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Constitution of India Test 5: Fully Solved

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πŸ“ Constitution Test 5 [Fully Solved] | Important Questions with Answers

πŸ“˜ Constitution Test 5 – Fully Solved Questions

βœ… Fully solved Constitution Test 5 questions and answers.
Useful for Judiciary Exams, UPSC, CLAT, LLB, LLM and other competitive exams.

Questions & Answers

51. Right to life includes right to reputation was recognised in:
1. Karma Dorji v. Union of India, AIR 2017 SC 113
2. Shyam Narayan Chouksey v. Union of India (2017) 1 SCC 421
3. Archbishop Raphael Cheenath S.V.D. v. State of Orissa, AIR 2016 SC 3639
4. Dr. Subramanian Swamy v. Union of India, AIR 2016 SC 2728

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 4
52. Which of the following is the correct position in law regarding administration of narco-analysis techniques, in the light of the judgment in Selvi v. State of Karnataka (2010) 7 SCC 263?
(i) Compulsory administration constitutes cruel, inhuman or degrading treatment in the context of Article 21.
(ii) Compulsory administration violates the right against self-incrimination under Article 20(3).
(iii) Compulsory administration may, however, be justifiable in compelling public interest in combatting terrorist activities.
(iv) Information subsequently discovered with the help of voluntarily administered narco-analysis results may be admitted in evidence.
1. (i), (ii) and (iv) only
2. (i) and (ii) only
3. (iii) and (iv) only
4. (ii) and (iv) only

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
53. Double Jeopardy means:
1. No person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same offence more than once.
2. No person shall be prosecuted for two offences simultaneously.
3. No person shall be prosecuted and compelled to be a witness in the same case simultaneously.
4. No person shall be sued for a civil wrong and prosecuted for an offence simultaneously.

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
54. The National Judicial Appointments Commission Act, 2014 was declared as unconstitutional and void in:
1. Supreme Court Advocate-on-Record Association v. Union of India (2016) 5 SCC 1
2. Common Cause v. Union of India (2015) 6 SCC 332
3. Madras Bar Association v. Union of India, AIR 2015 SC 1571
4. Youth Bar Association of India v. Union of India (2016) 9 SCC 473

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
55. Part IX of the Constitution of India providing for constitution of Panchayats was introduced to give effect to which provision of the Constitution?
1. Article 40
2. Article 23
3. Article 21A
4. Article 48

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
56. Consider the following statements:
1. A person who has held office as a permanent Judge of a High Court cannot plead or act in any court or before any authority in India except the Supreme Court.
2. A person is not qualified for appointment as a Judge of a High Court in India unless he has for at least five years held a judicial office in the territory of India.
Which of the statements given above is/are correct?
1. Only 2
2. Neither 1 nor 2
3. Both 1 & 2
4. Only 1

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 2
57. Which of the following statement(s) is/are correct, regarding the duties and rights of the Attorney-General for India in performance of his duties?
(i) The Attorney-General for India shall give advice to the Government of India upon legal matters.
(ii) The Attorney-General for India shall have a right to audience in all Courts in India.
(iii) The Attorney-General for India shall have the right to speak in the proceedings of either House.
(iv) The Attorney-General for India shall not be liable to any proceedings in any court in respect of anything said by him in Parliament or any committee thereof.
1. (i) only
2. (i), (ii) and (iii) only
3. (i) and (ii) only
4. All of these statements are correct

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 4
58. Which Constitution (Amendment) Act brought about modifications to Fundamental Rights, Directive Principles of State Policy as well as Fundamental Duties?
1. The Constitution (Eightieth Amendment) Act, 1999
2. The Constitution (Eighty-sixth Amendment) Act, 2002
3. The Constitution (Ninety-third Amendment) Act, 2005
4. The Constitution (One Hundredth Amendment) Act, 2015

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 2
59. On which of the following matter in List II to Seventh Schedule of the Constitution of India is the Legislative Assembly for the National Capital Territory of Delhi empowered to make laws?
1. Officers and servants of High Court
2. Rights in land
3. Banking
4. Police

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
60. A majority of not less than two-third of the membership of the House concerned is not necessary for removal of which of the following authority?
1. Chief Election Commissioner
2. A Judge of High Court
3. Speaker of House of People
4. President of India

