DU LLB 2004 Question Paper

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DU LL.B. 2004 Question Paper

Time: 2 hours Total Marks: 700

1. Principle: The occupier of a premise owes a duty of care to all his invitees and visitors.
Facts: Suresh was a owner of a big bunglow with a compound wall. He was constructing a swimming pool in his compound. Since the work was incomplete, he asked his workers to cover it with gunny bags. Next morning, the post-man who came inside to deliver a telegram fell into this unfinished pool. The post-man field a suit against Suresh claiming compensation.
(a) Suresh is not liable becuase he did not invite the postman to his house
(b) Suresh is not liable because it was for the postman to take care of himself
(c) Suresh is liable because the postman came into the premises in the course of his duty
(d) Suresh is liable as he owes duty of care to every visitor

2. Principle: A minor’s agreement is absolutely void.
Facts: Cuckoo age 16 is a stamp collector. He is particularly anxious to get a rare stamp belonging to Manoj who agrees in writing to sell this to Cuckoo for Rs. 100/- but subsequently refuses to deliver it to Cuckoo though Cuckook pays Rs. 100/-. Cuckoo now wants to sue Manoj. Will he succeed?
(a) Cuckoo cannot succeed as Manoj is not liable
(b) Cuckoo can succeed as he has paid Rs. 100 for the stamp
(c) Cuckoo can succeed as Manoj agreed in writing to seel the stamp
(d) Cuckoo cannot succeed as he is a minor and minor’s agreement is void

3. Principle: Marriage of minors under the Hindu Marriage Act 1955, is not null and Void.
Facts: A petition is filed by a wife claiming maintenance from her husband in 1989. The husband opposed the claim on the ground that at the time of marriage, the wife was five years of age and he himself was 10 years and that their marriage was illegal. Will the wife succeed?
(a) The wife will succeed as the marriage was valid
(b) The wife will not succeed because both of them were minors
(c) The wife will not succeed because the marriage was illegal
(d) The wife will succeed as the marriage was not null and void

4. Principle:
A Promissory Note is an instrument in writing signed by the maker to pay a certain sum of money only to or to the order of a certain person.
Facts: Anand promises to pay Yogesh a sum of Rs. 5,000/- though e-mail. Later, Anand refuses to pay. Can Yogesh sue him?
(a) Yogesh can sue him as Anand made a promise to pay him Rs. 5,000/-
(b) Yogesh cannot sue him as this is not a promissory note
(c) Yogesh can sue him as this is a promissory note
(d) Yogesh can sue because an e-mail may be a P. Note.


6. Principle: An unfair trade practice includes a trade practice which for the purpose of sale, falsely represents that the goods are of a particular standard, quality or grade.
Facts: P & Co. issues an advertisement that their toothpaste is 102% better than the toothpaste of C & Co. is this an unfair trade practice?
(a) No, this is not an unfair trade practice as this is a normal practice in trade
(b) No, because the facts in this advertisement are correct
(c) Yes, because the facts relating to the product are not correct
(d) No, it is just an advertising gimmick

7. Principle: A master is liable for the wrongful acts of his servants committed in the course of employment.
Facts: Lakshmi was a housewife who opened an account with the Maharashtra Bank, where under she agreed to deposit Rs. 300/- every month and deposit in the Bank. The Bank used to give a small commission to Krishna for the money deposited. It was discovered one day Krishna had not deposited the amount for more than three months and had disappeared with the money. Lakshmi filed a suit against Maharashtra Bank.
(a) Maharashtra Bank would not be liable because Krishna was not its employee
(b) Maharashtra Bank would be liable because Krishna was paid commission by the bank for doing work on its behalf
(c) Maharashtra Bank would not be liable as it was Lakshmi’s responsibility to check her passbook regularly
(d) Krishna is not duly appointed agent, Bank’ll not be liable

