team as well?
(a) A, B and N
(b) A, C and N
(c) A, C and O
(d) A, C and P.

93. Which statement is false?
(M) Player B and C are never together selected
(N) Player C and O are never together selected
(O) Player C and N are never together selected
(a) Only M
(b) Only N
(c) Only O
(d) All the three.

94. Which statement must always be true?
(M) If M plays, A plays
(N) If O plays, B plays
(O) If M plays, O plays
(a) Only M
(b) Only N
(c) Only O
(d) Only M and O.

95. The door of my house is towards east direction. From the backside of my house I drove straight 100 metres, then turned towards right and drove for 100 metres, then turned towards left and drove for 50 metres and reached my destination. In what direction am I from the starting point?
(a) North-west
(b) West
(c) North
(d) East.

Directions: Each interrogative statement 96-97 is followed by two arguments. You are to pick up one of the following responses as the answer.

96. Should divorce laws be made more favourable to women in India?
(X) Yes, because women are persecuted by their husbands in India.
(Y) No, because it will disrupt family life.
(a) Argument ‘X’ is forceful
(b) Argument ‘Y’ is forceful
(c) Neither ‘X’ nor ‘Y’ is forceful
(d) Both ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are forceful.

97. Is leisure irrelevant to modem life?
(M) Yes, because life has become too much mechanical today.
(N) No, because without leisure efficiency will fall, body and brain must be given rest.
(a) Only argument ‘M’ is forceful
(b) Only argument ‘N’ is forceful
(c) Both ‘M’ and ‘N’ are forceful
(d) Neither ‘M’ nor ‘N’ is forceful

98. The island of Bombay was acquired by the East India Company from
(a) Netherlands
(b) France
(c) Portugal
(d) Spain.

99. The outstanding achievement of Todar Mai was in the field of
(a) Military Conquests
(b) Revenue Administration
(c) Religious Reforms
(d) Art and Architecture.

100. The deity most praised in Rigveda is
(a) Indra
(b) Agni
(c) Mitra
(d) Varuna.

101. The Peacock throne of Shahjahan was taken away by
(a) Changez Khan
(b) Timur
(c) Nadir Shah
(d) Ahmad Shah Abdali.

102. Shivaji’s Council of Ministers was called
(a) Nava Patna’s
(b) Ashta Pradhans
(c) Ashta Diggajas
(d) Mantri Parishad.

103. Charak was the court physician of
(a) Ashoka
(b) Kanishka
(c) Chandragupta Maurya
(d) Samudragupta.

104. Which of the following reasons was mainly responsible for the unpopularity of Muhammad-bin-Tughlaq?
(a) Bad luck
(b) Lack of resources
(c) Subordination of the theologians
(d) Transfer of capital from Delhi to Devagiri

105. The empire of the ‘Satavahana kings’ is known by which of the following names at present?
(a) Andhra Pradesh
(b) Punjab
(c) Gujarat
(d) Uttar Pradesh.

106. The High Courts at Calcutta, Madras and Bombay were established under the
(a) Indian High Courts Act, 1911
(b) Government of India Act, 1909
(c) Indian High Courts Act, 1861
(d) Indian High Courts Act, 1865.

107. Which of the following rulers was illiterate?
(a) Ala-ud-din Khilji
(b) Mohammad-Bin-Tughlak
(c) Akbar
(d) Aurangzeb.

108. If the original clay sediments are subjected to high temperature and pressure, they successfully change into rocks, the correct order of which is
(a) Slate, Shale, Schist
(b) Slate, Schist, Shale
(c) Shale, Slate, Schist
(d) Shale, Schist, Slate.

109. Exfoliation in granite is regarded as a process of
(a) Chemical weathering
(b) Mechanical weathering
(c) Faulting
(d) Folding.

110. The tree species most commonly used in social forestry is
(a) Gulmohar
(b) Mango
(c) Pipal
(d) Eucalyptus.

111. The Hindustan-Tibet road connects
(a) Kalimpong with Lhasa
(b) Shimla with Gangtok
(c) Leh and Lhasa
(d) Gangtok with Gyangyse.

112. The Aswan Dam is constructed at a point where
(a) there are several waterfalls
(b) there are several cataracts
(c) there are several pigeon towers to facilitate the collection of droppings needed to keep the land productive
(d) the old traditional basic irrigation facility exists.

113. The difference in time per degree longitude between any two places on globe is
(a) 4 minutes
(b) 5 minutes
(c) 15 minutes
(d) 30 minutes.

114. The limit beyond which stars suffer internal collapse is called
(a) Chandrasekhar limit
(b) Eddington limit
(c) Hoyle limit
(d) Fowler limit.

115. The best anti-knock compound used in petrol to increase mileage is
(a) Ethyl-magnesium chloride
(b) Sodium ethoxide
(c) Zinc ethyl
(d) Tetraethyl lead.

116. Rainbow is produced when sunlight falls on drops of rain. Which of the following physical phenomena are responsible for this?
(I) Dispersion
(II) Refraction
(III) Internal Reflection
(a) II and III only
(b) I and II only
(c) I, II and III
(d) I and III only.