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 3
61. In which case the Supreme Court of India held that “right to life” does not include “right to die”?
1. State of Maharashtra v. Maruti Sripati (1987)
2. P. Rathinam v. Union of India (1994)
3. Gian Kaur v. State of Punjab (1996)
4. Mithu v. State of Punjab (1983)

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 3
62. The total number of members in the Legislative Council of a State having such a Council shall not exceed:
1. one-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State
2. one-half of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State
3. the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State
4. two-third of the total number of members in the Legislative Assembly of that State

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1



πŸ“˜ Constitution Test 5 [Fully Solved] – Questions 63 to 75

63. Which Article of the Constitution puts a duty on every citizen of India to renounce practices derogatory to the dignity of the woman?
1. Article 21
2. Article 51 A (g)
3. Article 19
4. Article 51 A (e)

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 4
64. By which amendment to the Constitution, Article 16 (4B) was added?
1. The Constitution (Eighty-second Amendment) Act, 2000
2. The Constitution (Eighty-fifth Amendment) Act, 2001
3. The Constitution (Ninetieth Amendment) Act, 2003
4. The Constitution (Eighty-first Amendment) Act, 2000

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 4
65. Election to fill a vacancy in the office of President occurring by reason of his death, resignation or removal, or otherwise, shall be held as soon as possible after, and in no case later than:
1. six months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
2. one month from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
3. two months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy
4. three months from the date of occurrence of the vacancy

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
66. Article 29 (2) of the Constitution provides that “No citizen shall be denied admission into any educational institution maintained by the State or receiving aid out of State funds on grounds only of:
1. race, caste, sex, language or any of them
2. religion race, caste, sex, language or any of them
3. religion, race, caste, language or any of them
4. religion, race, caste, place of birth, language or any of them

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 3
67. The conclusive part of Article 31 C, i.e. “and no law containing a declaration that it is for giving effect to such policy shall be called in question in any court on the ground that it does not give effect to such policy” was struck down by the Supreme Court in the case of:
1. Minerva Mills v. UOI, AIR 1980 SC 1789
2. Kesavananda Bharti v. State of Kerala, AIR 1973 SC 1461
3. Bhirn Singh v. UOI, AIR 1981 SC 234
4. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab, AIR 1967 SC 1643

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 2
68. In which Article of the Constitution the “Contingency Fund” of India is defined?
1. Article 267
2. Article 269
3. Article 266
4. Article 268

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
69. Financial emergency under Article 360 of the Constitution once imposed, after the approval by both the Houses of Parliament within the period of two months, shall remain valid for the period of:
1. six months
2. one year
3. three year
4. till it is revoked by the Parliament

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 4
70. All doubts and disputes arising out of or in connection with the election of the President shall be inquired into and decided by the:
1. Supreme Court
2. Parliament in consultation with Election Commission of India
3. Elected members of Parliament and State Legislative Assemblies
4. Election Commission of India

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
71. Right to enforce which Articles of the Constitution cannot be suspended during emergency?
1. Articles 19 and 20
2. Articles 21 and 22
3. Articles 19 and 21
4. Articles 20 and 21

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 4
72. The President of India may be removed from the office by impeachment on the ground of:
1. violation of the Constitution
2. proved misbehavior
3. proved misbehavior or incapacity
4. proved misbehavior and misconduct

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 1
73. The joint sitting of both the Houses of Parliament in certain cases can be called by the President under Article:
1. 107
2. 109
3. 110
4. 108

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 4
74. In which one of the following cases, the Supreme Court decided that, a constitutional amendment which ‘takes away or abridges” a Fundamental Right would be void, and therefore, forced the Parliament to enact the Twenty-fourth Amendment Act?
1. Sajjan Singh v. State of Rajasthan
2. Shankari Prasad Singh Deo v. Union of India
3. Golak Nath v. State of Punjab
4. Kesavananda Bharti V. State of Kerala

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 3
75. A law, which abridges Fundamental Rights, is not a nullity but remains inoperative till the shadow of Fundamental Rights falls over such rights. This is known as doctrine of:
1. Pleasure
2. Pith and substance
3. Eclipse
4. Severability

πŸ‘‰ Ans: 3

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