8. Principle: An incorporated company under the Companies Act has a separate legal entity and corporate liability.
Facts: Certain persons transferred a tea estate to an incorporated company and claimed exemptions from “ad valorem” duty on the ground that they themselves were shareholders in the company.
(a) The shareholders are liable to pay as the company is a separate legal person
(b) The shareholders are not liable to pay it is a transfer from them in one name to themselves under another name
(c) The shareholders are liable because everybody has to pay duty on a transfer on conveyance
(d) The shareholders are not liable as the company has already paid

9. Principle: Ignorance of law is no excuse.
Facts: A fails to file his income tax returns for five years. The Income Tax department issues to him notice to show cause as to why proceedings should not be initiated against him for the recovery of the income tax due from him with penalty and interest. Advise A.
(a) A may request the department to waive the interest and penalty as he was not aware
(b) A must pay the tax dues as ignorance cannot be pleaded as a ground of defence
(c) A may request the Court to excuse him as his advocate has told him that he is not liable to pay taxes
(d) A may plead of not getting proper information from the department

10. Principle: The obligation to maintain parents who are unable to maintain themselves which was moral upto 1973 has now been made legal.
Facts: After her marriage Dr. Vijaya continued her medical practice but she no longer maintained her old parents who were sick and bedridden and had no other means. They sued their daughter for maintenance.
(a) They will not succeed as Dr. Vijaya is not married
(b) They will not succeed because Dr. Vijaya’s responsibility is now towards her husband and his parents
(c) They will succeed because a daughter after her marriage does not cease to be the daughter of her father or mother
(d) Dr. Vijaya is not a son, she is not liable

11. Disobedience of any order, judgement, etc. of a court amounts to
(a) Perjury
(b) Contempt of court
(c) Offence
(d) None of above

12. A written statement in the name of a person by whom it is voluntarily signed and sworn to is
(a) Affidavit
(b) Affirmation
(c) Affray
(d) None of above

13. A crime of unlawfully destroying or damaging any property by fire is
(a) Buggery
(b) Affray
(c) Arson
(d) Rioting

14. Which of the following is an enquiry into cause of death
(a) Coroneration
(b) Inquest
(c) Investigation
(d) Prosecution

15. In a civil suit, the person who files a suit and the person against whom it is filed is called
(a) Accused, prosecutor
(b) State, defandant
(c) Accussed, defandant
(d) Plaintiff, defandant

16. Who is responsible for introduction of PIL in India
(a) Justice PN. Bhagwati
(b) Justice M.N. Venkatachaliah
(c) Justice A.M. Ahmadi
(d) Justice V.R. Krishna Iyer

17. When a person aids the commission of an offence, he is called
(a) Abettor
(b) Accessory
(c) Accomplice
(d) Abeyer

A formal instrument by which one person empowers another to represent him is called
(a) Will
(b) Power of representation
(c) Instrument of representation
(d) Power of attorney

19. Which of the following polygamy
(a) Sikh
(b) Christians
(c) Jews
(d) Muslims

20. If a person makes a false statement, knowing it to be false, he commits the offence of
(a) Perils
(b) False evidence
(c) Perjury
(d) Contempt of court

21. A person sends his servant with a computer to be delivered to his friend. The servant takes away the computer and uses it. This fact was discovered few days later. The person can report for
(a) Cheating
(b) Embezzlement
(c) Fraud
(d) Forgery

22. Defamation by means of writing or printing is called
(a) Liber
(b) Libel
(c) Lex-scripta
(d) Liable

23. Mr. ‘A’ published a statement that “Mrs. X had given birth to a child”. But Mrs. X married only a month before. It is
(a) Libel
(b) Innuendo
(c) Slander
(d) Fair comment

24. ‘Extradition’ means
(a) Exports without double taxation
(b) Order of Indian court will apply on Indians living outside
(c) Deportation of criminals
(d) Deportation of criminals on reciprocal basis

25. ‘Ubi jus ibi remediem’ means
(a) When there is any right, there is a remedy
(b) Laws are universally known
(c) It is law which creates rights and duties
(d) Justice is the only remedy

26. Negligence means
(a) Failure to take reasonable care and caution as of prudent person
(b) Causing damage intentionally
(c) Merely unreasonable conduct without causing any damage
(d) None of the above