117. Which of the following bombs, when dropped on a city, will kill only the inhabitants?
(a) Atom Bomb
(b) Hydrogen Bomb
(c) Chemical Bomb
(d) Neutron Bomb.

118. Which of the following will you use to remove rust stains on cloth?
(a) Alcohol
(b) Oxalic acid solution
(c) Kerosene oil
(d) Lime.

119. “Mach Number” is a term associated with the speed of
(a) Ships
(b) Cars
(c) Aeroplanes
(d) Light.

120. If an object is placed midway between two parallel plane mirrors facing each other, then the number of images that will appear in mirrors is
(a) Four
(b) Infinite
(c) Two
(d) Zero because the images will cancel each other.

121. The spherical shape of rain drops is due to
(a) Atmospheric friction of air
(b) Gravity of spherical earth
(c) Surface tension of rain water
(d) Viscosity of rain water.

122. What is the colour of pure diamond?
(a) Light green
(b) Light yellow
(c) Light blue
(d) Light pink.

123. Geiger counter is an instrument
(a) to determine the heart beat rate
(b) to detect radioactive radiation
(c) to measure intensity of visible light
(d) to count the baggage of an airport

124. The film of oil and soapy water owe their brilliant colours to a combination of light reflection and
(a) Refraction
(b) Polarisation
(c) Diffraction
(d) Interference.

125. When a ship enters a sea from a river, its portion under water will
(a) Increase
(b) Decrease
(c) Show no change
(d) Increase or decrease alternatively.

126. For digestion of food, hydrocholoric acid is secreted into stomach at a pH value of
(a) 2
(b) 4
(c) 6
(d) 18.

127. Which of the following diseases is genetically linked?
(a) Epilepsy
(b) Diabetes
(c) Colour blindness
(d) Leucoderma.

128. An eye defect in which one cannot distinguish between vertical and horizontal lines is called
(a) Myopia
(b) Astigmatism
(c) Trachoma
(d) Glaucoma.

129. The gland which is attached to the digestive system but does not have any role to play in digesting food is
(a) Salivary gland
(b) Liver
(c) Spleen
(d) Pancreas.

130. A reptile with a four-chambered heart is
(a) Snake
(b) Lizard
(c) Crocodile
(d) Turtle.

131. Ahmedabad-based Pioma Industries is best known for which brand?
(a) Maggi
(b) Kissan
(c) Brooke-Bond
(d) Rasna.

132. Australian cricketer Brett Lee models for which watch company?
(a) Timex
(b) HMT
(c) Titan
(d) All of these.

133. Sunita Williams, renowned astronaut of Indian origin, spent a record ……….. days in space.
(a) 195
(b) 185
(c) 200
(d) 201.

134. ‘Bullion’ refers to gold, silver or other precious metals in the form of
(a) Ingots or bars only
(b) Bars as well as coins
(c) Coins only
(d) Jewellery.

135. What does “R” in Maruti Suzuki’s small car WagonR stand for?
(a) Responsible
(b) Remarkable
(c) Reliable
(d) Recreation.

136. Which of the following took over the Anglo-Dutch steel Company Corns?
(a) Arcelor Mittal
(b) Jindal Steel
(c) Neelanchal Ispat Nigam Ltd.
(d) Tata Steel.

137. What is Phishing?
(a) A Government Plan
(b) A stem cell
(c) Fradulent way of acquiring PIN and bank passwords using e-mail
(d) None of these.

138. Which organisation is headed by Indian environmentalist R.K. Pachauri who has been awarded the Nobel Peace Prize, 2007 along with A1 Gore?
(a) International Panel on Climate Change (IPCC)
(b) International Pollution Control Board
(c) International Environment Panel
(d) International Panel on Global Warming.

139. The Government of India recently decided to halt the Future Trading of which of the following commodities for the time being?
(a) Jeera
(b) Soya Oil
(c) Wheat
(d) Gram.

140. Which game will be played for the first time in Asian Games, 2010?
(a) Kabaddi
(b) Twenty20 Cricket
(c) Squash
(d) Kho-kho.

141. Who is the Managing Director of the Delhi Metro Railway Corporation?
(a) B.L. Joshi, Lt. Governor of Delhi
(b) Sam Pitroda
(c) Chairman of the Indian Railway Board
(d) Mangu Singh.

142. Which country has recently adopted its new National Anthem?
(a) Israel
(b) Bangladesh
(c) Indonesia
(d) Iraq.

143. Which among the following films has got the ‘Swama Kamal Award’ for Best Feature Film in 59th National Film Awards?
(a) Parineeta
(b) Sringarm
(c) Iqbal
(d) Deool, Byari.

144. Which of the following is/are included in the UNESCO’s natural heritage site in India?
(1) Keoladeo
(2) Kaziranga National Park
(3) Manas Tiger Project
(4) Nanda Devi Biosphere Reserve
(a) 1 and 2
(b) 2 and 3
(c) 3 and 4
(d) All.