27. One who gives reply against appellant
(a) Respondant
(b) Defendant
(c) Plaintiff
(d) Accused

28. What is a testament
(a) Evidence oral
(b) Will
(c) Evidence documentary
(d) Court order

29. ‘FIR’ stands for
(a) First investigation report
(b) First information report
(c) Frequent information report
(d) Formal investigation report

30. An insolvent person is
(a) Mentally unsound
(b) Infirm
(c) Financially unsound
(d) Bankrupt

31. For ‘kidnapping’, the person who is kidnapped must be
(a) Below 16 years of age
(b) Below 18 years of age
(c) Below 18 years if male and 16 yrs if female
(d) Below 16 years if male and 18 years if female

32. Muslim husband pays money to his divorced wife is
(a) Grant
(b) Loan
(c) Mehar
(d) As directed by court

33. Can a Muslim woman marry a Christian male
(a) Never
(b) Under Special Marriage Act
(c) Yes, as per Muslim rituals
(d) As per Christian rituals

34. ‘Right to property’ was deleted from Part III of constitution by the Government of
(a) Congress party
(b) Janta Dal
(c) Janta party
(d) CPI

35. Appeal from administrative tribunal lies to
(a) High Court
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Sessions Court
(d) None

36. Information Technology Act comes in force in year
(a) 2000
(b) 2001
(c) 2002
(d) 2003

To practise in any Courts of India, the minimum age is,
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 25 years
(d) 35 years

38. An agreement for the use and possession of a property for a fixed period of time on payment of certain sum
(a) Legacy
(b) Tenancy
(c) Lease
(d) Mortgage

39. A writ issued by Supreme Court compelling a quasi-judicial, public authorities, government instrumentalities to perform their mandatory duty is
(a) Quo-warranto
(b) Mandamus
(c) Certiorari
(d) Habeas-corpus

40. Parliament comprises
(a) Lok-Sabha
(b) Rajya Sabha
(c) President, Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
(d) Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha

41. ‘Convict’ means
(a) Person who is accused
(b) Person on whom the FIR has been lodged
(c) Person on whom the crime has been proved
(d) Person who is punished by court for a crime

42. Accused means
(a) Person who is suspected of a crime
(b) Person who is arrested by police
(c) Person to whom court issues a summon
(d) Person against whom the FIR has been lodged

43. Sub-judice means
(a) Under the observation of court
(b) Under the consideration of court
(c) A body assisting the court
(d) Body working under court

44. If any person takes loan on any movable property, it is
(a) Mortgage
(b) Pledge
(c) Security
(d) None of above

45. A promise to the buyer for repairing of goods during a specified period is
(a) Right
(b) Guarantee
(c) Trust
(d) Warranty

46. Charge sheet is signed by
(a) Investigation officer
(b) Magistrate
(c) Advocate
(d) Accused

47. ignorantia Juris Non Excusat’ means
(a) Ignorance of law is not an excuse
(b) Ignorance of fact is not an excuse
(c) Ignorance of law is an excuse
(d) Ignorance of fact is an excuse

48. Intercourse with a girl below 16 years of age is
(a) Offence, if not with her consent
(b) Not an offence if with her consent
(c) Offence, even if with her consent
(d) None

49. Electoral college of President consists of
(a) Members of Parliament
(b) Members of legislative assemblies
(c) Elected Members of Parliament and Legislative Assemblies
(d) Citizens of India

50. Who among the following can be removed by impeachment
(a) Attorney General
(b) Comptroller and Auditor General
(c) U.P.S.C. Chairman
(d) Chief Election Commissioner

51. Child labour is prohibited by which Article of the Constitution upto the age of 14 years
(a) Article 14
(b) Article 17
(c) Article 24
(d) Article 21-A

52. Who is competent to alter the boundaries of state
(a) Parliament only
(b) President only
(c) State Legislator only
(d) Parliament on advice of state legislature

53. Meaning of secularism is
(a) Restraining some one to a particular religion
(b) Giving equal opportunity to all religion
(c) Preventing state to interfere in religious matter
(d) Every person is free to profess, practise and propose any religion

54. Who presides over joint session of Parliament
(a) Vice-president
(b) Parliamentary affairs minister
(c) President
(d) Speaker of Lok Sabha

55. Who is ex-officio chairman of Rajya Sabha
(a) Vice-president
(b) Attorney General of India
(c) President
(d) None

56. Minimum age for membership of Rajya Sabha is
(a) 25 years
(b) 30 years
(c) 33 years
(d) 35 years

57. What can be maximum number of ministers in the Government?
(a) 60
(b) 90
(c) 120
(d) 15% of the total membership

58. Who can amend the provisions of citizenship of India
(a) President
(b) Parliament
(c) Prime Minister
(d) Home Minister

59. How many languages are there in 8th schedule of the Constitution
(a) 22
(b) 18
(c) 19
(d) 15

60. Safeguarding of forest is insured by which Article of Constitution
(a) Article 47
(b) Article 48
(c) Article 48A
(d) Article 43A

61. The essential ingredients of crime are
(a) Motive, mens rea, actus reus
(b) Motive, intention, knowledge
(c) Actus reus, Means rea
(d) Knowledge, intention, action

62. The source of law in India is
(a) People
(b) Parliament
(c) Supreme Court
(d) Constitution

63. Rule of basic structure propounded in
(a) Golak Nath’s case
(b) Keshvananda Bharti’s case
(c) Minerva Mill’s case
(d) Raj Narain’s case

64. Full form of SEBI
(a) Securities and Exchange Board of India
(b) State Electricity Board of India
(c) State Economical Board of India
(d) None

65. TRIPS stand for
(a) Trade Related Intellectual Property Rights
(b) Trade Related Investment Protection System
(c) Trade Related Intellectual Protection
(d) Trade Related Invention Protection Scheme

66. Universal Declaration of Human Rights (UDHR) was made on
(a) 10 December, 1948
(b) 10 January, 1948
(c) 20 February, 1992
(d) 20 January, 1992

67. Who is chairman of National Human Rights Commission?
(a) Justice J.S. Verma
(b) Justice A.S. Anand
(c) Justice Venkatchallaiah
(d) Justice Ranghnath Mishra

68. Who was Chief Justice of India before 35th Chief Justice of India Justice R.C. Lahoti
(a) Justice V.N. Khare
(b) Justice S. Hegde
(c) Justice V.C. Banarjee
(d) Justice S. Rajendra Babu

69. Where the ‘Best Bakery Trial’ was transferred
(a) Banglore
(b) Bombay
(c) Raipur
(d) Jaipur

70. Head of delimitation commission (af Justice Kuldeep Singh
(a) Justice Kuldeep Singh
(b) K.P.S. Gill
(c) Justice Patnaik
(d) Justice J.S. Verma

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71. Which Article of the Indian Constitution provides the Parliament the power to amend the Constitution
(a) 360
(b) 368
(c) 390
(d) 348

72. No Money Bill can be introduced in the legislative assembly of the state except on the recommendations of
(a) The Parliament
(b) The Governor1 of the State
(c) The President of India
(d) Special Committee of MPs

Condier the following statements about the Vice- President of India.
(I) He is the ex-officio chairman of the Rajya Sabha
(II) He must be member of the Rajya Sabha for his/her election as Vice-President
(III) He is elected by member of both houses of Parliament and state legislative assemblies
(IV) If the President resigns or dies the Vice- President officiates as President for not more than six months
(a) (I) and (IV)
(b) (II) and (III)
(c) (I) and (III)
(d) (III) and (IV)

74. The Comptroller and Auditor General of India is appointed by the
(a) president of India
(b) speaker of Lok Sabha
(c) chairman of Rajya Sabha
(d) chairman of the Public Accounts Committee

75. To whom is the Council of Minister collectively responsible
(a) The President
(b) The Prime Minister
(c) The Lok Sabha
(d) The Rajya Sabha

76. The Directive Principles of State Policy have been given in the Constitution
(a) Part III
(b) Part II
(c) Part XIII
(d) Part IV