145. Which of the following is India’s indigenous helicopter weaponised version made its first flight recently?
(a) Dhruv
(b) Cheetah
(c) Chetak
(d) Rajhans.

Directions: Passage in this section is followed by a group of questions 146-150 to be answered on the basis of what is stated or implied in the passage. For some questions, more than one of the choices could conceivably answer the question. However, you are to choose the best answer, that is, the response that most accurately and completely answers the question and blacken the corresponding space on your answer sheet.

One of the most prolific authors of all time, Isaac Asimov was influential both in science fiction and in the popularization of science during the twentieth century, but he is also justly famous for the scope of his interests. Although the common claim that Asimov is the only author to have written a book in every category of the Dewey decimal system is untrue, its spirit provides an accurate picture of the man: a dedicated humanist who lauded the far- reaching power of reason. His most famous work, the Foundation trilogy, can be read as an illustration of Asimov’s belief in reason and science, but even while he expressed that belief, science itself was calling it into question.
Foundation describes a time in which a vast Empire spanning the galaxy is on the verge of collapse. Its inevitable doom is a consequence not of its size, but of the short sightedness of its leaders. In this environment, a scientist named Hari Seldon devises an all-encompassing plan to help human civilization recover from the trauma of the Empire’s coming collapse. Using mathematics, Seldon is able to predict the future course of history for thousands of years, and he takes steps that are geared toward guiding that future in a beneficial direction. The trope of the benevolent and paternalistic scientist shaping existence from behind the scenes, present in much of Asimov’s fiction, is never more explicit than in the Foundation series, which describes with an epic sweep the course and progress of the Seldon Plan.
As naive and, perhaps, self-serving as the conceit of Foundation may seem to contemporary readers, it retains to some degree its ability to comfort by offering an antidote to the complex and unpredictable nature of experience. Science in Asimov’s time was, in popular conceptions, engaged in just this pursuit: discerning immutable laws that operate beneath a surface appearance of contingency, inexplicability, and change. But even while Asimov wrote, science itself was changing. In Physics, the study of matter at the subatomic level showed that indeterminacy was not a transitory difficulty to be overcome, but an essential physical principle. In Biology, the sense of evolution as a steady progress toward better-adapted forms was being disturbed by proof of a past large-scale evolution taking place in brief explosions, of frantic change. At the time of Asimov’s death, even Mathematics was gaining popular notice for its interest in chaos and inexplicability. Usually summarized in terms of the so-called ‘butterfly effect’, chaos theory showed that perfect prediction could take place only on the basis of perfect information, which was by nature impossible to obtain. Science had dispensed with the very assumptions that motivated Asimov’s idealization of it in the Seldon Plan. Indeed, it was possible to see chaos at work in Foundation itself: As sequels multiplied and began to be tied into narrative threads from Asimov’s other novels, the urge to weave one grand narrative spawned myriad internal inconsistencies that were never resolved.

146. Which one of the following most accurately expresses the main point of the passage?
(a) Isaac Asimov’s greatest work, the Foundation trilogy, is an expression of the common trope of the benevolent and paternalistic scientist
(b) Popularizations of science are always to some degree dependent idelizations and simplifications of that science, as Isaac Asimov’s work demonstrates
(c) The impossibility of the conceit on which Isaac Asimov’s Foundation trilogy is based demonstrates that Asimov’s fiction was based on imperfect understandings of science.
(d) Isaac Asimov’s idealization of science as revealed in his Foundation series was called into question by the science of his time, which was increasingly focused on chaos and indeterminacy.

147. Which one of the following statements most accurately expresses the purpose of the final paragraph?
(a) The ultimate failure of the Foundation series as a coherent scientific narrative is discussed
(b) A claim is made about the purpose of Asimov’s writing and then is finally rejected
(c) A key theme of Asimov’s Foundation series is described and discoveries in science that seem contrary to that theme are outlined
(d) The history of science is used to demonstrate the falsity of a widely believed claim about the power of human reason.

148. The author’s reference to a common claim made about Isaac Asimov, serves to
(a) Demonstrate that many untrue beliefs are held about him
(b) Illustrate the broad scope of his interests and writings
(c) Undermine the claim that he was a prolific writer
(d) Substantiate his belief in the power of human reason.

149. With respect to the Seldon Plan, the author’s attitude can most properly be described as
(a) Amused at the naive conception of history it implies
(b) Uncertain of the practical impossibility of its application
(c) Ambivalent because of the reliance on human reason it requires
(d) Convinced that it illustrates Asimov’s attitude toward science.

150. Which one of the following statements best illustrates the “butterfly effect” as it is described in the passage’s third paragraph?
(a) A system implemented to predict the weather worldwide for the next century is soon found to be inaccurate because it was supplied with incomplete data
(b) Efforts to predict the result of a nuclear reaction fail because of indeterminacy inherent in the behavior of subatomic particles
(c) The fossil record indicates that certain adaptations found in many organisms appeared soon after a past catastrophic event
(d) Scientific predictions about the future course of human history are found to be reasonably accurate once existing social theories are reconciled.

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