77. Which state has the maximum number of members in
(a) Punjab
(b) Bihar
(c) Madhya Pradesh
(d) None of these

78. Which of the following has the sole authority to control the expenditure of the Union Government (a) Prime Minister JM) Parliament
(a) Prime Minister
(b) Parliament
(c) Vice-President
(d) Comptroller and Auditor General

79. The Indian Constitution provides for a
(a) federation
(b) union of states
(c) unfederal system
(d) unitary system

80. What is the minimum age prescribed to become a member of Lok Sabha
(a) 18 years
(b) 21 years
(c) 35 years
(d) 25 years

81. Theterm of each member of Rajya Sabha is
(a) 5 years
(b) 6 years
(c) 4 years
(d) not fixed

82. The Constitution of India came into force on
(a) August 15, 1947
(b) January 26, 1950
(c) January 26, 1947
(d) August 15, 1950

83. Which of the following qualification are required for becoming a governor of an Indian state
(a) Must be citizen of India
(b) Must not be less than 35 years of age
(c) Must not hold office of profit
(d) All the above

84. What is the power of the Rajya Sabha with regard to a Money Bill
(a) It can amend it
(b) It can reject it
(c) It can withhold it
(d) It has no power

85. The President of India is elected by an electoral college comprising
(a) members of Lok Sabha only
(b) members of Rajya Sabha only
(c) elected members of both House of Parliament and members of Legislative Assemblies of all states
(d) members of both houses

86. Which among the following is not a fundamental right now
(a) Right to equality
(b) Right to property
(c) Right to constitutional remedies
(d) None of these

87. Which of the following states/union territories has no legislative council
(a) Tripura
(b) Bihar
(c) Karnataka
(d) Uttar Pardesh

88. Who appoints the Governor of a state
(a) The Prime Minister
(b) The President
(c) The Speaker of Lok Sabha
(d) Vice-President of India

89. What is Zero hour
(a) When Money Bill is introduced in Lok Sabha
(b) When matters of utmost importance are raised
(c) When proposals of opposition are considered
(d) Interval between morning and evening sessions

90. Article 370 of the Constitution is applicable to the state of
(a) Punjab
(b) Jammu & Kashmir
(c) Nagaland
(d) Sikkim

91. The landmark presidential and parliamentary election saw such a …………..turnout that polling stations were ordered to stay ……………..an extra
two hours
(a) poor …………..closed
(b) high ………….open
(c) fair…………. away
(d) mob……………… on

92. It is extremely disconcerting that the media is giving………. to wild allegations made by people totally………….. with the incident
(a) credence…………. unconnected
(b) attention……….. taken
(c) encouragement ………….fed up with
(d) money…………… poverty-struck

93. This …………..the rise of fundamentalism and intolerance ……………by selfish groups and power-hungry politicians all over the world
(a) spreads……………. banned
(b) stops…………. criticized
(c) highlights…………. fanned
(d) covers up……………… publicized

94. The former Vice-Chanellor of Aligarh University points out that every mosque north of Emakulam has been ………women to offer prayers for years now, and the opponents to this are in a ……….
(a) welcoming ………….temple
(b) permitting ………..minority
(c) a right of ……………majority
(d) prohibiting …………….fierce state

95. The survey report did not allude to all this …………… because no new information was ……….
(a) neglect……………. desired
(b) presumably…………….. available
(c) arguably ………………….sought
(d) obviously ………………..altered

96. Most cliches, even stereotyped ones, contain
(a) only lies
(b) objectivity
(c) a grain of truth
(d) subjectivity

97. The trick involved in any attempt to create an……… of three dimensions when only two are present is well known
(a) extra
(b) image
(c) angle
(d) illusion

98. It is the……… after all, who see the dawn at the end of a long, dark night
(a) weather-men
(b) optimists
(c) instruments
(d) planets

99. Business relies……….. on the……… of its communications
(a) efficiency
(b) depth
(c) width
(d) number of lines

100. One of the hallowed glories of the British constitution is the way power passes ………….at a general election from the government to its successor
(a) forth
(b) instantly
(c) to the next generation
(d) over

Q. 101-106: are to be answered on the basis of the statements below
A Fact is something, which can be seen or heard, and is capable of being verified
An Inference is a statement drawn or following from, a fact A Judgement is an opinion, and implies approval or disapproval

101. A. This is a black book
B. All black books are unlucky
C. Black books are more attractive than brown ones
(a) FFF
(b) IJJ
(c) JFJ
(d) FJJ

102. A. The man is on the grass
B. The grass is blue
C. Plastic is not a biodegradable substance
(a) JJJ
(b) FFF
(c) FIJ
(d) FFJ

103. A. It is difficult to type standing up
B. Gorillas prefer eating fruit to eating nuts
C. The young chap was a hideous shade of red
(a) JIJ
(b) FFI
(c) FFF
(d) JJF

104. A. She was typing, sitting at the desk
B. What I love about her is her calm nature
C. The receptionist gave me a friendly smile
(a) JJJ
(b) FJJ
(c) F1I
(d) FFI

105. A. The stained glass celling depicts Mary and Jesus
B. All in ail, it is another brick in the wall
C. We are Sultans of Swing
(a) JJJ
(b) FII
(c) FJJ
(d) FFF

106. A. The pen has a nice, free-flowing action
B. It is blue with a steel nib
C. The words sketch themselves on paper as if eager to tumble off such a pen
(a) FFJ
(b) FIJ
(c) JFJ
(d) FFI

107 to 111 Strong arguments must be both important and directly related to the question. Weak arguments may not be directly related or may be related to trivial-aspects of the question, and may be of minor importance.

107. The private lives of public figures must not be discussed in the press
(I) YES: The press has no right to invade the privacy of an individual public or otherwise
(II) No: Public figures must be used to curiosity about their private lives
(III) YES: The Press has a pressing need to be relevant and balanced
(IV) NO: Public figures are not very sensitive people
(a) Only (I) is strong
(b) All are strong
(c) All are week
(d) (I) and (III) are strong

108. Child marriages must be strongly discouraged
(I) YES: This is an evil affecting those who need the most protection
(II) NO: The custom started with some justification behind it, that must be understood, and a fine is sufficient to
(III) YES: Strong and effective legislation is definitely a deterrent to such social crimes
(IV) NO: Child marriages are not children’s play, after all
(a) (I) and (III) are strong
(b) Only (IV) is weak
(c) All are strong
(d) Only (III) is weak

God exists
(I) YES: If he did not exist, we would not exist
(II) NO: There is no scientific evidence available
(III) YES: An idea of man exists, that idea is God
(IV) NO: Because man controls his own destiny
(a) Only (I) is strong
(b) Only (II) is strong
(c) All are weak
(d) Only (III) is strong

110. Voting must be made compulsory
(I) YES: Results will be more representative of the choice of the people
(II) NO: Compulsion is no fun
(III) YES: Leaders will govern better
(IV) YES: India is a democracy
(a) (I) and (II) are strong
(b) (I) and (III) are strong
(c) Only (IV) is strong
(d) Only (I) is strong

111. Advertising is a wasteful expenditure
(I) YES: How many people can read
(II) NO: If it was wasteful, then no body would advertise
(III) NO: Advertising industry employs a lot of people
(IV) NO: Pleasant pictures are worth a thousand words
(a) (I) and (IV) are weak
(b) Only (IV) is weak
(c) All are weak
(d) (II) and (III) are weak

112. SKEW
(a) to distort
(b) penetrate
(c) challenge
(d) slide

(a) desperate situation
(b) curious performer
(c) frustrating problem
(d) Irresistible force

(a) deep suspicion
(b) fear
(c) sympathetic understanding
(d) willingness

(a) ancient history
(b) ornament
(c) proximity
(d) dishonesty

(a) substantial
(b) righteous
(c) good
(d) supernatural

(a) a hungry person
(b) someone suffering indigestion
(c) baker
(d) an expert in appreciating food

(a) to send again
(b) to take back
(c) re-write
(d) rescue


(a) unforgettable
(b) unyielding
(c) obedient
(d) obvious

(a) involving others
(b) physical
(c) taking the initiative
(d) positive

(a) ecstasy
(b) fast speech
(c) harmony
(d) response

(a) childish
(b) commercial
(c) in transit
(d) greedy

(a) tough
(b) contemptible
(c) genteel
(d) praise

124. VENT
(a) suppress, bottle up
(b) repudiate
(c) quite
(d) ascetic

125. VENAL
(a) steady
(b) clean, incorruptive
(c) robust
(d) mild

(a) rear flank
(b) heedless
(c) license
(d) front view

127. A. Is it really that complicated
B. The fact is that no sooner have we turned a couple of years old, than we are being admonished by grown-ups to ‘stop crying’ and be ‘a man’.
C. Psychologists have been known to write hefty volumes on the subject with titles like ‘studies on expressions of feelings by the male species.’
D. We just took a trip down memory lane and figured it all put pretty quickly
(a) ABCD
(b) ABDC
(c) CABD
(d) CADB

128. A. The number of replies may not be overwhelming, but they have been heartening
B. The entries narrate warm, touching tales, indicating bonds that destroy the maligning mouth
C. The response a month later proves that the lady’s unflattering stereotype needs to be discarded
D. In fact, it is more significant to go beyond numbers to the content
(a) ABDC
(b) BDAC
(c) CADB
(d) ASCD

129. A. A cherished heritage is at stake
B. Like many other treasured monuments, the Taj today stands threatened due to pollution
C. It is aptly referred to as ‘poetry in stone’ by poet Rabindranath Tagore
D. Taj – the marvel, the magic, the mystique
(a) DC BA
(b) CBAD
(c) ABCD
(d) ACBD

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130. Enjoyment through imagined sharing of another’s experience
(a) vinous
(b) viand
(c) victual
(d) vicarious

131. Using more words than necessary
(a) verbatim
(b) veracity
(c) verbose
(d) voluble

132. Showing strong feelings, intense, fervent
(a) vehement
(b) vagrant
(c) ventilate
(d) venerate

133. A running feud
(a) vindictive
(b) vituperation
(c) vengeance
(d) vendetta

134. A moment which is not appropriate or timed well
(a) inept
(b) inopportune
(c) inane
(d) inebriate

135. Intangible, very hard to understand
(a) indecipherable
(b) indelible
(c) impalpable
(d) ineluctable

136. A generic term for a wide spectrum of information
(a) infrastructure
(b) interface
(c) communication
(d) information technology

137. A cult figure
(a) demi-god
(b) hero
(c) icon
(d) messiah

138. A rough sketch of the suspect drawn from features cued by the public who have seen him is ……….
(a) illustrious
(b) identikit
(c) identical
(d) inter-alia

139. The situation in which there seems to be no way out is …….
(a) indefatigable
(b) indomitable
(c) impasse
(d) impermeable

140. ……….is something which is incapable of being repealed or brought back
(a) inordinate
(b) irrevocable
(c) infamble
(d) intractable

141. The spirit of which is not possible to defeat or dampen is ………
(a) impeccable
(b) impious
(c) imperturbable
(d) inequitable

(a) honourable
(b) useful
(c) fickle
(d) forgetful

(a) inexpressible
(b) powerful
(c) yielding
(d) honest

(a) reverent
(b) insignificant
(c) repentant
(d) avoid

(a) decent
(b) caim, cool, self possessed
(c) changeable
(d) colourless, drab, lack lusture

The Year 1920 in Indian History is associated with
(a) Jallianwala Massacre
(b) Salt Satyagraha
(c) Rowlatt Act
(d) Non-co-operation Movement

147. Which was the first European power to come to India
(a) The English
(b) The French
(c) The Dutch
(d) The Portuguese

148. Legal proceedings against Azad Hind Fauj were held at
(a) Delhi
(b) Singapore
(c) Bombay
(d) Kolkata

149. Gopal Krishna Gokhale’s name is associated with
(a) Hindu Mahasabha
(b) Brahmo Samaj
(c) Servants of India Society
(d) All India Trade Union

150. The Capital of India was shifted from Calcutta to Delhi in the year
(a) 1906
(b) 1909
(c) 1910
(d) 1911

151. Vande Mataram’ was written by
(a) Rabindranath Tagore
(b) Mulkh Raj Anand
(c) Bankim Ch. Chatterjee
(d) Swami Vivekanand

152. Aligarh Muslim University was initially founded as a college by
(a) Abdul Kalam Azad
(b) Sir Syed Ahmed Khan
(c) Dr. Zakir Hussain
(d) Sher Shah

153. Secularism in the Indian Constitution stands for
(a) Separation of religion from public life
(b) Equality of all religion
(c) Prohibition of religious parties in politics
(d) Freedom of Religion

154. Judicial Review relates to the authority of the court to
(a) Punish for contempt
(b) Give advisory opinion
(c) Determine the constitutionality of law or executive action
(d) To entertain public interest litigation

155. Judges of the Supreme Court are selected by
(a) the Chief Justice of India
(b) a panel of Senior-most Judges of the Supreme Court
(c) the Union Law Minister
(d) the Prime Minister

156. Members of the Constituent Assembly of India were
(a) elected by the people
(b) nominated by the Viceroy
(c) nominated by the Congress Party
(d) elected by the Provincial Assemblies

157. Right to Property was dropped from Part III of the Constitution by
(a) 25th Amendment
(b) 39th Amendment
(c) 42nd Amendment
(d) 44th Amendment

158. The power to decide on election petition is vested in the
(a) Parliament
(b) Supreme Court
(c) Election Commission
(d) President

159. Which one of the following writs is issued in case of illegal detention
(a) Certiorari
(b) Mandamus
(c) Habeas Corpus
(d) Quo Warranto

Article 370 of the Indian Constitution relates to
(a) Declaration
(b) Special Status of J & K
(c) Uniform Civil Code
(d) Constitutional Amendment

161. The concept of Sarvodaya is associated with
(a) M.K. Gandhi
(b) Jayaprakash Narayan
(c) Vinobha Bhave
(d) Jawaharlal Nehru

162. Emperor Ashoka belonged to the period
(a) 500 B.C.
(b) 250 B.C.
(c) 350 B.C.
(d) 1000 A.D.

163. Universal Declaration of Human Rights was adopted by U.N. in
(a) 1948
(b) 1962
(c) 1937
(d) 1951

164. Amartya Sen received the Nobel Prize for his contribution to
(a) Human Rights
(b) Development Theory
(c) Democracy
(d) Education

165. Uniform Civil Code stands for
(a) Abolition of customary law
(b) Globalization of legal system
(c) Equality before law
(d) Uniform Family law for all religious groups

166. “Clash of Civilization” is written by
(a) Noam Chomsky
(b) Amartya Sen
(c) Huntington
(d) Arundhati Roy

167. Constitution of India was adopted in the year
(a) 1947
(b) 1950
(c) 1949
(d) 1948

168. A narrow strip of land connecting two large land masses is called
(a) Peninsula
(b) Strait
(c) Island
(d) isthmus

169. On which day is the sun nearest to the earth
(a) Jul-06
(b) Jan-03
(c) Sep-22
(d) Dec-22

170. What is Durand Line?
(a) Boundary between Afghanistan and Pakistan
(b) Boundary between India and Pakistan
(c) Boundary between India and China
(d) Boundary between India and Burma

171. Which State in India is known as the “God’s own-Country.
(a) Arunachal Pradesh
(b) Kerala
(c) Tamil Nadu
(d) Sikkim

172. Which one of the following is an east-flowing rive
(a) Cauvery
(b) Narmada
(c) Sone
(d) Tapti

173. What are doldrums?
(a) Humid areas
(b) Parts of the ocean near the equator which is calm with light winds
(c) Trade winds
(d) Deep ocean

174. The earth rotates on its axis from
(a) East to West
(b) West to East
(c) North to South
(d) South to North

175. Which of the following remains in India throughout its journey
(a) Chenab
(b) Jhelum
(c) Beas
(d) Ravi

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